Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro > PassQues > Flashcards

PassQues Flashcards

1
Q

Inferior homonymous quadrantanopias are caused by lesions in what area?

A

Superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibres?

A

1973

(X, IX, VII, III)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neurodegenerative disorder involving death of neurones in the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Faecal incontinence since vaginal delivery of child. Which nerve is damaged?

A

Pudendal

(S2,3,4 keeps the poo off the floor. POOdendal nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Stimulation of the cornea causes afferent signals via which nerve?

A

CN V1 - opthalmic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cortical plaques

due to deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein

A

Alzheimer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in which gene ?

A

Dystrophin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diabetes insipidus = deficiency in which hormone ?

+ where is that hormone produced ?

A

ADH

Produced in posterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stroke followed by wasting of the right masseter and temporalis muscles.

Which nerve is affected ?

A

CN V

Paralysis of muscles of mastication. Causes eating problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At which vertebral level does the IVC exit the abdominal cavity ?

A

T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage occurs between which two meningeal layers ?

A

Arachnoid mater and pia mater
(subarachnoid space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which nerve is anaesthetised during an episiotomy (cut made in the perineum during childbirth) ?

A

Pudendal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Right sided hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower limbs more affected than upper limbs.

What artery is affected?

A

Left anterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Right sided hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper limbs more affected than lower limbs.

What artery is affected?

A

Left middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody which binds to and inhibits what?

A

VEGF (Vascular endothelial growth factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Progressive peripheral polyneuropathy weeks following a GI infection =

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which branch of the facial nerve innervates frontalis, orbicularis oculi and corrugator supercilii ?

A

Temporal branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At which foraminae do the branches of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull ?

A

Standing Room Only

V1 = Superior orbital fissure
V2 = Foramen rotundum
V3 = Foramen Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ring and little fingers on his right hand are extended at the metacarpophalangeal joint and flexed at the interphalangeal joint.

Which nerve is affected?

A

Ulnar nerve

(“ulnar claw hand”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Eye ‘down and out’ - which nerve?

A

Oculomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Increased fatigue following exercise, quiet speech, and difficulty swallowing.

What condition?

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment for myasthenia gravis ?

A

Pyridostigmine

(a long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that reduces the breakdown of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mechanism for myasthenia gravis ?

A

Antibodies are produced against acetylcholine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is classically caused by which bacteria ?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Innervation of the scrotum?

A

Ilioinguinal nerve + pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Median nerve motor supply =

A

LOAF

L ateral 2 lumbricals
O pponens pollicis
A bductor pollicis brevis
F lexor pollicis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Limited depression, adduction of the eye, and persistent diplopia when looking down.

Which nerve palsy?

A

4th nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hypotonia + hyporeflexia.
Where is the motor neurone lesion?

A

Lower MN lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypertonia + hyporeflexia. Where is the motor neurone lesion?

A

Upper MN lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Nerve - cannot adduct thumb

A

Ulnar

(innervates adductor pollicis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (SACD) ?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

SACD affects which parts of the spinal cord ?

A

Dorsal column and lateral corticospinal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At what level does the carotid artery bifurcate?

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mandibular nerve CN V3 passes through which skull foramen ?

A

Foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Facial nerve CN VII passes through which skull foramen ?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

(alongside the CN VIII - vestibulocochlear nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hallucinations occur in seizures of which lobe of the brain ?

A

Focal temporal lobe seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what level does the aorta bifurcate ?

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Miosis + ptosis + enophthalmos +/- anhydrosis.

Diagnosis?

A

Horner’s syndrome

often due to Pancoast tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Loss of gag reflex = damage to which nerve ?

A

Glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which area of the basal ganglia is particularly affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Very high blood pressure + headache + altered mental status

A

Malignant hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lingual nerve is a branch of which nerve ?

A

Mandibular CN V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Redness, photophobia, lacrimation, pupils contract to light.

Which neurotransmitter is involved ?

A

Acetylcholine

(parasympathetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In Alzheimer’s, cerebral atrophy affects which areas of the brain ?

A

Cortex + hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CN V1, V2, V3.
From which foraminae do they exit the skull ?

A

V1 - Superior orbital fissure
V2 - Foramen rotundum
V3 - Foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is dysdiadochokinesia ?

