Past paper questions Flashcards

1
Q

A young male with schizophrenia says the MI5 have been sending him secret messages through newspapers and radio broadcasts. He has a large folder full of newspaper clippings with no connection between them all and random words highlighted to form sentences.

What type of thought disorder is exhibited?

Delusional perception

Thought broadcasting

Thought insertion

Thought withdrawal

Thought blocking

A

Delusional perception

Delusional perception is when a patient attributes a false meaning to a true perception. An example of might be a TV presenter wearing a blue tie means that it is dangerous to go outside today.

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2
Q

A 16 year old girl attends the GP asking for laxatives. When asked why, she tells you that she has been constipated for some time. She refuses to be examined, but you notice calluses on her knuckles. On further questioning, she becomes tearful and eventually tells you that she needs the laxatives to lose weight because she is ‘fat and ugly’. She describes feeling like she ‘loses control’, eating large amounts of snack foods, and feels remorseful afterwards. She knows all her problems would go away if she could ‘just be skinny’. You calculate her BMI to be 25.

Which of the following clinical features points to a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa rather than anorexia nervosa?

Body mass index (BMI) of 25

Binge-eating

Russell’s sign

Lanugo hair

Hyperkalaemia

A

Body mass index (BMI) of 25

They key distinguishing feature between these conditions is BMI, with most guidelines using a BMI of 17.5 as a diagnostic feature of anorexia nervosa. Most individuals with bulimia nervosa are in the normal weight range (BMI: 18.5 - 30)

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3
Q

Emotional lability

A

refers to rapid, often exaggerated changes in mood, where strong emotions or feelings (uncontrollable laughing or crying, or heightened irritability or temper) occur.

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4
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw.

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5
Q

A 15 year old physically well girl presents to A&E with new seizures and confusion. She is emotionally labile without obvious reason. She has no personal or family history of mental illness. She has no history of epilepsy or febrile seizures and regains full consciousness between seizures. What is the most appropriate next step?

MRI brain

Lumbar puncture

Routine blood tests

Full cardiovascular examination

Full neurological examination

A

Full neurological examination

This girl presents with neurological and psychiatric symptoms, including seizures, cognitive decline, emotional lability and memory impairment. The list of possible differential diagnoses is long, although it is likely that she has an encephalitis. A full neurological examination should be the first line investigation to determine which further investigations may be appropriate depending on the findings

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6
Q

A 24-year-old PhD student is under the care of a community mental health team for postpartum depression, after giving birth to her first child 4 months ago. She has experienced significant weight loss due to a lack of appetite, and feels she is struggling to bond with her baby due to her low mood. She has tried a course of psychological therapy, but this was unsuccessful, and she is keen to try medical treatment.

Which of the following antidepressants is preferred for the treatment of postpartum depression in breastfeeding patients?

Paroxetine

Mirtazapine

Citalopram

Venlafaxine

Fluoxetine

A

sertraline or paroxetine are the preferred selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors for a woman with postpartum depression who is breastfeeding

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7
Q

A 38-year-old male is found wandering around the ward. He seems very distant and is hard to interact with, but he allows nurses to sit with him for the evening. He talks about how life is a pointless pursuit, and now he is on the ‘other side’, everything suddenly makes sense. When asked what he means about being ‘on the other side’, he tells the nurses he died last week and has been living in the afterlife since. No amount of reasoning or demonstration from the nurses can convince him he is still alive.

What delusion is being demonstrated here?

Capgras delusion

Fregoli delusion

Cotard delusion

Charles Bonnet syndrome

Ekbom syndrome

A

Cotard delusion

Cotard delusion is a rare psychiatric delusion in which the patient believes they are dead or have had organs removed. It is associated with schizophrenia but can be found in patients with depression, brain tumours and migraine headaches.

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most common side effect of clozapine?

Paralytic ileus

Constipation

Agranulocytosis

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Sudden death

A

Constipation

Clozapine use is associated with impairment of intestinal peristalsis, thus causing constipation. This is a very common side effect of clozapine.

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9
Q

A 27 year old woman is brought into A&E after a paracetamol overdose.

She says she had an argument with her boyfriend and took the overdose as she “can’t live without him”. This is the third overdose she has taken in the past 18 months.

When you go to speak with the patient you notice scars on both forearms consistent with self-harm. She says that you are “the best, kindest doctor she’s ever met” and that she previously had a row with one of the nurses who was “completely useless and needs to be fired”.

What personality disorder is this patient most likely to have?

