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MSA Questions > Past Papers > Flashcards

Past Papers Flashcards

1
Q

Surgical removal of the lower right third permanent molar (48) which nerves must be anaesthetised?

A

Inferior alveolar nerve
Lingual nerve

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2
Q

What are 2 different ways to test anaesthesia for 48?

A

Using a probe to check the PDL if patient can feel sharp
Use the probe on the patients lip, should feel a difference in the left hand side and the right hand side

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3
Q

List 4 risk factors for mouth cancer.

A

Smoking
Alcohol
HPV
Immunosuppressed

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4
Q

What dose of radiotherapy delivered to the primary tumour increases the risk of ORN?

A

60 Gy

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5
Q

What additional pieces of information do you require to know about radiotherapy treatment?

A

Field of limitation
Dose

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6
Q

List 3 Oral Complications of radiation therapy (other than ORN and radiation caries)

A

Oral Mucositis
Traumatic ulceration
Xerostomia

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7
Q

List 2 preventative measures that should be implemented to reduce the risk of future dental disease for patients who have received radiotherapy to the head and neck.

A

Regular examinations every 6 months
Avoid invasive treatment that could traumatise the bone
Consider decoronising and leaving the roots in situ

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8
Q

List one management strategy for established ORN in the jaw?

A

Use of chlorhexidine mouthwash (Corsodyl)
Hyperbaric oxygen

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9
Q

Other than Alcohol, list 2 causes of liver cirrhosis?

A

Hepatitis C
Hepatitis B
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver disease

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10
Q

List 2 priorities for a patient to render them dentally fit.

A

Good oral hygiene with a regular oral hygiene regime
Remove any infection and potential infection

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11
Q

List 2 reasons why thrombocytopenia may occur in patients with advanced alcoholic liver disease.

A

Occurs due to lower thrombopoietin production in the liver and reduced thrombopoiesis in the bone marrow and consequently thrombocytopenia

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12
Q

Other than thrombocytopenia, why might a patient with advanced alcoholic liver disease may have an increased risk of bleeding?

A

Due to less clotting factors being present in the blood, meaning that the blood doesn’t clot so bleeding does not stop as easily.

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13
Q

Name 3 types of Dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s
Vascular
Dementia with Lewy Bodies
Frontotemporal

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14
Q

List 4 signs or symptoms in someone with Late Stage Dementia.

A

Loss of Speech
Incontinence
Physical frailty, struggle to walk
Difficulty eating and sometimes swallowing

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15
Q

List 2 people who can provide a capacity assessment for dental treatment in accordance with the AWI Act 2000?

A

Doctor
Dentist who has completed the required training

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16
Q

What are the 3 antibiotics that can be given for antibiotic prophylaxis?
Dose?
Time before treatment?

A

Amoxicillin, 60 mins before treatment, 3g
Clindamycin, 60 mins before treatment 600mg (2 capsules)
Azithromycin, 60 mins before treatment 500mg (12.5ml)

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17
Q

What are the predisposing factors of dry socket?

A

More common in mandible than maxilla
More common in females
More common in molars
Smoking after extraction
Oral contraceptive pills
Excessive trauma during extraction

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of a dry socket?

A

Pain keeps patient awake at night
Dull aching pain
Throbbing pain which can radiate to the ears
Halitosis (bad smell) and patient might complain of bad taste

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19
Q

What is the management of a dry socket?

A

Support and reassure the patient
Give systemic analgesia
LA to manage the pain
Irrigate the socket with warm saline
Pack with antiseptic (alvogyl)

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20
Q

What types of tissues can you anaesthetise?

A

Dental Pulp
Buccal Gingivae
Lingual Gingivae

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21
Q

What sensation does Anaesthesia give?

A

Numbness

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22
Q

What sensation does Parasethsia give?

A

Tingling

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23
Q

What sensation does Dysaesthesia give?

A

Unpleasant sensation/pain

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24
Q

What sensation does Hypoaesthesia give?

A

Reduced sensation

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25
Q

What sensation does Hyperaesthesia give?

A

Increased/heightened sensation

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26
Q

What 4 short term impacts can child neglect have?

A

Physical Health
Emotional Health
Social Development
Cognitive Development

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27
Q

What long term affects can child neglect have?

A

Arrest
Depression
Heart Disease
Suicide

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28
Q

What 3 stages are involved in the management of child neglect?

A
  1. Preventative dental team management
  2. Preventative multi agency management
  3. Child protection referral
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29
Q

What do you see on an X-ray of a non-vital tooth?

A

Ankylosis
Internal Root Resorption
External Root Resorption
Peri-apical radiolucency

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30
Q

In nursing bottle caries, why are only certain teeth affected?

A

Lower incisors are protected by the tongue
Sequence of eruption (maxillary incisors erupt first)
If the habit continues other teeth will be affected such as the mandibular canine and all the first primary molars

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31
Q

What are some causes of Nursing Bottle Caries?

