Past paper Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of ciprofloxacin?

A

Inhibitors DNA gyrase

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2
Q

Mechanism of sulphonamide and trimethoprim?

A

Inhibitors folate synthesis

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3
Q

Acute side effect of meoclopramide?

A

Acute dystonia

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4
Q

What cancers does tamoxifen increase risk of?

A

Endometrial and Uterine sarcoma

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5
Q

Warm peripheries + hypotension

A

Low systemic resistance
Noradrenaline is vasopressor of choice

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6
Q

Incubation of measles?

A

10 days

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7
Q

Neurocytocosis?

A

FLuid filled spheres throughout both hemispehres

Caused by long term infection from pork tapeworm

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8
Q

Treatment of neurocytocosis?

A

Albendazole + prazquintl + anti-epileptic meds

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9
Q

What is the staging of hogdkin’s lymphoma?

A

PET-CT

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10
Q

Staging of hogdkin’s lymphoma?

A

Stage 1:
- lymphoma in a single lymph node or one group of lymph nodes, or an organ of the lymphatic system (such as the thymus)
lymphoma in an extranodal site (1E)

Stage 2:
This means one of the following:

your lymphoma is in two or more groups of lymph nodes
your lymphoma is in an extranodal site and one or more groups of lymph nodes (2E)
In both cases, the 2 sites of lymphoma are on the same side of the diaphragm.

Stage 3: Disease both side of diaphragm

Stage 4: either side of diaphramg + at least one extranodal disease

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11
Q

Thrombolysis candidate + Hypertensive

A

Treat hypertension until systolic 185 or less
Use Labetalol

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12
Q

What recreational substance causes methaehaemoglobin?

A

Poppers

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13
Q

Treatment for listeria meningitis?

A

Amoxicillin + Gentamicin

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14
Q

Anti-anginal that causes ulceration?

A

Nicorrandil

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15
Q

AF alone but no heart issues?

A

Atenolol - if only AF

Bisoprolol if heat problems

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16
Q

Monitoring in sarcoidosis?

A

Treat when lung function affects
Or
Calcium levels elevated

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17
Q

Juvenile myoclonoic epilepsy treatment?

A

Levetiracetam - female
Valporate male

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18
Q

GCS that classifies as severe malaria according to WHO?

A

GCS 11

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19
Q

Haemophilia B bleeding - management/

A

Factor 9

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20
Q

Circular lesions 1-2 mm on feet

A

Granuloma annular

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21
Q

Discharge after primary pneumothroax aspiration

A

They are well - discharge

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22
Q

Forceful apexbeat + Syncope + deep T waves ( welleans) + late systolic murmur?

A

HOCM

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23
Q

Antibiotics that may precipitate torsades?

A

Macrolides
Lengthen QT

24
Q

Renal impairment + UTI?

A
  1. Trimethorpim
    Can use if eGFR > 15
  2. Pivmecillinam
25
Q

Massive splenomegally?

A

Think myelofibrosis

26
Q

Cells to confirm / monotir myelfibrosis?

A

CD34+ve

27
Q

What is needed for diagnosis of PCOS?

A

Biochemical: can be clinical i.e. acne or test

transvaginal ultrasound

28
Q

What liver thing is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

29
Q

Peural tap: Lymphocytes + Ph < 7.2 + low glucose

A

Tuberculosis

30
Q

Pneumonia + erythema multiforme?

A

Mycoplasma

31
Q

Pneumonia + outbreaks

A

Mycoplasma

32
Q

Cancers that sclerotic + lytic lesions

A

Prostate
Breast cancer
Cervical cancer
Testicular cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma

33
Q

What is lincalotide?

A

guanylyl cyclase c receptor agonist
Used in IBS with difficult constipation

34
Q

Treatment is wegners?

A

Cyclophosphamide

or
Rituximab + methylprednisolone

35
Q

How to differenate between anti-GBM disease and Wegner?s

A

Wegners –> elevated ESR

36
Q

When can ivabradine be used in heart failure

A

HR > 75
Ejection fraction < 35%
patients already taking ramipril

37
Q

How best to manage prolactinoma?

A

Medical treatment
Do surgery if medical fails

38
Q

How best to manage acromegally ?

A

Surgery is priority

39
Q

Multi-system atrophy?

A

Autonomic
Parkinsonism
Dementia

40
Q

EEG wave complexes + rapid progressive dementia + hyerreflexia + Mycoplconus

A

Sporadic CJD

41
Q

Starting adrenal replacement therapy?

A

Start 30 mg per day
2/3 in mane 1/3 at night

42
Q

What is the other option to calcium gluconate?

A

Calcium chloride

43
Q

Side effect of pyrazinamide?

A

Hepatitis

44
Q

Alpha blocker of choice in phaeochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

45
Q

What cancers are associated with coeliac disease?

A

small bowel t cell lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma

46
Q

Aortic dissection of ascending aorta /

A

Stanford type A

47
Q

Aortic dissection of descending aorta?

A

Stanford type B

48
Q

Gestational diabertes managenemtn booking glucose < 7?

A

Diet
If diet fails –> metformin
If metformin fails –> Insulin + metformin

Aim to keep fasting glucose < 7

49
Q

Prednisolone dose in PMR?

A

15 mg prednisolone

50
Q

Management of methotrexate overdose ?

A

Folinic acid

51
Q

What rash is seen in primary billiary cholangitis?

A

Lichen planus

52
Q

Secondary syphilus has a papular rash

A

Secondary syphilus has a papular rash

53
Q

Choice of antibiotics for legionella?

A

Levofloxacin
Clarithromycin / Erythromycin

54
Q

What is lentigo maligna/

A

Can transform to malignant melanoma

55
Q

Mutliple ulcers, erosions and intraluminal blood clots?

A

Inschaemic colitis