Emotionally unstable

Narcissitic

Histrionic

Dependent

Anti-social

A

Emotionally unstable

This is correct. This patient is demonstrating the unstable relationships and self-injurous behaviour classically associated with BPD. She also employs ‘splitting’- where individuals are considered wholly good or bad

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10
Q

A 24 year old man, who has not had any previous contact with mental health services, presents to his GP saying he has been hearing voices for the last two months. The voices comment on his behaviour as he goes about his daily routine and can be derogatory in nature. He is certain that other people are putting thoughts into his mind and he cannot be persuaded otherwise. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

Lorazepam

Sertraline

Clozapine

Haloperidol

Risperidone

A

Risperidone

This is the correct answer. This man is experiencing auditory hallucinations which provide running commentary, as well as thought insertion, for more than one month, fitting diagnostic criteria for paranoid schizophrenia. This is treated first-line with atypical antipsychotics such as Risperidone

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11
Q

A 34-year-old man is reviewed by his GP after being recommenced on sertraline for a relapse of his mild depressive disorder. He had noticed low mood and anhedonia, which was making it difficult for him to concentrate at work and had previously found sertraline to be very helpful for these symptoms. He has now been taking daily sertraline for 2 months and notes that he has been feeling much more positive for the past month and has begun returning to his previous interests. He is not experiencing any side effects of the medication.

For how long should the sertraline be continued?

The sertraline should be continued lifelong, as this is his second episode of depression

He can now stop the sertraline, as he is now feeling better; it is likely that side effects will outweigh any possible further benefit of treatment

He can now stop the sertraline, as he has completed the recommended 2-month course

Minimum of a further 6 months

Minimum of a further 5 months

A

Minimum of a further 5 months

NICE recommends that antidepressants should be continued for at least 6 months following remission of symptoms, as this greatly reduces the risk of relapse.

The patient’s depression has been in remission for 1 month at this point. It is, therefore, necessary to continue the medication for a further 5 months. If he remains well at this point, the sertraline can be stopped.

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12
Q

A 64 year old man has been an inpatient in a psychiatric inpatient unit for three months with severe depression. He has a six month history of low mood, which has been getting gradually worse. He feels suicidal every day, although currently has no active plans to end his life. He only sleeps for two hours a night and feels exhausted all of the time. His appetite is so poor that he has gradually reduced his oral intake over the last few weeks and for the last two days he has not eaten or drunk anything except a few glasses of orange juice. He has no motivation to get better and wants to be discharged so that he can die. He has tried the antidepressants Sertraline, Fluoxetine and Venlafaxine with no improvement in his mood. He is offered Electroconvulsive Therapy and has a discussion with his psychiatrist about the possible side effects. Which of the following side effects is he most likely to experience?

Coma

Epilepsy

Memory loss

Dementia

Renal failure

A

Memory loss

This man has severe depression requiring urgent intervention, due to his poor oral intake. Electroconvulsive Therapy carries a risk of memory loss, which is usually temporary but in some cases can be persistent and last longer

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13
Q

first line SSRI

A

sertraline
- lowest burden of side effects

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14
Q

SNRI

A

can work well but have worse side effects - due to noradrenaline burden e.g. palpitations, sweating

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15
Q

which antidepressant for elderly

A

Mirtazapine - NASA - works on release of noradrenaline and serotonin

Side effects (histamine)
- sleep
- weight gain

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16
Q

lithium

A

mood stabiliser / antimanic agent
- reduces suicide

HOWEVER
- very narrow therapeutic range (0.5-1)

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17
Q

A 30 year old woman presents to the GP with low mood following the birth of her first child three months ago. Since her husband’s return to work last month she has had difficulty coping. She reports poor appetite and low energy levels, and only manages to get out of bed to breastfeed and take care of the baby. She becomes tearful during the consultation. When asked if she has thoughts of harming herself or the baby, she is visibly shocked and responds ‘never!’

Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

Urgent admission to mental health unit

Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

Start Fluoxetine

Reassurance

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

This patient is experiencing mild to moderate postpartum depression, which is managed the same as depression in other circumstances. Options include CBT, starting a Selective Serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), or both - but there is a higher threshold for starting SSRIs post-partum due to contamination of breastmilk, and so are reserved for more severe cases

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18
Q

The police are called to see a young, dishevelled-looking man in the duck pond of a local park. He appears distressed, shouting and is responding to unseen stimuli. This is causing concern for members of the public. When approached, the man is reluctant to speak to the police and declines to attend A&E.

Under what section of the Mental Health Act can the police move the patient to A&E for assessment?

Section 5(4)

Section 2

Section 136

Section 135

Section 5(2)

A

Section 136

Section 136 allows the police to bring an individual who appears to have a mental disorder from a public place to a Place of Safety. This can either be a police station or, as in this case, A&E.