A

Inability to perform repetitive hand movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, slurred speech, hypotonia (on occasion).

What area of the brain is affected ?

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What structure separates the occipital lobes from cerebellum ?

A

Tentorium cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sudden occipital headache

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the embryological origin of Prader-Willi syndrome ?

A

Diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Medical treatment for migraines

A

Oral -triptan (e.g. sumitriptan) + ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Balance issues leading to recurrent falls and vertical gaze palsy - diagnosis ?

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Migraine relief treatment for under 18s

A

Nasal -triptan

(Oral triptan is only licensed in over 18s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

First line treatment for absence seizures

A

Sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Motor neuron disease with only lower motor neuron features

A

Progressive muscular atrophy (type of MND)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Motor neuron disease with both lower and upper MN features

A

Spinal amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Suspected stroke - what is the next step in management?

A

CT head to rule out intracranial haemorrhage

Once bleed is excluded, prescribe 300mg oral aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bell’s palsy vs Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

Ramsay Hunt = viral cause e.g. reactivation of Herpes Zoster (presence of vesicles) + worse prognosis

Bell’s palsy = idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia
Diagnosis?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

(WET, WOBBLY, WACKY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus ?
(Wet, wobbly, wacky)

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

India ink stain tests for which fungus ?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

(causes cryptococcal meningitis - common in immunocompromised patients)

62
Q

Major bleed occurs when on warfarin

A

Stop warfarin, give IV Vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

63
Q

Management of idiopathic cranial hypertension

A

Weight loss + acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

64
Q

Chronic subdural haematoma - CT findings

A

Hypodense (dark), crescent-shaped and not limited by suture lines

65
Q

Acute subdural haematoma - CT findings

A

Hyperdense (bright), crescent/concave-shaped and not limited by suture lines

66
Q

Fatiguable, painless muscle weakness that improves with rest

A

Myasthaenia gravis

67
Q

Confusion, ataxia and nystagmus/ophthalmoplegia

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

  • caused by acute brain damage due to thiamine deficiency
68
Q

Treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

IV Pabrinex

69
Q

Cancer associated with myasthaenia gravis

A

Thymoma

(15% of MG have a thymoma)

70
Q

First line prophylaxis for migraines

A

Propanolol

71
Q

Treatment for stroke

A

Within 4.5 hours: Thrombolysis with Alteplase, followed 24 hours later by aspirin 300mg

After 4.5 hours: No thrombolysis; just give Aspirin 300mg

72
Q

First line prophylaxis for cluster headaches

A

Verapamil

C for Cluster - C for Calcium Channel Blocker

73
Q

Facial asymmetry, drooping and paralysis + normal ENT exam

A

Bell’s palsy

74
Q

Facial asymmetry, drooping and paralysis + ENT exam shows hearing loss and ear pain

A

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

*be aware that ear pain occurs in 50% of Bell’s palsy

76
Q

Facial asymmetry, drooping and paralysis + ear pain + normal hearing test

A

Bell’s palsy

77
Q

First line management for Bell’s palsy

A

Oral prednisolone

78
Q

Right-sided inferior homonymous quadrantanopia

Which lobe?

A

Left parietal lobe

PITS!!!
(Parietal Inferior Temporal Superior)

79
Q

Right-sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

Which lobe?

A

Left occipital lobe

80
Q

Right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia

Which lobe?

A

Left parietal lobe

PITS!!! Parietal inferior Temporal Superior

81
Q

Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss =

A

Labyrinthitis

Neuritis = No hearing loss
Labyrinthitis = Loss of hearing

82
Q

Drug used to prevent cluster headaches?

A

Verapamil

(+ nasal sumatriptan for relief)

83
Q

Drug used to relieve cluster headaches

A

Sumatriptan

(+ verapamil for prevention)

84
Q

Which drug worsen symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta-blockers

85
Q

First-line treatment of Bell’s palsy ?

A

Prednisolone

86
Q

Stab in the back

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

87
Q

Suspected meningitis <3 y.o. or >50 y.o.

Treatment = ?

A

IV cephalosporin (Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone)
IV amoxicillin

88
Q

Raised protein and normal white cells on lumbar puncture =

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

89
Q

Drugs associated with impulse control disorder

A

Dopamine agonists (e.g. rotigotine)

90
Q

First-line treatment of absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

91
Q

Symptomatic patient with at least 70% carotid stenosis

Treatment = ?

