Past In-service Q Banks Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Refers to imaging in which the energy source is outside the body on one side and the energy passes through the body and is detected on the other side of the body

A. Transmission imaging
B. Projection imaging
C. Fluoroscopic imaging
D. Mammographic imaging

A

A. Transmission imaging

Energy source is outside the body
The body on one side and the energy passes through the body and its detected on the other side of the body

Projection imaging each point on the image corresponds to information along a straight line through the patient

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2
Q

This is the most common imaging procedure in diagnostic radiology

A. Plain cranial ct
B. Full abdominal ultrasound
C. Chest x-ray
D. Plain cranial mri

A

C. Chest x-ray

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3
Q

Interaction of electromagnetic radiation may occur in several form and include the following

A. Scattering through change in trajectory
B. Absorption by removal of the radiation
C. Transformation into particulate radiation as energy to mass conversion
D. All of the above

A

D

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4
Q

The fraction of photons removed from a monoenergetic beam of x-rays or gamma rays per unit thickness of materials is called:

A. Linear attenuation coefficient
B. Mass attenuation coefficient
C. Mass energy transfer coefficient
D. Mass energy absorption coefficient

A

A

Typically expressed in units of inverse centimeters

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5
Q

It is the most basic measure of the resolution properties of an imaging system and perhaps most intuitive

A. Point spread function
B. Linear spread function
C. Edge spread function
D. Modulation transfer function

A

A

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6
Q

This is the reformatting of a volumetric data set into tomographic images by selecting pixel values from the data set that correspond to the desired tomographic image planes

A. Maximum intensity projection images
B. Multiplanar reformating
C. Volume rendering
D. Spatial filtering

A

B

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7
Q

Which is not correct regarding the production of x-rays

A. the x-ray tube insert contains the electron source and target within an evacuated glass or metal envelope
B. The tube housing provides protective radiation shielding and cools the x-ray tube insert
C. The x-ray generator supplies the voltage to accelerate the electrons
D. The x-ray beam filters define the size and shape of the x-ray field incident on the patient

A

D *collimators not the filters

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct about heel effect?

A. Refers to a reduction in the x-ray beam intensity toward the anode side of the x-ray field
B. Caused by the greater attenuation of x-ray beam intensity toward the anode side of the x-ray field
C. More prominent with a longer source to image distance (SID)
D. Since the x-ray beam intensity is greater on the cathode side of the field, the orientation of the x-ray tube cathode over thicker parts of the patient can result in a better balance of x-ray photons transmitted through the patient and onto the image receptor.

A

C *last prominent with longer source to image distance (SID)

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9
Q

The output of an x-ray tube is often described by these terms except:

A. Quality describes the penetrability of an x-ray beam, with higher energy x-ray photons having a larger half value layer (HVL) and higher “quality”
B. QUANTITY REFERS TO THE NUMBER OF PHOTONS COMPRISING THE BEAM
C. Exposure is nearly proportional to the energy fluence of the x-ray beam
D. All of the above

A

D

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10
Q

The following are tools used for scatter reduction, EXCEPT:

A. Anti scatter grid
B. Air gap
C. Scan slot techniques
D. Bucky grid

A

D

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11
Q

Most common anode target material used in mammography x-ray tubes

A

Molybdenum

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12
Q

Breast compression is an important part of the mammography examination, whether using screen film or digital detectors. Which is not correct?

A. Firm compression reduces overlapping anatomy, decreases tissue thickness and reduces inadvertent motion of the breast
B. It results in fewer scattered x-rays less geometric blurring of anatomic structures and lower radiation those to the breast tissues
C. Achieving a uniform breast thickness increases exposure dynamic range
D. Allows the use of higher contrast film or allows more flexibility in image processing enhancement of the digital image

A

C *decreases exposure dynamic range

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13
Q

Many variables affect breast dose. Which is not correct?

A. The speed of the screen film receptor, the film OD and the digital detector SNR level are major factors
B. Breast thickness and tissue composition strongly affect x-ray absorption
C. Lower kv (lower HVL) increases beam penetrability (lower ESE and therefore lower ave glandular dose) but also decreases subject contrast
D. Anti scatter grids improve subject and radiographic contrast but increase radiation dose by the Bucky or digital technique compensation factor.