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19
Q

A 22-year-old therapy assistant is reviewed by her community mental health team following concerns raised by her neighbours. They report loud music coming from her flat throughout the day and night for the past 4 weeks, and numerous daily shopping deliveries. She is already known to the team for treatment of depression, for which she takes sertraline. During the assessment, she is noted to be speaking very quickly, and is easily distracted by cars driving past the window. She describes her mood as ‘the best it’s ever been’.

Which of the following medication regimes would be most appropriate for this patient?

Commence olanzapine only

Commence sodium valporate, stop sertraline

Commence olanzapine, stop sertraline

Commence sodium valproate and a combined oral contraceptive pill

Switch sertraline to fluoxetine

A

Commence olanzapine, stop sertraline

This patient appears to be experiencing mania. Key symptoms demonstrated here include reduced need for sleep, increased speech rate and distractibility. The deliveries also hint at changes in spending habits, which can be seen in mania. NICE recommends that if a patient develops mania and is not already taking an antipsychotic or mood stabiliser, an antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone should be commenced.

NICE also recommends that clinicians should consider stopping any antidepressants the patient is already taking if a patient develops mania. As depression is not currently a problem for this patient, it would be most appropriate to stop the sertraline.

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20
Q

schizophrenia vs schizoid vs schizotypal

A

Schizoid

This patient is not experiencing disturbances in thought or any hallucinations and has a logical thought pattern that enables him to have conversations with family. He is choosing to withdraw from others by not participating in university activities, avoiding his family and not showing affection towards them. The indifference to praise is another significant symptom.

Schizotypal

Schizoid and schizotypal personality disorders do overlap; however, schizotypal personality disorders display odd thought and behaviour patterns. His family may notice eccentric dressing and may not be able to hold a logical conversation with him.

Schizophrenia

Schizophrenia presents with disordered thought and hallucinations. It is likely the family would have noticed odd behaviour patterns or eccentric dressing and may have picked up on his hallucinations, such as talking when he is on his own or claiming to hear things that aren’t there. Schizophrenia patients are often out of touch with reality, so they are unlikely to succeed in jobs or education without treatment.

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21
Q

Fregoli delusion

A

Fregoli delusion describes where a patient believes that everyone they meet is the same person but with different disguises. It can be associated with injury to the right frontal area, left temporoparietal areas and the fusiform gyrus.

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22
Q

Capgras delusion

A

Capgras delusion is a misidentification syndrome in which the patient believes that someone close to them has been replaced by a clone.

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23
Q

Cotard delusion

A

Cotard delusion is a rare psychiatric delusion in which the patient believes they are dead or have had organs removed. It is associated with schizophrenia but can be found in patients with depression, brain tumours and migraine headaches.

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24
Q

Ekbom syndrome

A

In Ekbom syndrome, the patient believes they have been infested with parasites. The patient will complain of crawling sensations on the skin and can be due to a psychological or organic reason such as B12 deficiency.

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25
Q

Charles Bonnet syndrome

A

Charles Bonnet syndrome is an organic brain syndrome of the elderly associated with visual field defects. Cortical input from other areas (eg. memory association areas) closely involved with the occipital lobe are hypothesised to fill in for a visual deficit, producing a hallucinogenic effect.

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26
Q

A 22-year-old man is under the care of a community mental health team for monitoring of his anorexia nervosa. He undergoes a physical examination and measurement of his vital signs to assess for acute deterioration in his physical health.

Which of the following is a red-flag sign in patients with anorexia nervosa?

Concurrent generalised anxiety disorder

A blood pressure of 150/60 mmHg

A heart rate of 80 bpm

Concurrent depressive disorder

They are unable to stand up from a chair without using their hands

A

They are unable to stand up from a chair without using their hands

The sit-up–squat–stand (SUSS) test is a method used to assess muscle wasting in patients with anorexia nervosa. In the sit-up test, the patient lies flat on a firm surface such as the floor and attempts to sit up without using their hands. In the squat test, the patient is asked to rise from a squatting position without using their hands.

An inability to stand up from a chair without using their hands indicates failure of the squat test, which is a red-flag sign indicating severe muscle wasting.

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27
Q

A 34-year-old man presents to his GP, requesting support with his heroin dependency. He wishes to stop taking the drug, but struggles to cope with the unpleasant withdrawal effects that occur when he abstains. He asks whether there is anything that can be prescribed to help reduce these symptoms. He has not tried anything in the past.

What medication(s) should be prescribed first line to support detoxification from heroin?

Naloxone

Chlorphenamine

Buprenorphine

Methamphetamine

Methadone

A

Methadone

NICE states that both methadone or buprenorphine are equally effective as an opioid substitution therapy; however, there may be specific reasons for choosing one above the other. For example, if a patient has had a previous overdose on methadone, then buprenorphine should be given. However, if both drugs are equally suitable, as they appear to be in this patient, then methadone should be prescribed first line.

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28
Q

A 30 year old interior designer with bipolar affective disorder presents to the GP. She has been stable on Lithium for the past 6 months, but attends now complaining of irritable mood.

Which of the following clinical features suggests mania as opposed to hypomania?

Symptom length of five days

Belief that she will be awarded a Nobel prize for her discovery of the cure for Coronavirus

Increased energy levels despite reduced sleep

Flight of ideas

Pressured speech

A

Belief that she will be awarded a Nobel prize for her discovery of the cure for Coronavirus

This is a delusion of grandeur. The presence of psychotic symptoms (delusions or hallucinations) is a feature of mania, not hypomania. Hypomania can be thought of as a less severe form of mania

> 7 for mania
5 for hypomania

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29
Q

A 47-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine health check. When asked, he admits to an average alcohol intake of around 90 units per week, which has been ongoing for the past 15 years. He is notably malnourished, and reports having dropped three clothes sizes in the past 6 months. Neurological examination is normal.

Which vitamin supplementation should be prescribed?

Vitamin C

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B6

Vitamin D

Vitamin B12

A

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B1 (thiamine) should be prescribed in those with chronic alcohol misuse and signs of malnutrition. There is evidence that this can prevent the development of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and prevent the progression of Wernicke’s encephalopathy to Korsakoff syndrome. Thiamine should be given parenterally for those with features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Oral thiamine should be given to those with a harmful alcohol intake if they are malnourished, have decompensated liver disease, or if they are undergoing medically assisted alcohol withdrawal.

______

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30
Q

management of psychosis

A
  • Antipsychotics can be broadly divided into typical and atypical.
  • Atypical antipsychotics are first-line, e.g. risperidone and olanzapine.
    –>Depot formulations should be considered if the patient prefers or
    there is a problem with non-compliance.
  • Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic and used for
    treatment-resistant schizophrenia (failure to respond to two other antipsychotics).
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31
Q

A 17 year old girl comes to the GP surgery complaining of absent periods for the past 6 months. She denies being sexually active and previously had a regular 28 day cycle since the age of 13.

On examination she is wearing multiple layers of clothing, and appears underweight and malnourished. You notice a fine layer of hair covering her skin.

Which of the following blood results when you expect to find, given the most likely diagnosis?

Hypercholesterolaemia

Raised serum B-hCG

Low levels of growth hormone

Hyperkalaemia

High testosterone

A

Hypercholesterolaemia

This is correct. Patients with anorexia nervosa exhibit hypercholesterolaemia. The pathophysiology is unclear, however it is thought to be due to alterations in the metabolic pathway

also hypokalaemia

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32
Q

A 33 year old man has been experiencing auditory and somatic hallucinations for six months. He believes he is the cousin of the Queen of England and cannot understand why he has been refused entry to Buckingham Palace on the numerous times he has tried to visit her without an invitation. His family members accompany him to an outpatient appointment with his psychiatrist, expressing concern that his symptoms persist, despite being treated currently with Olanzapine and, before that, Risperidone, both at maximum doses. What is the next best treatment?

Clozapine

Paliperidone

Lithium

Quetiapine

Fluoxetine

A

Clozapine

This man has treatment-resistant paranoid schizophrenia (i.e. schizophrenia which has not responded to sequential treatment with two different antipsychotics) and should be offered Clozapine. This is a second-generation antipsychotic but should be offered at this stage according to NICE guidelines

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33
Q

A 19 year old female with a long history of anorexia is admitted to the hospital.

She is severely malnourished and the consultants have decided that she needs re-feeding via a nasogastric tube. The patient declines treatment.

Which of the following is true regarding the next steps?

This patient cannot be treated under the Mental Health Act, and so a capacity assessment must be undertaken

As there is discord between the opinions of the patient and doctor, this case must be seen before a tribunal

The nearest relative can consent to treatment on behalf of the patient

Treatment cannot go ahead as the patient has declined

This patient can be treated under the Mental Health Act as her physical problem is a result of her mental disorder

A

This patient can be treated under the Mental Health Act as her physical problem is a result of her mental disorder

This is correct. Re-feeding is permitted under the MHA as her physical problem is a result of her mental disorder

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34
Q

A 50-year-old man presents with agitation in the medical ward. He is pacing around and wanting to leave the ward. He is drenched in sweat. He says that a member of the nursing staff is a spy and is going to harm him with needles. He hears voices that tell him to leave the ward because it is unsafe to be here. He was admitted 3 days ago with pneumonia. He is taking acamprosate and co-amoxiclav.

His observations are as follows:

Temperature 38.0 °C
Heart rate 118 bpm
Respiratory rate 20 breaths/min
Blood pressure 122/84 mmHg
Which is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?

IM (intramuscular) olanzapine

IV thiamine (Pabrinex)

Oral lorazepam

IM haloperidol

IV chlordiazepoxide

A

Oral lorazepam

This man has paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations, together with symptoms of agitation and diaphoresis. He is having pyrexia and tachycardia. He is taking acamprosate for alcohol dependence. The most likely diagnosis here is delirium tremens. This is likely to occur when a patient with alcohol dependence is abstinent from alcohol for a few days. The first-line treatment for this medical emergency is oral lorazepam. Lorazepam is a short-acting benzodiazepine. If oral medication is declined or the symptoms persist, give parenteral lorazepam or haloperidol. This is an off-label use of lorazepam and haloperidol.

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35
Q

A 24-year-old man is detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act for assessment of his first presentation of psychosis. This lasts for 28 days, at the end of which he wishes to leave the hospital. However, his medical team feel he needs a further period of treatment in hospital, and therefore recommend a Mental Health Act assessment.

Which professionals are required to detain a patient for treatment under Section 3 of the Mental Health Act?

An approved mental health professional (AMPH) and two doctors

A junior doctor and consultant psychiatrist

An AMPH or one doctor

Two consultant psychiatrists

One consultant psychiatrist

A

An AMHP and two doctors are required to detain a patient under Section 3 of the Mental Health Act. In addition, both doctors must have seen the patient in the past 24 hours.

72%

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36
Q

A 23 year old woman is admitted to the Acute Medical Assessment ward after a minor traffic accident.

She was found to be psychotic by paramedics and initially agreed to come in for assessment. She is now becoming agitated and states she wants to leave.

Which of the following sections of the Mental Health Act would be most appropriate to use in the best interests of the patient?

Section 5 (2)

Section 5 (4)

Section 3

Section 135

Section 17a

A

Section 5 (2)

This is correct. The patient is voluntarily in hospital so a section 5(2) can be issued by the doctor. This permits detainment for 72 hours for further assessment

37
Q

A 30 year old man with schizophrenia attends the outpatient psychiatry clinic for review. There has been no improvement on his current medication, Aripiprazole. He has used Haloperidol in the past, which also did not help.

Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe next?

Chlorpromazine

Quetiapine

Clonazepam

Clozapine

Risperidone

A
38
Q

CJD is caused by which infective organism or molecule?

Prion

Bacterium

Virus

Parasite

Fungi

A

Prion
Prions are misfolded proteins that induce other proteins to misfold. This causes neurones to die, leaving holes in the brain tissue. This leads to a sponge-like appearance giving rise to the alternative name of subacute spongiform encephalopathy.

39
Q

A 46-year-old male is brought into the Emergency Department after being found lying on the pavement. On examination, he is shivering and has a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg. His pupils are equal at 7 mm, there is dried vomit around the mouth, and hyperreflexia is noted. He is also seen to have a runny nose, and the hairs on his arms are standing on end. He is also found to have faecal matter inside his trousers which is watery, and his abdomen is tender to palpation. Toxicology reports are sent for analysis, and it is found he has a high level of a drug in his blood.

Which drug is he withdrawing from that would most likely cause these symptoms?

Cannabis

Phencyclidine

Alcohol

Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid

Heroin

A

Heroin

Withdrawal from opioids presents in a flu-like manner with gastrointestinal upset (abdominal pain, diarrhoea), sympathetic hyperactivity (tachycardia and hypertension) and central nervous system (CNS) stimulation.

40
Q

A 26-year-old man presents with a 3-hour history of confusion and diaphoresis. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia one week ago and is taking risperidone.

His observations are as follows:

Temperature 38.0 °C
Heart rate 122 bpm
Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
Blood pressure 150/96 mmHg
SpO2 98%
Neurological examination reveals muscle rigidity, normal reflexes and no clonus. Cardiovascular and chest examinations show no abnormalities.

Which is the most appropriate investigation to support the diagnosis?

Lumbar puncture

Urine toxicology screen

Creatine kinase (CK)

Computed tomography (CT) brain

Blood culture

A

The most likely diagnosis for this man is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) secondary to the second-generation antipsychotic he is taking – risperidone. He has the signs and symptoms of NMS – confusion, diaphoresis, rigidity, pyrexia, tachycardia, tachypnoea and high blood pressure. CK will be elevated due to muscle rigidity but may be normal if the rigidity is not profound or if the presentation is early. In severe cases, muscle necrosis and rhabdomyolysis may occur.

62%

41
Q

A 28 year old woman is brought to A&E by ambulance after being found walking on the roof ledge of a multi-storey car park. She said she was about to practise flying, and has a fixed belief that she is able to do this. On examination she is moving around the room, finding it difficult to keep still, talking rapidly and seems elated. Urine drug screen is negative and routine blood tests show no abnormalities. On contacting her family, they report she had a severe depressive episode one year ago and her mother had similar symptoms. Of the following, what is the most appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy to deal with the acute episode?

Sodium Valproate

Sertraline

Clozapine

Lithium

Olanzapine

A

Olanzapine

According to NICE guidelines, antipsychotics are first-line in the pharmacological treatment of adults who present with an episode of acute mania. Antipsychotics with mood-stabilising properties are used and alternatives include Haloperidol, Risperidone or Quetiapine

  • Lithium is used in the management of Bipolar Affective Disorder but is not first-line pharmacological treatment in the acute management of manic episodes
42
Q

A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-minute history of palpitations. She also has breathlessness, chest pain and diaphoresis. She is afraid that she might be having a heart attack. Her symptoms improve after 10 minutes. Initial investigations, including an electrocardiogram (ECG) and troponin, are normal. She has had two similar episodes this month, both of which also had a normal ECG and troponin. She said the symptoms are usually sudden and unpredictable. But she suspects they may be related to crowded places and has started to avoid crowds. She denies alcohol and substance use. She asks if there is a medication available which may help.

Which is the most appropriate long-term pharmacotherapy?

Propranolol

Clomipramine

Temazepam

Buspirone

Escitalopram

A

Escitalopram

This woman has recurrent, discrete, spontaneous and short-lived episodes of anxiety symptoms and fear, which are not associated with any particular situation or object. Therefore, she most likely has panic disorder. The first-line pharmacological treatment of panic disorder is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). SSRIs licensed to treat panic disorder include escitalopram, sertraline, citalopram and paroxetine. Venlafaxine (a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor) can also be used to treat panic disorder.

43
Q

what is pscyhosis put simply

A

delusions and hallucinations

44
Q

hallucinations

A

perception in the abscence of external stimulus

45
Q

which conditions causes psychosis

A

depression with psychosis
mania with psychosis
schizoaffective disorder
delusional disorder
schizophrenia

46
Q

delusional disorder

A

a type of mental health condition in which a person can’t tell what’s real from what’s imagined. There are many types, including persecutory, jealous (othello) and grandiose types.

delusion is the only symptom
e.g. paranoid e.g. goverment involvement, poison

47
Q

othello syndrome

A

delusional jealousy
Othello syndrome is a psychotic disorder characterized by delusion of infidelity or jealousy; it often occurs in the context of medical, psychiatric or neurological disorders.

48
Q

delusion

A

a false belief or judgment about external reality, held despite incontrovertible evidence to the contrary, occurring especially in mental conditions.

49
Q

treatment of psychosis or delusional disorders

A
  • antipsychotics
  • psychotherapy e.g. CBT with reality testing
50
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

is a condition where symptoms of both psychotic and mood disorders are present together during one episode (or within a two week period of each other

51
Q

schizophrenia vs schizoaffective disorder

A

The key difference between schizoaffective disorder and schizophrenia is the prominence of the mood disorder. With schizoaffective disorder, the mood disorder is front and center. With schizophrenia, it’s not a dominant part of the disorder.

52
Q

psychosis in people with depression- what are their delusions

A

delusions and hallucinations are mood congruent e.g. fit the mood
- nihhalistics, paranoia, delusions of poverty

53
Q

psychosis in people with mania- what are their delusions

A

delusions and hallucinations are mood congruent e.g. fit the mood
* grandiose
* special talents

54
Q

Flight of thought –

A

this is where the patient moves quickly from one idea to another, often half-way through a sentence, with no apparent association between ideas.

55
Q

Knight’s move thinking (aka Derailment)-

A

patient moves from one idea to another with strage illogical associations between the ideas.

56
Q

treatment of severe depression with psychosis

A

ECT

57
Q

tangential vs circumstantial

A

Unlike in flight of ideas, circumstantiality contains tighter and more coherent associations that may be easier to follow or understand. Unlike tangential speakers, i.e., those who are circumstantial eventually arrive back at the main point of speech or the answer to a question.