A

Carotid endarterectomy

92
Q

First-line treatment for tonic-clonic seizures =

A
  1. Lamotrigine
    or
  2. Sodium valproate - however, not in females of reproductive age
93
Q

Poorly controlled diabetes + postural hypotension + gastroparesis (feeling full quickly)

A

Autonomic neuropathy

94
Q

Guillain-Barre protein and white cell counts ?

A

Raised protein + NORMAL white cell

(albumino-cytologic dissociation)

95
Q

Guillain-Barre vs Miller-Fisher

A

Guillain-Barre = starts lower limbs (ascending polyneuropathy)
Miller-Fisher = starts proximally e.g. eyes

96
Q

Guillain-Barre most common causative organism?

A

Campylobacter jejuni (30%)

97
Q

Treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Plasmapheresis and Immunoglobulin

98
Q

What is used to measure respiratory involvement in Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

99
Q

slow “hot potato” speech. Potatoes look like bulbs =
Wernicke’s =
Broca’s =

A

slow “hot potato” speech. Potatoes look like bulbs = corticobulbar
Wernicke’s = what? (difficulty understanding)
Broca’s = broken speech

100
Q

Tonic-clonic seizure =

A

tonic stage – you lose consciousness, your body goes stiff, and you may fall to the floor

clonic stage – your limbs jerk about, you may lose control of your bladder or bowel, you may bite your tongue or the inside of your cheek, and you might have difficulty breathing

101
Q

Family history of a motor-predominant (but nonetheless mixed) length-dependent polyneuropathy
+ distal motor weakness with hypotonia and hyporeflexia

A

Charcot Marie Tooth disease

102
Q

PITS - quadrantanopias

A

Parietal inferior
Temporal superior

103
Q

Treatment of choice for subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Endovascular coiling

(some argue surgical clipping!)

104
Q

Pain, numbness, and paresthesia along the outer thigh (lateral cutaneous nerve)

No other symptoms

A

Meralgia paraesthetica

(Obesity/pregnancy)

105
Q

Treatment of ALS/motor neurone disease

A

Riluzole

106
Q

Drugs which cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

SCALP

  • Sulfonamides
  • Carbamazepine
  • Allopurinol
  • Lamotrigine
  • Penicillins
107
Q

Broca’s =
Wernicke’s =

A

Broca’s = broken speech
Wernicke’s = Weird

108
Q

First-line prophylaxis for migraines

A

Propanolol

109
Q

What is mononeuritis multiplex? (in diabetics)

A

Two discrete incidents of neuropathy with gradual recovery

110
Q

Acute + prophylactic management of cluster headaches

A

ACUTE = High flow oxygen + triptan
PROPHYLACTIC = Verapamil

111
Q

Gait instability, urinary incontinence, mild dementia

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

112
Q

Seizure initiating in one part of the limb and moving proximally

A

Jacksonian march

  • Frontal lobe seizure
113
Q

Trauma to right leg.

Increased tone and weakness in right leg.
Loss of pain and temperature sensation in left leg.

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

114
Q

1st and 2nd line for focal seizures =

A

1st = Lamotrigine
2nd = Levetiracetam

115
Q

Pelvic thrusting in a seizure =

A

Non-epileptic attack disorder (pseudoseizure)

116
Q

Describe trigeminal neuralgia

A

Chronic condition causing brief, intermittent unilateral electric-shock-like excruciating pain across one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve

117
Q

Obese young woman headache

Raised ICP

Diagnosis + causes =

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

Think of a moon-faced obese woman trying to treat her acne:

  1. Moon-faced - steroids
  2. Female, obese - self explanatory
  3. Trying to treat acne - isotretinoin, tetracyclines, and COCP are used to manage acne (+ lithium)
118
Q

First-line Parkinson’s

A

Levodopa

+ carbidopa (prevents peripheral side effects)

119
Q

Acetylcholine receptor antibodies = what condition?

A

Myasthenia gravis

120
Q

Cancer associated with myasthenia gravis

A

Thymoma (10-30%)

2/3rds have thymic hyperplasia

121
Q

Acute SOB + crepitations treatment

(Transition block)

A

IV furosemide + nitrate infusion

122
Q

Focal seizures - each lobe causes what symptoms?

