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Question bank questions > Passmed Questions 3.0 > Flashcards

Passmed Questions 3.0 Flashcards

1
Q

simple measures for acne rosacea

A

daily suncream
camouflage cream

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2
Q

first line treatment for acne rosacea with predominant flushing and minimal telangiectasia

A

topical brimonidine (alpha agonist)

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3
Q

treatment for mild/moderate/severe acne rosacea with papules/pustules

A

mild - topical ivermectin
moderate/2nd line - topical metronidazole or topical azelaic acid
severe - topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

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4
Q

what drugs can trigger psoriasis

A

lithium
betablockers
antimalarials
NSAIDS
ACE inhibitors
inflixamab

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5
Q

treatment for diabetic otitis externa

A

ciprofloxacin

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6
Q

patient has angina, is on gtn spray but still experiences symptoms. What medication would you add next?

A

betablocker or CCB

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7
Q

what type of CCB should be used if used as monotherapy for angina

A

monotherapy = rate limiting i.e. verapamil or diltiazem

if in conjunction with betablocker as 2nd line then use dihydropyradine i.e. nifedpine or amlodipine

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8
Q

treatment for MSRA

A

nasal mupirocin + topical chlorhexidine

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9
Q

what age would a child require the ability to crawl

A

9 months

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10
Q

what age would a child respond to their name

A
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11
Q

what age would a child sit unsupported

A

7-8 months

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12
Q

diagnosis ? –> chronic unilateral conjunctivitis resistant to treatment

A

orbital lymphoma

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13
Q

breastfeeding at how many weeks post partum s a UKMEC 4 for contraindication for OCP

A

< 6 weeks post partum and breast feeding

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14
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosus if metronidazole allergy

A

topical clindamycin

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15
Q

treatment bacterial vaginosus if pregnancy

A

oral metronidazole

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16
Q

treatment for fibroid in a patient who is wanting to concieve

A

refer for myomectomy

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17
Q

side effects of herceptin (tratzumab) for HER2 positive breast cancer

A

flu like symptoms
cardiac toxicity

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18
Q

partial seizures at night in children

A

benign rolandic epilepsy
EEG = centrotemporal spikes

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19
Q

imipramine drug class and side effects

A

TCA
anti cholinergic side effects

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20
Q

treatment for galactorhoea

A

bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

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21
Q

1st line treatment for osteoporosis post hip fracture

A

IV zolendronate

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22
Q

treatment for osteoporosis if renal failure

A

desonumab (bisphosphonates are contraindicated)

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23
Q

at what dose of daily prednisolone would a patient also require bone protection

A

if they are on 7.5mg or more daily for the next 3 months would require bone protection

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24
Q

main indication for cryoprecipitate

A

low fibrinogen

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25
Q

what is the constitutes ofcryoprecipitate

A

contains factor VIII:C, VonWillebrand factor, fibrinogen, factor XIII, and fibrinonectin

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26
Q

section 2 of MHA

A

admission for assessment for up to 28 days (not renewable)

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27
Q

section 3 of MHA

A

admission for treatment for up to 6 months

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28
Q

section 4 of MHA

A

72 hour assessment order

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29
Q

first line treatment for all patients with peripheral vascular disease

A

atorvastatin + clopidogrel

30
Q

Causes of massive splenomegaly

A

Can My Massive SPLEEN be Very Great
chronic myeloid leukaemia
myelofibrosis
malaria
visceral leishamniasis
gauchers

31
Q

section 135 of MHA

A

a court order can be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety

32
Q

section 136 of MHA

A

someone found in a public space who appears to have a mentlal health disorder and take them to a place of safety

33
Q

section 5(2) of MHA

A

someone who is voluntarily in hospital can be detained for 72 hours

34
Q

section 5(4) of MHA

A

allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient in the hospital

35
Q

can pregnant women have the pertusis vaccine

A

yes between 16-32 weeks

36
Q

what is the feverPAIN score

A

fever
purulent tonsils
attend rapidly
inflammed tonsils
no cough or coryza

0-1 safety net
2-4 = delayed abx
score of 4-5 = immediate abx

37
Q

what investigation is useful for IgE mediated allergy i.e. bee venom, food allergy, inhaled allergen (pollen)