A

C higher kv —> Dec subject contrast

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14
Q

The following are correct about the modes of fluoroscopy, EXCEPT:

A. Continuous fluoroscopy produces a continuous x-ray beam typically using 0.5 to 6 ma
B. Variable frame rate pulsed fluoroscopy where the x-ray generator produces a series of short x-ray pulses
C. With pulsed fluoroscopy the exposure time ranges about 30 to 33 ms which reduces blurring from patient motion in the image
D. All modern fluoroscopy systems use a digital refresh memory where each image is captured digitally and is displayed continuously at the refresh rate of the fluoroscopy display monitor

A

C ( 3 to 10ms)

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15
Q

This is a standard feature on modern fluoroscopy systems and is achieved by continuously digitizing images in real time and temporarily storing them in a digital video frame memory

A. Road mapping
B. Mid sequence display
C. Last frame hold
D. Frame averaging

A

C

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16
Q

This is not correct about contrast and temporal resolution in fluoroscopy

A. The contrast resolution of fluoroscopy compared to radiography is low chiefly due to the low SNR
B. The anti scatter grid selectively removes contrast degrading scatter and preferentially allowed
C. The temporal resolution is relatively low in fluroscopy in comparison to radiography
D. All of the above

A

C

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17
Q

Temporal blurring is typically called image lag. Which of the following statements is not correct

A. Lag implies that a fraction of the image data from one frame carries over into the next frame
B. By blurring together several temporal frames of image data, a lower snr is realized, because the x-ray photons from the several images are combined
C. Contrast resolution in philosophy is essentially a measure of image noise
D. Whereas some log is usually beneficial for unrecorded fluoroscopic viewing, for recording dynamic events such as in digital subtraction angiography, lag is undesirable and recursive filtering modes are disabled

A

B. *higher SNR

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18
Q

Match the following
A. Worst image quality, higher radiation dose to patient
B. Worst image quality, higher radiation dose to patient
C. Better image quality, higher radiation dose to patient
D. Better image quality, lower radiation dose to the patient

  1. Increase in patient size
  2. Increase in source to skin distance
  3. Grid use
A
  1. A
  2. D
  3. C
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19
Q

What occurs distal to objects having very low ultrasound atenuation?

A. Shadowing
B. enhancement
C. Reverberation
D. refraction

A

B

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20
Q

What is a hypo intense signal area distal to an object or interface and is caused by objects with high attenuation or reflection of the incident beam without the return of echoes?

A. Shadowing
B. Enhancement
C. Reverberation
D. Refraction

A

A

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21
Q

What is this artifact that arises from multiple echoes generated between two closely spaced interfaces reflecting ultrasound energy back and forth during the acquisition of the signal and before the next pulse?

A. Shadowing
B. Enhancement
C. Reverberation
D. Refraction

A

C

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22
Q

What is this artifact caused by the variability of the speed of sound in different tissues?

A. Speed variability
B. Speed attenuation
C. Speed displacement
D. Speed alteration

A

C

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23
Q

What are the facts occur with multi element array transducers and result from the division of a smooth transducer surface into many small elements?

A. Grating lobes
B. Side lobes
C. Reverberation
D. Refraction

A

A

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24
Q

What artifact is possibly due to the echoes from the strong reflector with frequency changes due to the wide bandwidth of the initial pulse and the narrow and raining caused by the structure?

A. Multipath reflector
B. Ambiguity
C. Twinkling
D. Mirror image

A

C

25
Q

What is referred to in ultrasound the ability to discern a separate two closely spaced objects perpendicular to the direction?

A. Axial resolution
B. Lateral resolution
C. Elevational resolution
D. Perpendicular resolution

A

B

26
Q

What is referred to in ultrasound as the ability to discern two closely space objects in the direction of the beam?

A. Axial resolution
B. Lateral resolution
C. Elevational resolution
D. Perpendicular resolution

A

A

27
Q

What part of the ultrasound unit is responsible for generating the electronic delays for individual transducer elements in an array to achieve transmit and receive focusing and inphase arrays beam steering?

A. Beam former
B. Pulser
C. Transmit/receive switch
D. Pulse-echo operation

A

A

28
Q

What part of the ultrasound unit provides the electrical voltage for exciting the pzt transducer elements and controls the output transmit power by adjustment of the applied voltage?

A

Pulser

29
Q

What is the echo display mode used to display the echoes from a moving organ such as the myocardium and the valve leaflets from a fixed transducer position and beam direction on the patient?

