Past Papers Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of optic neuritis do you see in MS

A

Inflammatory Optic Neuritis

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2
Q

What kind of optic neuritis do you see in GCA

A

Ischaemic Optic Neuritis

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3
Q

Altered bowel habits
Los of weight
Ascitis in females

What should you think of

A

Ovarian Ca

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4
Q

What is the Mx of HUS

A

Eculizumab

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5
Q

What is the Ix of Choice for MND

A

EMG

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6
Q

What infection is transmitted through Unpasteurised milk

A

Listeria
Mx: Amox

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7
Q

What is the relation between Beta HCG and hyperemsis with TSH and thyroid

A

Beta HCG is similar to TSH and so stilulatesTHyroid hormone release and Low TSH

Once Hyper-emesis settles;
TSH will also settle

Conservative mx only
Juts repeat TFT’s in 4 weeks

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8
Q

What is the relation between SS and Altered bowel habits. What should you think of

A

SIBO

Ix; Hydrogen breath test/ Carbohydrate Breath test

Mx:
Metronidazole/ Rifaximin

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9
Q

What drug can you use to treat / reduce lytic bone lesions in MM

A

Denosumab ( RANKL inhibitors)

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10
Q

What do you if someone Receiving Vanc, develops allergies

A

Stop Transfusion, give anti-histamines and hydrocortisone and restart infusion at Half speed.

Vancomycin Red Man Syndrome

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11
Q

What is the Mx of Lambert Eaton Syndrome

A

Amifampridine

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12
Q

Brazil
AV Block
Oesophageal problems

What is the Dx

A

Chagas disease

Triotamine bugs ( bite/ faeces)

Mx: Benzinidazoles

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13
Q

What is the drug of choice in inducing remission in Membranous GN

A

Rituximab

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14
Q

What is the MOA of Vedolizumab

A

Integrin Antagonist

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15
Q

Unstable possible PE

What is the best initial Ix

A

Bedside Echo

Definitive ; CTPA

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16
Q

Pt. with short bowel syndrome - what stones are they at a risk of

A

Oxalate stones

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17
Q

Which Abx is safe in pregnancy In 1st Trimester for UTI

A

Nitrofurantoin

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18
Q

Post PCI for inf. MI
Pt. has asymptomatic broad complexes. What do you do

A

Observation only

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19
Q

What Is the 1st line Mx for urianry problems for acute symptoms in BPH

A

Doxazosin - Alfa blocker
( relaxes bladder muscle)
Rapid action

Note:
Long term;
Use Finasteride ( 5 alfa reductase inhibitors)
Reduces prostate size and prevents progression
( takes time to act)

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20
Q

What is the 1st line Mx of Osteomyelitis in diabtetics

A

Co-amox - 1st line

2nd line - Clindamycin

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21
Q

Anal itching ; worse at night

A

Thread worms;

Mx: Mebendazole

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of SBP In someone having peritoneal Dialyiss

A

Staph Epidermis
( Coag -ve staph)

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23
Q

What is the 1st line Mx for Ig A nephropathy

A

Ramipril

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24
Q

What is the 1st line Mx for Minimal Change Nephropathy

A

Prednisolone

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25
Q

What is the Mx of HRS

A

1st - Terlipressin
2nd - TIPPS

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26
Q

If a young Pt. goes into VT arrest / or arrests when at rest.
What should you think

A

Brugada Synd.

Note;
In HOCM - it usually when physically exerts themselves

in Congenital Qt prolongation - Usually after stressorss/ exerse/ emotion change, etc

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27
Q

What group is mirabegron

A

Beta 3 - Adrenergic Agonist

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28
Q

What is the mx of Otitis Externa

A

Cipro/ Dexa ear drops

if Severe- oral Fluclox

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29
Q

What is the most specific mx for Waldesteroms

A

Dexamethasone + Rituximab (*) + Cyclophopshamide
(DRC)

Note: Plasmapheresis - Initial Mx

( especially if hyperviscosity +)

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30
Q

How many PVC - premature ventricular ecliptics are considered normal in a day

Normally heart beats ; 100,000 times a day

A

(<10,000) / 10%)

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31
Q

What is Digifab/ Digoxin Immune Fab

A

Digibind

Used to Tx digoxin toxicity

Note:
in chronic toxicity; use half the dose of digibind

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32
Q

What is Neuroborreliosis

A

Lymes ( Borrelia Burgoderfi)
With neuro symptoms

Mx:
Doxy

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33
Q

What is the criteria for poor prognosis in Liver Failure NOT related to PCM toxicity

A

Pt <11 or >40
Bili levels >300
Time of onset of jaundice to time of coma >7 days
INR>3.5
Drug toxicity ; even if not the cause of liver Failure