A

Frontal Lobe: Jacksonian March

Parietal Lobe: Paraesthesia

Occipital Lobe: Visual phenomena

Temporal Lobe: HEAD
- Hallucinations
- Epigastric rising
- Automatisms (e.g. lip-smacking)
- De ja vu

123
Q

Definitive diagnostic investigation for CJD (Creudzfeldt-Jakob disease)

A

Tissue biopsy

(most commonly post-mortem, sometimes brain biopsy)

124
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage - CT findings unrevealing - what investigation?

A

Lumbar puncture after 12 hours

shows xanthochromia (pink/yellow discolouration)

125
Q

Guillain-Barre antibodies

A

Anti-ganglioside antibodies

126
Q

Chronic vs acute subdural haematoma

A

Chronic = hypodense
Acute = hyperdense

127
Q

Treatment for Wilson’s disease (accumulation of copper)

A

Penicillinamine

(binds with the copper and facilitates increased urinary excretion)

128
Q

Puerperal psychosis management ?

A

Hospital admission

even if no clear danger to baby/mother

129
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in refeeding syndrome

A

Low phosphate, magnesium and potassium

+ hyperglycaemia

130
Q

Hypokalaemia ECG =

A

Prominent U waves

131
Q

Mild-moderate Alzheimer’s treatment =

Moderate-severe Alzheimer’s treatment =

A

Mild-moderate = Donepezil

Moderate-severe = Memantine

132
Q

Symptomatic treatment in idiopathic intracranial hypertension
(apart from weight loss)

A

Acetazolamide

133
Q

Investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage depending on hours post-onset

A

0-6hrs = CT

After 12hrs = lumbar puncture (showing xanthochromia)

134
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment

A

Carbamazepine

135
Q

Lower back pain, relieved when he assumes a stooped posture and when he walks uphill rather than downhill

+ bilateral leg weakness and pain on walking

A

Spinal claudication and weakness

136
Q

Investigation for encephalitis

A

CSF viral PCR

137
Q

Myoclonic epilepsy treatment - first and second line

A

1st = Sodium valproate
2nd = Levetiracetam

138
Q

Mood disorders contraindicate which epilepsy drug?

A

Levetiracetam

139
Q

Painless monocular vision loss + sudden return to normal vision =

A

Amaurosis fugax
(TIA affecting one eye)

140
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome =

A

Confabulations and anterograde amnesia

141
Q

Charcot Marie Tooth is also known as …

A

Hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN)

142
Q

Diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage confirmed - what is the next investigation?

A

CT angiogram

(to look for evidence of aneurysm/vascular abnormalities)

143
Q

Eye findings in idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A
  • Loss of visual acuity when changing posture
  • Enlargement of blind spots and circumferential restriction in visual fields
  • Papilloedema
144
Q

Features of temporal lobe seizures

A

Temporal (HEAD):
- Hallucinations (auditory/gustatory/olfactory)
- Epigastric rising sensational/Emotional
- Automatisms (lip smacking/grabbing/plucking)
- Deja vu/Dysphasia post-ictal)

145
Q

Intracranial haemorrhage - why should you hyperventilate the patient?

A
  • lowers carbon dioxide levels
  • causes cerebral vessels to constrict
  • which decreases the blood flow to the brain
  • therefore decreases ICP
146
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus treatment ?

A

Ventriculo-peritoneal shunting

147
Q

Motor fluctuations in Parkinson’s - what to prescribe for symptomatic treatment ?

A

MAO-B inhibitor (e.g. rasagiline) or COMT inhibitor or dopamine antagonist

148
Q

What drug is co-prescribed with levodopa for Parkinson’s

A

Carbidopa

  • reduces the breakdown of levodopa peripherally, leading to a better therapeutic effect
149
Q

Why is carbidopa co-prescribed with levodopa for Parkinson’s?

A

Reduces the breakdown of levodopa peripherally, leading to a better therapeutic effect

150
Q

Tear drop cells on the peripheral blood film

A

Myelofibrosis

151
Q

MRI findings in Huntington’s =

A

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen

152
Q

Riluzole delays progression of which disease?

A

Motor neuron disease (MND)

153
Q
A

Neuro (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions