Past exam questions

Question 1

In autonomic ganglia, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
B both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
C only parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
D sympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
E only sympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine

Answer 1

B

Question 2

For postganglionic nerve terminals, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A the majority of sympathetic terminals release noradrenaline and ATP, but a very small
number release acetylcholine
B sympathetic terminals release only noradrenaline and ATP
C parasympathetic terminals release noradrenaline
D sympathetic and parasympathetic terminals release different levels of noradrenaline,
acetylcholine, and ATP
E parasympathetic terminals release noradrenaline and acetylcholine

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The sympathetic nervous system is very plastic, but its continuous activation may result in many
disorders. Which statement is INCORRECT? Continuous activation of the sympathetic nervous
system may result in [1.5 marks]
A immunosuppression leading to increased infections and cancer
B fertility is increased
C gastro-intestinal irregularities
D high blood pressure leading to cardiovascular disease
E changes that become more permanent as we age

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which statement is INCORRECT? Small levels of stress are a healthy and necessary part of
life, since the transient release of noradrenaline [1.5 marks]
A makes problems too difficult to solve
B encourages creative thinking
C creates new memories
D improves mood
E stimulates your brain to grow new connections within itself

Answer 4

A

Question 5

Which of the following mechanisms does NOT promote blood flow back to the heart in the
systemic venous system? [1.5 marks]
A an increase in thoracic cavity pressure during expiration
B sympathetic neuronal activity
C one-way valves in veins preventing back flow
D enlargement of the right atrial cavity during ventricular contraction
E the veins offering little resistance to flow

Answer 5

A

Question 6

The largest decrease in blood pressure occurs in which of the following segments of the
systemic circulation? [1.5 marks]
A from the left ventricle to the end of the conducting arteries
B from the distributing arteries to the start of the capillaries
C from the start of the capillaries back to the right ventricle
D across the arterioles
E across all of the capillaries

Answer 6

D

Question 7

Which of these agents causes marked vasodilation? [1.5 marks]
A angiotensin II
B noradrenaline
C endothelins
D antidiuretic hormone
E histamine

Answer 7

E

Question 8

Which of the following does NOT affect pre-load of the heart? [1.5 marks]
A compliance of the pericardium
B ventricular hypertrophy
C arterial compliance
D intra-thoracic pressure
E blood volume

Answer 8

C

Question 9

Heart rate can be altered by chronotropic agents. Which of the following is NOT a positive
chronotropic agent? [1.5 marks]
A age
B increased blood calcium ions
C increased body temperature
D thyroxine
E adrenaline

Answer 9

A

Question 10

The influence of increased capillary hydrostatic pressure above normal on bulk flow across the
capillary is similar to the influence of [1.5 marks]
A increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B increased plasma oncotic pressure
C reduced venous pressure
D reduced tissue oncotic pressure
E reduced plasma oncotic pressure

Answer 10

D

Question 11

Which of the following does NOT provide afferent neuronal input into the cardiovascular
control centre in the brainstem? [1.5 marks]
A stretch receptors that detect blood volume
B irritant receptors in walls of blood vessels
C limbic system in emotional responses
D proprioceptors that detect joint movement
E chemoreceptors that detect blood oxygen tension

Answer 11

B

Question 12

The cerebral reflex (central ischaemic response) is an important reflex to maintain blood
pressure in a haemorrhage. Which of the following correctly describes activation of this reflex?
[1.5 marks]
A it occurs when blood flow in the medulla oblongata is compromised
B it occurs because peripheral chemoreceptors detect a decrease in PO2 in systemic arterial
blood less than 60 mmHg
C it always occurs when there is any haemorrhage
D it occurs before local auto-regulatory mechanisms are activated to control cerebral blood
flow
E it only occurs when mean arterial blood pressure drops below 40 mmHg

Answer 12

A

Question 13

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as [1.5 marks]
A free solute dissolved in plasma
B carbonic acid
C carbaminohaemoglobin
D bicarbonate ions
E chemically bound to haemoglobin

Answer 13

D

Question 14

Which of the following would NOT result in respiratory acidosis? [1.5 marks]
A increased ventilation
B decreased alveolar ventilation
C increased blood PCO2
D decreased diffusion across the respiratory membrane
E lack of perfusion of the lung capillaries

Answer 14

A

Question 15

The chloride shift [1.5 marks]
A is important in oxygen binding to haemoglobin
B forces oxygen out of erythrocytes to the tissues
C produces carbonic acid
D results in more carbon dioxide being transported by erythrocytes
E counteracts movement of bicarbonate out of erythrocytes

Answer 15

E

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a component of the control of normal rhythmic involuntary
breathing? [1.5 marks]
A a dorsal respiratory neuronal group in the pons
B input from the motor cortex
C phrenic and intercostal motor neuron pools
D central chemoreceptor input
E a central pattern generator in the brainstem

Answer 16

A

Question 17

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? The interlobar artery gives rise to the
[1.5 marks]
A cortical radiate artery
B afferent arteriole
C arcuate vein
D cortical radiate vein
E arcuate artery

Answer 17

E

Question 18

Which of the following can be used to estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? [1.5 marks]
A sodium clearance
B glucose secretion
C urea clearance
D creatinine clearance
E glucose clearance

Answer 18

D

Question 19

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Angiotensin II [1.5 marks]
A increases sodium reabsorption
B stimulates aldosterone production
C is a vasodilator
D stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release
E is a potent vasconstrictor

Answer 19

C

Question 20

Renin release is stimulated by [1.5 marks]
A reduced glucose levels in the tubular fluid
B reduced urea levels in the glomerular capillaries
C reduced activity of the renal sympathetic nerves
D augmented activity of the renal sympathetic nerves
E increased delivery of NaCl to macula densa cells

Answer 20

D

Question 21

Which of the following statements about the fundic gastric glands is CORRECT? Fundic gastric
glands [1.5 marks]
A contain cells termed enteroendocrine cells
B release mucus and gastrin
C contain cells termed parietal and chief cells
D release mucus to protect the stomach from self-digestion
E promotes contractions of the stomach muscles

Answer 21

C

Question 22

Pepsin is [1.5 marks]
A a hormone secreted by gastric glands
B an acid secreted by the large intestine
C an acid secreted by the gastric glands
D an enzyme secreted by the large intestine
E an enzyme secreted by the gastric glands

Answer 22

E