PassMed wrong Qs Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the first-line management of delirium tremens?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

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2
Q

What effect does schizophrenia have on sleep?

A

Circadian rhythm disturbance –> insomnia

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3
Q

What is circumstantiality?

A

Inability to answer a question without giving excessive unnecessary detail

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4
Q

How long should a patient be reviewed after starting SSRIs?

A

2 weeks
If <25 –> 1 week

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5
Q

What are the first-line management options for acute stress disorders and PTSD?

A

Acute stress disorder = (trauma-focused) CBT
PTSD = eye movement desensitisation and processing

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6
Q

What is Hoover’s sign?

A

Test to differentiate between organic and non-organic paresis
-Place hand under heel of paretic leg and ask patient to raise non-paretic leg against resistance –> pressure felt on hand due to involuntary contralateral hip extension

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7
Q

Why should FBC be monitored in patients taking clozapine?

A

Monitor leukocytes –> clozapine can cause neutropenia

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8
Q

When is the peak incidence of delirium tremens following alcohol withdrawal?

A

symptoms = 6-12h
seizures = 36h
delirium tremens = 72h

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9
Q

How should patients with depression exhibiting mania symptoms be managed?

A

Consider stopping SSRI and starting an antipsychotic

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10
Q

What class of drug is dosulepin?

A

TCA
-Dangerous in overdose

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11
Q

What risk is associated with taking SSRIs in the third trimester of pregnancy?

A

Persistent pulmonary hypertension

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12
Q

What medication can be used as a deterrent for drinking alcohol? Causes violent vomiting if taken with alcohol

A

Disulfiram

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13
Q

What medication can be used as anti-craving for alcohol? Can be taken safely with alcohol

A

Acamprosate

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14
Q

What antipsychotic has the biggest effect on seizures?

A

Clozapine - reduces seizure threshold

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15
Q

Which antipsychotic tends to have the most tolerable side effects?

A

Aripiprazole

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16
Q

How can borderline personality disorder be managed?

A

Dialectical behaviour therapy

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17
Q

What features does Knight’s move speech have?

A

Illogical leaps from one idea to the other
-Flight of ideas = discernible link between ideas

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18
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders?

A

Family history

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19
Q

What benign finding can be common in patients taking lithium?

A

Benign leucocytosis on FBC

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20
Q

What risks are associated with antipsychotics in the elderly?

A

Increased risk of stroke and VTE

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21
Q

When should lithium levels be checked?

A

-12h post-dose
-1 week after starting / dose changes
-Then 3-monthly once stable

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia and how can it be treated?

A

-Repetitive movements of lip smacking, tongue protrusion, pill-rolling
-Treat with tetrabenzine

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23
Q

What metabolic side effects are there for antipsychotics?

A

-Dyslipidaemia
-Dysglycaemia
-DM

24
Q

What is a known side effect of SNRIs that should be monitored when starting and titrating?

A

Hypertension - measure BP

25
Q

What are the symptoms of acute dystonia and how can it be managed?

A

Uncontrolled muscle spasm - can be painful and frightening, may be unable to swallow
Procyclidine

26
Q

What is akathisia and how can it be managed?

A

Inner restlessness where there is a strong compulsion to move eg crossing legs, pacing, stamping feet
Manage by reducing and switching antipsychotic

27
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Muscular rigidity
Can be fatal - evolves over 24-72h

28
Q

What is the next management option for PTSD if CBT has not helped?

A

SSRI or venlafaxine

29
Q

What is the difference between type1 and type 2 bipolar disorder?

A

Type 1 = mania
Type 2 = hypomania

30
Q

What group of prescribed drugs can induce psychosis shortly after starting?

A

Steroids

31
Q

What is a short term side effect of ECT?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias

32
Q

What effect can amitriptyline have on the urinary system?

A

Can cause overflow incontinence

33
Q

When is thiamine / pabrinex given in alcohol withdrawal?

A

-To prevent / treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy

34
Q

What does chlordiazepoxide do in alcohol withdrawal?

A

Works to detoxify the patient
–CIWA-ar score used to assess severity and hence calculate appropriate dose

35
Q

How is abnormal / prolonged grief reaction defined?

A

-Persistent and pervasive longing or preoccupation with the deceased
-Intense emotional pain
-For at least 6 months
-Significant impairment to functioning

36
Q

What is dissociative fugue?

A

When someone with amnesia goes wandering / travels (dangerous)

37
Q

What is the first line management for phobias?

A

CBT

38
Q

What causes dry mouth, blurred vision and headaches in someone taking amitriptyline?

A

Anti-cholinergic side effects

39
Q

What contraception is most appropriate for women taking enzyme-inducers?

A

-Depo-provera
-Cu-IUD

40
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A

Nulliparity

41
Q

What features of a history would be suggestive of frontal lobe dementia?

A

-Difficulty with spacial reasoning (on cognitive testing)
-Weight loss
-Hypomania

42
Q

How should mania with depressive episodes be managed?

A

Sodium valproate

43
Q

What would a very labile mood be suggestive of?

A

Borderline personality disorder

44
Q

What features in a history would be suggestive of dysthymia?

A

-No impact on daily functioning
-Long-term history

45
Q

What is the first-line treatment for post-natal depression?

A

SSRIs
NOT antipsychotics

46
Q

Which pathway is being activated when someone exhibits positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Mesolimbic pathway

47
Q

Which pathway is being inhibited when someone exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Mesocortical pathway

48
Q

What pathways are being activated at a normal level in schizophrenia?

A

Nigrostriatal pathway (movement stimulation)
Tuberoinfundibular pathway (increased dopamine –> prolactin inhibition)

49
Q

What are the 5P’s in the 5P’s model?

A

Presenting
Predisposing
Precipitating
Perpetuating
Protective

50
Q

How do 1st generation antipsychotics compare to 2nd generation?

A

1st = TYPICAL
–Treat positive symptoms only
–Cause EPSEs
–Raise prolactin
2nd = ATYPICAL
–Treat positive + negative
–Do not cause EPSEs
–Do not affect prolactin

51
Q

What are the 4 main EPSEs?

A

ADAPT
1. Dystonia = uncontrolled muscle spasm
2. Akathisia = inner restlessness
3. Pseudo-parkinsonism = tremor, rigidity
4. Tardive dyskinesia = lip-smacking, tongue protrusion

52
Q

How does neuroleptic malignant syndrome present?

A

MUSCULAR RIGIDITY
-Occurs with high potency drugs, rapid dose changes, multiple APs
-Dehydration + alcohol also
-Evolves rapidly over 24-72h

53
Q

What drugs typically cause weight gain?

A

Clozapine + olanzapine

54
Q

What does raised prolactin do and what drug can reduce levels?

A

-Sexual dysfunction
-Menstrual disturbances
-Breast growth
-ARIPIPRAZOLE can reduce levels

55
Q

What drug is used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and what are its main side effects?

A

CLOZAPINE
-Neutropenia
-Myocarditis
-GI hypomotolity –> constipation
-Hypersalivation