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34
Q

What is the cause of raised Chloride in post DKA recovery

A

Plasma Volume Expansion

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35
Q

What is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome

A

🔹 Definition: Neurological disorder due to rapid urea removal during dialysis, causing cerebral edema.
🔹 Pathophysiology:
Rapid ↓ in plasma urea → osmotic gradient → water shifts into the brain → brain swelling.
🔹 Risk Factors:
✅ First dialysis session
✅ High pre-dialysis urea (>40 mmol/L)
✅ Rapid urea clearance (>50% in one session)
✅ Young patients, elderly with cerebral atrophy
🔹 Clinical Features:
🚨 Mild: Headache, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, cramps
🚨 Severe: Confusion, agitation, seizures, coma, hypertension, raised ICP
🔹 Prevention:
✅ Slow initial dialysis (reduce urea clearance rate)
✅ Lower blood flow rate
✅ Use lower dialysate sodium concentration
✅ Mannitol or hypertonic saline to counteract osmotic shifts
🔹 Management:
1️⃣ Supportive care (oxygen, airway protection)
2️⃣ Hypertonic saline / Mannitol (reduce cerebral edema)
3️⃣ Reduce dialysis rate or stop temporarily
4️⃣ IV benzodiazepines for seizures

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36
Q

How do you treat AF in asthmatics wo are tachycardia

A

Verapamil

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37
Q

When do you consider Elective intubation in someone with myasthenia

A

FVC <20ml/kg

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38
Q

What is a major serious side effect of Bisphosphonates

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw

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39
Q

What is the mx of granulomatosis with polyangitis

A

1) Methyl pred with cyclophosphamide

Note:
If young women, who have not yet completed family;
Metyl pred + Rituximab
( due to its reduced gonadotoxity)

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40
Q

What is the pathology in retinitis pigmentosa

A

Progressive retinal photoreceptor degeneration

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41
Q

Mx of acute dystonia

A

Procyclidine
Diphenhydramine

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42
Q

What is the most imp cofirmation for brain stem death

A

Apneoa Testing

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43
Q

What is the best way to manage anticoagulation in hospital with someone who has severe renal dysfunction

A

Unfractioned Heparin

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44
Q

HB post inf. Wall MI.
What do you do

A

Observation only

Note:
if Ant wall MI –> needs intervention

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45
Q

What is the main reason to continue the basal insulin when pt. on FRII

A

To prevent rebound Hyperglycemia when FRII is stopped

46
Q

Long term urinary catheter
No symptoms
Incidental E.coli

What do you do from below
Change catheter vs Reassurance

A

Reassurance

If no symptoms whatsoever; juts reassurance
Catheter change only if symptoms persist.

47
Q

What is Miller Fischer a variant of

A

Gb synd with eye inv.
Antibodies against GQ1b is +++

Mx: IVIG/ Plasma Exchange

48
Q

What is the Mx of HUS

A

Plasma Exchange - especially if neuro symoptoms ;

Eculizumab → Used in atypical HUS (aHUS) (complement-mediated)

49
Q

How do you treat CO poisoning In someone with COPD whoa re going into type2 RF

A

NIV
( imp .to maintain as high O2 as possible - to treat CO poisoning)
( im ot flins out CO2 as well - So NIV)

50
Q

How do you interpret High dose Exam Test

A

If Cortisol drops <50% from baseline - Cushing Disease ( Central ACTH suppressed)

If failure to drop <50% from baseline;
Adrenal tumour or ectopic ACTH

51
Q

What is the Ix of choice for CLL

A

Immunophenotyping
( CD5, CD19, CD20, CD23)

52
Q

What is the Mx go Gonorrhoea

A

Ceftriaxone - 1g x IM
or
Azithro x 2g x PO

53
Q

?PE in pregnancy what should you do

A

if ?DVT
1st do doppler as safe and no radiation

54
Q

How do you mx Bone mets

A

1st - start with bisphosphonates
( Ibandronate)
Much easier and quicker to start

2nd - Radiotherapy

55
Q

What is the next line Mx of COPD if first 3 lines fail

A

Roflumilast ( Phosphodiesterase inhibitors type4)

56
Q

Mid-systolic click followed by late systolic murmur over Apex

A

MVP

( seen In Ehler Dan’s / Marfans)

57
Q

When do you do adrenal vein sampling

A

When adrenal tumour Is not found on Imaging when looking for hyperaldosteronism

58
Q

Barrets with low grade dysplasia
What is the mx

A

Radiofreqeuncy ablation

Note:
If dysplasia is not confirmed yet, then survellience every 6 months

59
Q

What is the mx of Candida Albicans of system infection

A

1) Caspofungin
2) Amphotericin B

61
Q

Salmon pink rash
Evening fevers
Joint pains
Raised Ferritin
Negative - autoimmune screen