A

No brushing of teeth- minimal exposure of fluoride
Child goes to bed with bottle inside their mouth (long exposure to cariogenic sugars)
Prolonged breast feeding
Baby may not swallow the contents of the bottle and swirl it around their mouth for a long term

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32
Q

What is the correct terminology for a dry socket

A

Alveolar Osteitis

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33
Q

What are the 4 types of supernumerary teeth?

A

Conical
Tuberculate
Supplemental
Odontome

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34
Q

What is the definition of local causes of malocclusion?

A

A localised problem or abnormality within either arch, usually confined to one, two or several teeth producing a malocclusion

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35
Q

How does a variation in tooth number affect malocclusion? 4 examples

A

Supernumerary teeth
Hypodontia
Variation of timing
–retained primary teeth
–early loss of primary teeth
–unscheduled loss of permanent teeth

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36
Q

What problems can an overhang give rise to in the short and long term?

A

Short term
-Act as a plaque trap making it difficult to keep clean
-Food gets stuck in this area
-Trauma to the soft tissues
Long term
-Secondary caries
-Failure of restoration
-Periodontal disease

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37
Q

What further investigations would you carry out if you suspect necrotising periodontal disease?

A

Radiographs

38
Q

What are the predisposing factors for necrotising periodontal disease?

A

Stress
Nutritional deficiencies
Immune-compromised
Sleep deprivation
Smoking

39
Q

What is the first line of treatment for necrotising periodontal disease?

A

Debridement and antibiotics (usually metronidazole)
Superficial debridement to remove the soft and mineralised deposits
Chlorhexidine mouthwash to be used twice daily
OHI advice and predisposing factors risk assessments

40
Q

What is the risk of no treatment to necrotising periodontitis?

A

Pain will persist or it will spread to other areas of the mouth

41
Q

A patient with necrotising periodontal disease returns 2 days later. She feels the gums are still painful and is now complaining of fever and feeling generally tired and unwell , what do you do? (not finished)

A

200mg Metronidazole 3 times daily for 3 days

42
Q

What are the objectives of irrigant use in root canal treatment?

A

Disinfection
Flushing out debris
Dissolving tissue

43
Q

What is the ideal primary endodontic irrigant and what concentration range is it most effective?

A

Sodium Hypochlorite
0.5-3%

44
Q

What are the 2 main differences in the composition between decorative and dental ceramics?

A

Decorative ceramics contain Kaolin
Dental ceramics contain feldspar and silica
Dental ceramics contain glass

45
Q

Define Opalescence

A

The ability of a translucent material to appear blue in reflected light and orange/yellow in transmitted light

46
Q

Define translucency.

A

The ability of a material to allow light to pass through but be scattered at one of the surfaces or internally leading to a blurring of the transmitted light

47
Q

Name 2 bacteria associated with caries development.

A

Streptococcus mutans
Actinomyces
Lactobacillus

48
Q

Name 2 bacteria associated with periodontal disease.

A

P. gingivalis
Prevotella intermedia
Fusobacterium

49
Q

What two key features enable cariogenic organisms stick to enamel surfaces and autoaggregate, and to survive within an acidic environment?

A

Acid tolerance and adaptation
–ATPase release
Alter cell membranes
DNA protective features
Low solubility, glucans, glucosyltransferases

50
Q

Name 2 systemic diseases that have been shown to be associated with periodontal biofilms.

A

Diabetes
Osteoporosis
Alzheimer’s

51
Q

What are the 5 core stages of the washer-disinfector cycle?

A

Flush/prewash
Main Wash
Rinse
Thermal disinfection
Drying

52
Q

Describe the 5 core stages of the washer-disinfector cycle?

A

Flush/pre-wash
-saturates the contamination and removes gross contamination
Main wash
-detergent is used to remove biological matter
Rinse
-removes any remaining residue, biological or chemical
Thermal Disinfection
-actively kills microorganisms with heated water
Drying
-Uses hot air to remove any remaining moisture from the surface of instruments

53
Q

What is PICO?

A

Population
Intervention
Comparison
Outcome

54
Q

What is the most common cause of facial trauma in a female patient?

A

Domestic Abuse

55
Q

What are the 5 types of abuse that might be involved in domestic abuse?

A

Physical
Emotional
Verbal
Financial
Sexual

56
Q

What process should you follow to ask about the possibility of domestic abuse and briefly describe?

A

Ask - ask about abuse in as private a setting as you can using non-judgemental language
Validate - i.e. you do not deserve to be hurt or hit no matter what happened
Document- describe injuries in as much detail as possible using the person’s own words
Refer- signpost to services available

57
Q

List 4 physical signs you might see in domestic abuse.

A

Repeated injuries
Bruises at different stages of healing
Unlikely explanations for injury
Facial bruising or strangle marks around the neck, bruises behind the ears

58
Q

List 2 categories of patient who may be considered to be more at risk in terms of abuse than others.

A

Long term illness or disability
Mental health problems
Pregnancy

59
Q

List 4 benefits that digital radiography has over film radiography?

A

Easy transferring/sharing of images
Images can be manipulated
Easy storage & archiving of images
No need for chemical processing
Easy back-up of images

60
Q

What is the minimum distance recommended by UK guidance for the dentist to stand from the patient?