58
Q

Schizophrenia

A
  • Psychotic illness : delusion and hallucinations
  • First rank sympomts (positive symptoms)
  • 40% will only one episode
  • 40% will have remitting symptoms
  • 20% chronic deterioating
59
Q

first rank symptoms

A

Auditory hallucinations
- NOT visual
- running commentary
- third person
- thoughts being spoken out loud

Broadcasting
- thoughts: insertion, withdrawal and broadcasting

Control
- somatic hallucinations- things are crawling on your skin or touching you
- delusions that you are being controlled

Delusional perception
- Delusional perception designates a sudden, idiosyncratic, and often self-referential delusion triggered by a neutral perceptual content (e.g. the traffic light)
- e.g. the traffic lught changes colour and that means that they are going to be killed

60
Q

simple schizophrenia

A

The insidious onset of prominent negative symptoms and the lack of delusions, hallucinations, and thought disorder are the essential clinical features of simple schizophrenia.
- very rare
- confused with depression

61
Q

simple schizophrenia vs depression

A

more variability in depression - less loss of personality

with simple schizophrneia the person melts away

62
Q

Catatonia

A

is a state in which someone is awake but does not seem to respond to other people and their environment. Catatonia can affect someone’s movement, speech and behaviour in many different ways.

63
Q

waxy flexibility

A

Waxy flexibility is a psychomotor symptom of catatonia as associated with schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or other mental disorders which leads to a decreased response to stimuli and a tendency to remain in an immobile posture.

64
Q

treatment of catatonia

8mg

A

8mg of lorazapam a day

65
Q

lorazapam vs diazapam

A

lorazapam- short acting
diazapam- long acting

66
Q

zopiclone receptors

A

Zopiclone binds selectively to the brain alpha subunit of the GABA A omega-1 receptor. Zopiclone exerts its action by binding on the benzodiazepine receptor complex and modulation of the GABABZ receptor chloride channel macromolecular complex.

67
Q

how does zopiclone work

A

hypnotic
-helps with early sleep i.e. helps people fall asleep
- cannot keep someone asleep

68
Q

CBT vs cognitive vs behaviour therapy

A

-CBT looks at changing peoples thoughts and subsequent behaviour - changing the links
e.g. spider phobia
- challenge fear of spiders- cognitive
- habituate the idea, to change your behavuour e.g. you can now hold the spide

  • cognitite therapies- someone to challenge thoughts
  • behaviour therapies- e.g. smoking
69
Q

A 21-year-old female is being treated for anorexia nervosa. She has been suggested a drug treatment that could help with her anxiety around food and help her regain the weight needed to achieve a healthy weight to be discharged.

What drug has most likely been recommended?

Diazepam

Amitriptyline

Sertraline

Olanzapine

Pregabalin

A

Olanzapine is a form of atypical antipsychotic drug. The main side effects associated with these drugs are sedation, QT interval prolongation and metabolic disturbances (weight gain). This side effect of weight gain means it is a commonly used drug to help those who are underweight achieve weight gain goals.

70
Q

name typical antipsychotics

A

haloperidol
chlorpromazine

side effects: extrapyramidal

e.g. an inability to sit still, involuntary muscle contraction, tremors, stiff muscles, and involuntary facial movements.

key terms:
Akathisia- restlessness
Dystonia- muscle spasms
Parkinsonism- shuffling gait
Tardive Dyskinesia- strange jaw movements

71
Q

name atypical antipsychotics

A

clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, , and aripiprazole. (in order of efficacy)

  • the more effective, the more side effects

side effects: weight gain, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, QTc prolongation, extrapyramidal side effects, myocarditis, agranulocytosis, cataracts, and sexual side effects

72
Q

Which of the following is the most common side effect of clozapine?

A

constipation - can kill

  • neutropenia also a big problem
73
Q

cholinergic side effects

A

such as diarrhoea, nausea and vomiting, bradycardia, increased salivary production and urinary incontinence

SLUDGE

74
Q

anticholinergic side effects

A

dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction, dilated pupils, blurred vision, increased heart rate, and decreased sweating

75
Q

cholinergic medications vs anticholingeric medications

A

Cholinergics
- Donepezil, Galantamine or Rivastigmine
Anticholinergics
- tricyclic antidepressants (for example: amitriptyline)
- first generation antihistamines (for example: chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine)
- overactive bladder antimuscarinics (for example: oxybutynin)

76
Q

Conversion disorder

A

Conversion disorder is the presence of neurological symptoms without any underlying neurological cause. The tests ruled out any medically explained causes such as a tumour or a stroke. Conversion disorder is linked to emotional distress, which this patient could be experiencing through taking his exams.

77
Q

Conversion disorder

A

Conversion disorder is the presence of neurological symptoms without any underlying neurological cause. The tests ruled out any medically explained causes such as a tumour or a stroke. Conversion disorder is linked to emotional distress, which this patient could be experiencing through taking his exams.

78
Q

A 35 year old woman with schizophrenia is clerked by the on-call psychiatrist.

In the conversation, he asks her about her upcoming plans. She replies “I thought I’d take a trip to London but I was worried about the tube, smarties often come in tubes and they’re my favourite sweet, I’ve been trying to cut down on sweets to be healthier, I’d like to lose some weight before my trip, I’ve decided to take a trip to Brighton next week”.