A

Adul Onset Stills

62
Q

Thyroid eye disease; key Mx

A

Prednisolone

63
Q

Food feels like sticking
Usually after midline radiotherapy ;
or Tx for Hodsgkinds

No weight loss

What is the Dx

A

Oesophageal Stricture

Note: in Achalasia;
they’re will be symptoms of dysphagia to solids and liquids

64
Q

Pt. having chemo for oncology and in hospital.
What is the mx option for blood thinning

A

Dalteparin

65
Q

HSMN1 (CMT1) - MRCP Key Features

A

Autosomal dominant PMP22 gene duplication (CMT1A most common)

Early onset with distal muscle weakness (foot drop), pes cavus, and areflexia

Distal sensory loss (vibration/proprioception

“Champagne bottle” legs due to calf wasting
Demyelinating neuropathy → Slow conduction velocity on nerve studies
Supportive management (physiotherapy, orthotics, pain relief)
💡 MRCP Clue: “Pes cavus, foot drop, slow conduction = CMT1

66
Q

What is an alternative to erythropoietin in CKD

A

Roxadustat -
Hypoxia Inducible Factor 1

67
Q

What is the reaction between Indapamide and Gout

A

Nil

Thaizide Like diuretics do NOT cause GOUT unlike thiazides and are safe

68
Q

Radiation therapy from Hodgkins can lead other which Ca

69
Q

What is the Mx of Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome.

A

Oestrogen Ony

NOTE:
They do not have a Uterus and so no Use of Progesterone

70
Q

Which is the vaccine to avoid in HIV irrespective of what the CD4 count is ;

A

Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine

71
Q

LP shows;

Normal Glucose and Protein
Lymphocytic Pleocystosis

A

Viral Meningitis

72
Q

What is the 1st line Mx drug for Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy

A

First-line treatment for Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME) → Valproate

💡 MRCP Clue: “Teenager with morning myoclonic jerks → Valproate”

🔹 Alternatives if Valproate contraindicated (e.g., women of childbearing age):

Levetiracetam
Lamotrigine (less effective for myoclonic seizures)
Topiramate (less commonly used)
⚠️ Avoid: Carbamazepine & Phenytoin (can worsen myoclonic seizures)

73
Q

What is the 8 hr threshold to stop NAC in PCM x OD

A

If levels < 50mg/l
If still above this -:> comtinue

Note:
At 4 hrs; cutoff is 100mg/l

73
Q

which time of the day - cardiac pauses are considered more significant

A

Day time pauses

74
Q

How do you manage Steroid induced Diabetes

A

Insulin - Glargine

75
Q

What is the mx of ESBL +ve E.coli for UTI

A

Fosfomycin

Carbapenems such as meropenem/ Imipenem

76
Q

What type of Glycogen disorder is McArdle

A

Glycogen type V

77
Q

in which vasculitis do you see sinusitis

A

in
Granulomatosis with polyangitis ( GPA)
PR3 +/ C-ANCA

NOT in EGPA

78
Q

What is the 1st line Ix for Urge Incontinence

A

Post void -residual urine volume

79
Q

What is 1st ine Mx of PD

A

Levodopa

Non ergot derived dopamine agonist
( Ropinorole)

Note:
Entacope is used as an add on in late PD to better effects of Levodopa

80
Q

What is the mx of Aspirn/ Salicyate pisioing

A

within 1st Hour
If between 250-500mg/kg - Activated Charcoal
If >500 —> Gastric Lavage

if >500; after 1st
Urine Alkalinsation with sodium Bicarbonate 8.4%

For HD
if >700 with met acidosis
or >900
or coma

81
Q

MRCP Clues to Remember: Gauchers

A

Massive splenomegaly + pancytopenia + bone crises = Gaucher’s Disease
Gaucher cells = Lipid-laden macrophages (crumpled tissue paper appearance)
Foam Cells
ERT is the mainstay of treatment (Imiglucerase)

82
Q

Which anti-diabetic drug helps reduce Kidney stones

83
Q

What re the key differences between cervical spondylosis and cervical myelopathy

A

MRCP Clues to Remember:
Spondylosis = Local + Radicular symptoms (LMN signs in arms only).
Myelopathy = Cord involvement (UMN signs, gait disturbance, spasticity).
MRI is the best test for both.
Surgery (decompression) is needed for progressive myelopathy.