A

1.5m

61
Q

What property of lead makes it particularly effective at absorbing x-ray photons?

A

high density

62
Q

What does ALARP stand for?

A

As low as reasonably possible

63
Q

What does the term justification mean in the context of deciding whether or not to take a dental radiograph?

A

Practices must have sufficient benefit to individuals or society in order to offset the detriment

64
Q

What does dose limitation mean?

A

System of individual dose limits so that the risks to individuals are acceptable

65
Q

Give 2 fluoride containing preparations, and their doses which would be suitable for a child living in an area with less than 0.3ppm fluoride in the drinking water?

A

Fluoride Varnish-Duraphat 22,600ppm
Fluoride mouthwas, 225ppm
Fluoride toothpaste 1450ppm

66
Q

Give 2 reasons a child would be high caries risk?

A

Early loss/extraction of primary molars
New carious lesions
Existing restorations

67
Q

At what age do permanent pre-molars erupt?

A

10-11 years old

68
Q

In which type of malocclusion is injury to the upper anterior teeth most likely to occur?

A

Class II division 1

69
Q

Give 3 causes of non-carious tooth surface loss?

A

Carbonated juice
Fruit juices
Acid gastro-intestinal reflux
Grinding teeth

70
Q

Give 2 chairside methods of improving the colour of a non-vital tooth in the long-term?

A

Internal bleaching
Veneer

71
Q

Give 2 chair side methods of improving a child’s oral hygiene?

A

Tooth brushing demonstration/instruction
Disclosing tablets/solution

72
Q

What is the cause of a midline diastema?

A

Low frenal attachment

73
Q

Name 2 types of congenital cardiac abnormality?

A

Mitral valve stenosis
Aortic valve stenosis
Atrial septal defect
Ventricular septal defect

74
Q

Give 3 methods to monitor teeth affected by trauma long-term.

A

Mobility
Radiographs
TTP, percussion
Colour

75
Q

Give 2 pieces of advice which you would give to any child’s parents regarding possible long-term complications associated with traumatised primary incisors.

A

Loss of vitality
Abscess risk
May require extraction
Delayed exfoliation

76
Q

Give 2 pieces of advice which you would give to any child’s parents regarding possible long-term complications associated with the permanent incisor teeth following trauma to primary incisors.

A

Delayed eruption
Damage to crown development
-hypoplasia
-hypomineralisation
Ectopic eruption

77
Q

What name is given to this technique enabling localisation of the unerupted permanent canine?

A

Parallax

78
Q

What are the 7 elements of caries risk?

A

Clinical evidence
Fluoride use
Medical history
Social history
Plaque control
Dietary habits
Saliva

79
Q

What is the normal fluoride concentration in water?

A

1ppm if fluoridated
0.3ppm if not

80
Q

What is the mechanism by which topical fluoride helps to prevent cavities?

A

It promotes remineralisation. It affects plaque by inhibiting the bacteria in plaque from producing acid

81
Q

What is adherence?

A

Describes the degree to which a patient correctly follows medical advice. Usually it is to do with medication regimes

82
Q

What is the fluoride tablet dosage for <0.3ppm in water supply? (0-6months, 6months-3yrs, 3yrs to 6yrs and 6yrs plus)?

A

0-6 months - 0mg/day
6months -3yrs - 0.25mg/day
3yrs-6yrs- 0.5mg/day
6years plus- 1mg/day

83
Q

What is the fluoride tablet dosage for <0.6ppm in water supply (0-6months, 6months-3yrs, 3yrs to 6yrs and 6yrs plus)?

A

0-6months- 0mg/day
6months-3yrs- 0mg/day
3yrs to 6yrs-0.25mg/day
6yrs plus- 0.5mg/day

84
Q

What is a risk factor? (PMHP)

A

An environmental, behavioural or biological factor confirmed by temporal sequence, usually increasing the probability of a disease occurring and if absent/removed reduces the probability

85
Q

What is a cross sectional study?
Uses?

A

The observation of a defined population at a single point in time (or time interval)
Used for
-estimating prevalence of a disease
-investigate potential risk factors

86
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Establish a group of individuals in population
Measure exposures
Follow up over a period of time
Identify those that develop disease (outcome of interest)

87
Q

How do nicotine patches work?

A

Nicotine patch is a transdermal patch that releases nicotine into the body through the skin

88
Q

What are the 2 prescription medications to help smokers stop?

A

Varenicline
Bupropion

89
Q

What is the removal rate of alcohol in blood?

A

15mg/100ml/hr

90
Q

What is the level of alcohol which can cause death?

A

400mg/100ml commonly fatal

91
Q

Describe the cycle of change? (alcohol)

A

Precontemplation
-there is no need to change, my friends drink more
Contemplation
-I hear what you are saying, I know it is bad for me
Preparation
-I am going to cut down drinking next week
Action
-I have cut down on my drinking
Maintenance
-I have only been drinking 1 night a week for the last 6 months

92
Q

What are competent lips?

A

Upper and lower lip meet at rest and maintain anterior oral seal, relaxed mentalis muscle

MSA Questions (3 decks)

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