A

M mode

30
Q

What is this method in which ultrasound information is obtained from several different angles of insonation and combined to produce a single image

A. Scan converter
B. Spatial compounding
C. 4d reformatting
D. Elastography

A

B

31
Q

Which of the following statements regarding doppler ultrasound is correct?

A. For convenience most manufacturers assign the blue color for venus flow
B. The doppler shift is the difference between the incident frequency and reflected frequency
C. When the sound waves and blood cells are moving in parallel directions the equation must be modified to account for less doppler shift
D. The doppler angle is proportional to the velocity of the blood cells

A

B

32
Q

What is referred to as an error caused by an insufficient sampling rate relative to the high frequency doppler signals generated by fast moving blood?

A. Aliasing
B. Side lobes
C. Twinkling
D. Grating lobes

A

A

33
Q

What technique is the combination of 2D b-mode imaging and pulsed doppler data acquisition?

A. Power doppler
B. Spectral doppler
C. Color flow imaging
D. Duplex scanning

A

D

34
Q

What technique provides the ability to determine the presence of flow, the direction of flow and the characteristics of the flow of vascular structures?

A. Power doppler
B. Spectral doppler
C. Color flow imaging
D. Duplex scanning

A

B

35
Q

This reduces the intensity of the incident x-ray beam in the periphery of the x-ray field where the attenuation path through the patient is generally thinner

A. Anti scatter grid
B. Detector cover
C. Beam shaping filter
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

C

36
Q

A mode of CT acquisition where the table moves at a constant speed while the gun 3 rotates around the patient

A. Helical acquisition
B. Sequential acquisition
C. Cone beam acquisition

A

A

37
Q

This mode of CT acquisition allows a ct scanner to repeatedly image a volume of tissue that is wider than the detector array

A. Shuttle mode CT
B. Cone Beam acquisition
C. Sequential acquisition
D. All of the above

A

A

38
Q

This is a CT artifact where there is a high degree of attenuation causing the x-ray spectrum to have a higher average x-ray energies

A. Streak artifacts
B. Partial volume
C. Beam hardening
D. View aliasing

A

C

Streak artifacts - occurs when the attenuation levels of a region in the patient is excessive which can exceed the dynamic range of the detector system

Partial volume- occurs when the city voxels are large enough to encompass several types of tissue or tissues from different organs

View aliasing- the use of two few projection images acquired to reconstruct high frequency objects in the image result in this artifact

39
Q

The rotate-translate acquisition geometry is a feature of which generation of ct scanners

A. First and second generations
B. Second and third generations
C. Third and fourth generations
D. First generation only

A

A

Difference of second generation from first generation scanner: more detectors were added so the initial pencil beam geometry became a narrow fan beam

Rotate-rotate acquisition -third generation ct scanner. Most widely used geometry in modern scanners

Rotate-stationary acquisition - fourth generation CT. POTENTIAL FOR RING ARTIFACT PRODUCTION DUE TO THE FIXED ANGULAR RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE DETECTORS AND THE X-RAY SOURCE

40
Q

What characterizes the gantry of a third generation ct scanner

A. A 360 degree ring of detectors mounted in a stationary frame with a rotating x-ray tube
B. A rigidly mounted x-ray system and detector aries that rotate together around a patient
C. An x-ray tube mounted in a fixed relationship with 2 detector array
D. An x-ray tube mounted in a fixed relationship with 30 detector array

A

B

A is fourth generation
C is first generation
D is second generation

41
Q

This part of the mri machine interact with the main magnetic field to improve homogeneity over the volume used for patient imaging

A. Magnet
B. Radiofrequency coil
C. Shim coil
D. Gradient coil

A

C

Radiofrequency coil - transmit and receive signal from the patient
Gradient coil- produce a linear variation in the magnetic field strength across the useful magnet volume

42
Q

Magnetic susceptibility describes the extent to which a material becomes magnetized when placed in a magnetic field. Which category of elements and materials has a slight negative susceptibility and oppose the applied magnetic field?

A. Super magnetic
B. Diamagnetic
C. Paramagnetic
D. Ferromagnetic

A

B

Paramagnetic materials with unpaired electrons hub slightly positive susceptibility and enhance the local magnetic field but have no measurable self magnetism

Ferromagnetic materials are super paramagnetic. They augment the external magnetic field substantially and exhibit self magnetism in many cases.