84
Q

What is the Mx of Cat scratch fever

A

Azithromycin

85
Q

what % of EGFR drop is normal in 1st 1-2 weeks after starting ACE

86
Q

CYP3A4 inhibitor

A

Carbamazepine

Audi “A4” is a “Car”

87
Q

ECOG Performance Status (Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Scale)
The ECOG performance status is used in oncology and palliative care to assess a patient’s ability to perform daily activities. It helps guide treatment decisions, prognosis, and clinical trial eligibility.

A

🔢 ECOG Scale:

0 – Fully active; no restrictions
1 – Restricted in strenuous activity, but can do light work
2 – Ambulatory, can care for self, but unable to work
3 – Limited self-care, bed/chair >50% of the day
4 – Completely disabled, bedridden
5 – Death
📌 MRCP Clue:

ECOG 0–1 → Fit for chemotherapy
ECOG 2 → Consider chemo but assess risks
ECOG 3–4 → Supportive care preferred

88
Q

what is the pulm artery HTN classification

A

📌 MRCP Clues:

Group 1 (PAH) → Treat with pulmonary vasodilators (e.g., Sildenafil, Bosentan)
Group 2 (LHD) → Treat underlying heart disease (Diuretics, ACEi, β-blockers)
Group 3 (Lung disease) → Treat lung disease (Oxygen, CPAP for OSA)
Group 4 (CTEPH) → Pulmonary endarterectomy or Riociguat
Group 5 (Mixed causes) → Treat underlying disorder

89
Q

What toxin is released by Staph in Impetigo

A

Exfoliative toxin A

90
Q

Secretion of different pancreatic cells

A

Alpha Cells: Secrete glucagon to increase blood glucose levels.
Beta Cells: Secrete insulin to lower blood glucose levels.
Delta Cells: Secrete somatostatin to inhibit insulin and glucagon release.
PP Cells: Secrete pancreatic polypeptide (PP) to regulate pancreatic enzyme secretion and gastric motility.
Epsilon Cells: Secrete ghrelin to stimulate appetite and regulate energy balance.
Acinar Cells: Secrete digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase, proteases) to aid in digestion.
Ductal Cells: Secrete bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid in the duodenum.

91
Q

What lung features can we see in Bronchial Carcinoid

A

Recurrent Pnuemonias;
Infections
Non smokers

92
Q

What is the Mx of hemiplegic migraine
( stroke like migraines)

93
Q

What is the best ventilation setting for covid

A

Low tidal volume (6ml.kg) , Low driving pressures(30cm H20), High PEEP (15cm H20)

94
Q

Coeliac disease
Increase in diarrhoea despite Gluten free Diet and loss of weight

A

Bowel Lymphoma

ix:
MRI of abdomen

95
Q

how do you differentiate it from Langerhans cell Histcytosis

A

Key MRCP Clue to Differentiate:

Young woman + diffuse cysts + chylous effusion + angiomyolipomas → Think LAM
Young smoker + upper lobe cysts + nodules → Think LCH

96
Q

What cells do you see In acute Interstitial nephritis in Biopsy

A

T lymphocytes and monocytes

97
Q

What is the Mx of Cutaneous Leishmaniasis ( Brazil)

A

Paromomycin

98
Q

What bowel Problem is Scleroderma usually associated with

A

SIBO

ix:
Hydrogen breath test

99
Q

Brucellosis with Discitis
What is the Mx

A

Doxy + Streptomycin

100
Q

What bore chest drains do you use in pneumothorax

A

Small bore

LArge bore- usually I trauma cases where there is blood as well

101
Q

Pt. has acitis not controlled with spirnolocatone alone
What do you do

A

Add Furosemide

102
Q

Elevated adenosine Deaminase in Peritoneal Fluid
What is the Dx

103
Q

What is the genetics between transformation of MGUS to MM

A

Activation of myc gene

104
Q

Juvenile myoclonic Epilepsy
What is the first line Mx

A

Levetiracetam

105
Q

what is the best drug to control HTN In pt. in CKD having dialysis

A

Beta Blockers

106
Q

If you want to treat Molluscum ; how do you treat it

A

podophyllitoxin

107
Q

What is the bowel screening classification for risk of colon Ca

A

if 1 or less relative died - Low risk
if 2 relatives dies - Medium risk
if >3 relatives died - High Risk

Screening ;
If low risk - usually Uk screening at 60 years

if medium risk - screening at 55 years

If High risk - at 40 years

108
Q

Lung Ca after Mx of Breast Ca caused by

A

Radiotherapy

Note:
Tamoxifen increased uterine ca risk

109
Q

What drug should you stop when someone has SBP and is on Tx for Liver disease

A

Carvidilol

110
Q

What drugs increase Lithium toxicity

A

Naproxen, Thiazides

111
Q

What is the mutation in Gittleman Synd

A

Na-K-Cl Co-transport