A

RAST

38
Q

what investigation is useful for contact dermatitis

A

skin patch

39
Q

what investigation is useful for food allergy (non-anaphylactic reaction)

A

skin prick test

40
Q

what is fouchers sign

A

describes Bakers cyst which becomes tense on extension of the leg

41
Q

2nd line investigation for NAFLD if enhanced liver fibrosis blood test (ELF) not available

A

FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score
scores may be used in combination with fibroscan (liver stiffness measurement assessed with transient elastography)

42
Q

presentation of vitreous haemorrhage

A

large haemorrhage - sudden loss of vision (painless)
moderate - large black spots
small - floaters

43
Q

features of central retinal artery occlusion vs vein occlusion on fundoscopy

A

renal artery - afferent pupillary defect, cherry red spot

retinal vein - multiple severe haemorrhages

44
Q

first line investigation for suspected lyme disease if erythema migrans not present

A

ELISA

45
Q

features of disseminated lyme disease

A

cardiac - heart block, myo/pericarditis
neuro - facial nerve palsy, meningitis, radicular pain

46
Q

patient develops fever, rash, tachycardia after starting abx for lyme disease or syphilis

A

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

47
Q

cardiac complications associated with polycystic kidney disease

A

long QT
mitral regurgitation

48
Q

main mechanism of nexplanon

A

inhibits ovulation

49
Q

when can you drive after first unproved seizure

A

6 months

50
Q

can you drive with epilepsy diagnosis

A

can qualify for drivers liscence if seizure free for 12 months

51
Q

when can you drive after TIA/stroke

A

1 month

52
Q

when can you drive after multiple TIA’s over short period of time

A

3 months

53
Q

treatment for scarlet fever if penicillin allergic

A

azithromycin

54
Q

when can a child with scarlet fever return to school

A

24 hours after starting antibiotics

55
Q

causative organism of scarlet fever

A

group A strep (usually strep pyogenes)

56
Q

complications associated with scarlet fever

A

otitis media (most common)
acute glomerulonephritis
rheumatic fever
other i.e. meningitis, nec fasc, sepsis

57
Q

janeway lesions and osler nodes, - what are they are which are painful/painless

A

janeway lesions are painless caused by septic emboli
osler nodes are painful - caused by immune complex deposition

58
Q

are antiepileptics safe in breastfeeding

A

yes except from barbiturates

59
Q

increased risks in elderly taking antipsychotic medication

A

stroke + VTE

60
Q

genital wart treatment

A

single - cryotherapy
multiple - topical podophyllum

61
Q

incubation period of campylobacter, salmonella, e.coli and shigella

A

shigella, salmonella and e.coli - 12-72 hours
campylobacter - 2-5 days

62
Q

what anti rheumatic drug can cause exacerbation of myaesthenia gravis

A

penicillamine

63
Q

acute tretament for cluster headache

A

100% 02
subcutaneous triptan

64
Q

risk factors for cluster headaches

A

smoking
male
alcohol may trigger

65
Q

treatment for malignant otitis externa

A

severe otitis externa found in immunocmpromised individuals
usually pseudomonas

worsening and not responding to tretament should be referred urgently to ENT
IV ciprofloxacin

66
Q

missed pill rule for ‘traiditional’ POP and desogestrel

A

all POP have a 3 hour window so if missed > 3 hours then take pill + protection for 48 hours

desogestrel is the only POP that has 12 hour window.

67
Q

monitoring required for amiodarone

A

TFT and LFT every 6 months

68
Q

monitoring required for ACE inhibitors

A

u&e prior to treatment, after dose change and at least annually

69
Q

monitoring required for methotrexate

A

FBC, U&E, LFT every 2 weeks until treatment established then every 2-3 months

70
Q

monitoring required for lithium

A

lithium level every 3 months
U&E + TFT every 6 months

71
Q

tear drop poikoilocytes on blood film

A

myelofibrosis

Question bank questions (6 decks)

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