43
Q

This element is the principal focus for generating mr signals

A

Hydrogen

44
Q

Tissues with shorter t1 relaxation times or bright on t1. Tissues with longer t2 relaxation times are brighter on t2. Which of the following tissues has the longest t1 and t2 relaxation times?

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Fat
C. Liver
D. Muscle

A

A

45
Q

Which of the following spin echo mri sequences achieves the highest overall signal intensity and the largest signal to noise ratio, but it’s image contrast is relatively low and additionally it usually has a long tr (2000-4000ms) and a short te (5-30ms)

A. T1w spin echo sequence
B. T2w spin echo sequence
C. Proton density se
D. Inversion recovery spin echo sequence

A

C

46
Q

Which of the following is not a true spin echo sequence but rather a purposeful dephasing and rephasing of the free induction delay additionally in this sequence magnetic field in homogeneralities and tissue susceptibilities caused by para magnetic or diamagnetic tissues or contrast agents are emphasized?

A. Gradient echo
B. Fluid attenuated inversion recovery
C. Short tau inversion recovery
D. Mr spectroscopy

A

A

47
Q

Which of the following is/are required for localization of protons in the three dimensional volume?

A. Slice select gradient
B. Frequency encode gradient
C. Phase encode gradient
D. All of the above

A

D

48
Q

Mr data is initially stored in a frequency domain repository known as what:

A. K space matrix
B. Image reconstruction space
C. Null space
D. Raw data space

A

A

49
Q

Mri acquisition time is represented by the basic formula

A

Acquisition time = TR x Phase encoding steps x Nex (number of excitations)

50
Q

Which of the following is true regarding mri spatial resolution?

A. Spatial resolution can be improved with higher field strength magnets due to an overall larger snr.
B. Spatial resolution can be improved by increasing the field of view size
C. Spatial resolution can be improved by decreasing the matrix size
D. Spatial resolution can be improved by increasing sliced thickness and slice interval

A

A

51
Q

Which of the following is true regarding signal to noise ratio

A. Decreasing the signal averages will increase signal to noise ratio
B. Decreasing voxel volume will increase signal to noise ratio
C. Decreasing rf bandwidth will increase signal to noise ratio
D. Decreasing flip angle will increase signal to noise ratio

A

C

Smaller flip angle inc signal to noise ratio
Larger voxel vol -> higher SNR

52
Q

What is the technique which relies on the tagging of blood in one region of the body and detecting it in another

A

Time of flight angiography

53
Q

What is the type of sequence which uses strong mr gradients applied symmetrically about the refocusing pulse to produce signal differences based on the mobility and directionality of water

A

Diffusion weighted imaging

54
Q

What is the most ubiquitous and noticeable mri artifact

A

Motion artifacts

55
Q

What is the mri artifact which occurs near sharp boundaries and high contrast transitions in the image and appears as multiple regularly space parallel bonds of alternating bright and dark signal that slowly fades with distance

A. Mach band artifact
B. Ringing artifacts
C. Chemical shift artifact of the first kind
D. Chemical shift artifact of the second kind

A

B also known as Gibbs phenomenon

C more severe for lower graded strips since displacement will occur over a large number of pixel

D occurs due to rephasing and dephasing of the echo in the same direction relative to the main magnetic field

Mach band is an optical phenomenon from edge enhancement due to lateral inhibition of the retina

56
Q

Which of the following can reduce or mitigate wrap around artifacts?

A. Increase the number of phase encode steps
B. Move the region of anatomic interest to the center of the imaging volume to avoid overlapping anatomy
C. Apply an anti aliasing saturation pulse just outside the field of view
D. All of the above

A

D

Wrap around artifact is a result of the mismapping of anatomy that lies outside of the fov but within the slice volume

57
Q

What is the most sensitive time of exposure in humans during the pre-implantation period?

A

12 hours after conception when the phone two pro nuclei fused to the one-cell stage

58
Q

Which of the following is still regarding the use of KV in medical imaging?

A. Increasing the KV will result in a higher radiation goes to the patient but image contrast will be improved
B. You seem too low kV can be harmful to the patient and may result in clinical error
C. Beam filtration can significantly reduce patient exposure by selectively attenuating low energy x-rays
D. A higher kv and lower mas can be used to reduce patient exposure without significantly reducing image quality

A

D