What aspect of formal thought disorder is this patient displaying?

A

Circumstantiality

This is the correct answer. The patient moves onto different topics but there is a train of thought that can be followed. She eventually returns to answer the original question

79
Q

Derailment

A

The conversation moves randomly from one topic to another.

80
Q

Perseveration

A

The repetition of words or ideas when another person attempts to change the topic.

81
Q

Thought blocking

A

The patient suddenly halts in their thought process and cannot continue.

82
Q

A 23-year-old female presents to their GP about their mood. They state they have low periods where they are tearful and feel hopeless. They state that they don’t socialise very much during these periods and prefer to work from home. These depressive periods are followed by periods of elation and having lots of energy for 4–5 days. They state that they can still go to work but find it harder to get through the day during the low periods. They say they feel like they are on a merry-go-round as it seems to be a repeating pattern of mood behaviour, and they would like to break the cycle. They say between the highs and lows they don’t experience any symptoms.

What mood disorder is this female likely to have?

Bipolar 1

Depression

Borderline personality disorder

Bipolar 2

Cyclothymia

A

Bipolar 2

The patient describes repeating patterns of low mood and elation; however, what is key is them stating they can continue with daily living activities such as going to work. This distinguishes it from hypomania and mania. As the patient is not experiencing such extreme episodes that they cannot go to work, this would indicate bipolar 2 instead of 1. The patient also mentions they only experience the elevated mood for 4-5 days, which is short of the period required for a diagnopsis of a manic episode rather than a hypomanic episode.

83
Q

A 17-year-old girl is admitted to hospital with a low BMI secondary to anorexia nervosa. While food and fluid are slowly reintroduced, she requires frequent monitoring of her serum electrolyte levels to guard against the development of refeeding syndrome.

Which ECG change may be seen in refeeding syndrome?

Flattened P waves

QT interval shortening

Prolonged PR interval

Prominent U waves

ST elevation

A

Prominent U waves

In refeeding syndrome, patients are at risk of low phosphate, magnesium and potassium levels, as well as hyperglycaemia. Prominent U waves are a feature of hypokalaemia and may therefore be seen in refeeding syndrome.

84
Q

A 75 year old man presents to his GP with a 12 month history of gradually increasing forgetfulness. His wife accompanies him and reports that he has left the house without locking the door and left the gas on after cooking on a few occasions. She has always noticed so she does not feel either of them are at risk, but she is concerned about his memory. He has a history of depression but has not had a recurrence of low mood for several years. He often cannot find the word he is looking for, but there has been no other impact on his daily functioning. Neurological examination is normal. Which is the first investigation that should be done?

Serum vitamin B12

Blood culture

Chest x-ray

CT head

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

Serum vitamin B12

Although this man’s history is highly suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease, a chronic and progressive form of dementia, it is important to rule out any reversible causes of cognitive decline, such as vitamin B12 deficiency. Given the simplicity of a blood test, it is advisable to do this before considering other investigations such as brain imaging

85
Q

management of acute mania (bipolar)

A

1) Oral monotherapy can be attempted with an antipsychotic e.g. olanzapine (others used: quetiapine, olanzapine, risperidone and haloperidol)
2) Sedation and a mood stabilizer such as lithium can be added if necessary.

86
Q

management of acute depresison

A

Acute depression: mood stabilizer and/or atypical antipsychotic and/or antidepressant with appropriate psychosocial support.

87
Q

The police bring a 40-year-old man to the Emergency Department, as he was wandering in the streets and disturbing pedestrians. He is known to have suffered from schizophrenia for the past 10 years. He says some external forces are controlling his thoughts and actions, and he has been hearing voices that instruct him to take his own life. He is severely distressed and has specific suicidal ideations. Based on the initial assessment by a consultant psychiatrist, he requires inpatient treatment for acute schizophrenia. However, he disagrees with admission and questions the effectiveness of the treatment in ‘fighting against the external forces’. He is now sleeping on a bed in the Emergency Department.

Which is the most appropriate section in the Mental Health Act to enable treatment of this patient’s condition?

Section 5(2)

Section 5(4)

Section 3

Section 2

Section 4

A

Section 3

Section 3 is a section that allows admission of patients for treatment of a mental health disorder for up to 6 months. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the patient’s nearest relative (NR) apply on the recommendation of two doctors. At least one of the doctors must be a Section-12-approved doctor, and both must have seen the patient in the past 24 hours. AMHPs can be other professionals, eg. nurses, social workers, psychologists, etc. but not doctors. Section 3 is done following an admission under Section 2 or if the patient is well known to mental health services. Section 3 is renewable.

88
Q

thiamine is which vitamin

A

B1