Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Child Health > Passmed/Pastest > Flashcards

Passmed/Pastest Flashcards

1
Q

what are the features of an infant haemangioma

A

visible mass appearing shortly after birth, usually in head and neck area, usually raised and red but may be blue if involving deeper structures

surrounding skin will be blanched and telangeictasia may be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the treatment for infant haemangioma

A

if asymptomatic and child is <5/6 months - watch and wait they usually regress by this time

if symptomatic oral beta blockers is first line (propanolol)

topical beta blockers are used if oral arent tolerated

surgery is reserved for compression of vital structures or ones that fail to regress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the difference between caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma

A

cephalohaematoma - DOES NOT CROSS SUTURE LINES, well circumscribed smooth fluctuant mass with no skin changes, often in occipito-parietal area

caput succedaneum - crosses midline and suture lines , diffuse swelling of the scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when can a child with a seizure be managed at home

A

if it lasted <15 mins, with complete recovery within an hour, with no focal features and the child is otherwise well and not requiring any drugs like antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the cause of toddlers diarrhoea

A

increased gut motility in a developing digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the features of toddlers diarrhoea

A

chronic watery diarrhoea with undigested food in a child that is otherwise well and growing without an issue

usually resolves by 5 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the likely mechanism of a newborn with a haemorrhage born out of hospital

A

vitamin k deficiency - all newborns are deficient and if born in hospital they get a vit k injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are features of allergic rhinitis in children

A

paroxysmal nocturnal cough usually at night with occasional retching vomiting

may have noisy breathing/rattly chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

whats the most likely diagnosis of a child presenting with haematuria, periorbital oedema and oliguria following an URTI

A

acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are features of hyper-IgE syndrome

A 
recurrent respiratory infections (staph/Hib) 
coarsening of facial features 
chronic eczematoid eruptions
cold abscesses  
two sets of teeth at same time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what kind of inheritence is hyper-IgE syndrome

A

AD or Ar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a sign a child may have duschennes muscular dystrophy

A

gowers manouvre when getting up - walks on hands “climbing up on his legs”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if duschennes MD is suspected what blood test can be done before a biopsy

A

creatinine phosphokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most common brain tumour in children

A

cerebellar astrocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is stills disease

A

systemic-onset juvenile arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are features of systemic-onset juvenile arthritis/stills disease

A

high spiking fever progressing throughout day, peaking at night and then settling down by morning to climb again.

salmon pink rash, malaise, arthralgia, weight loss, lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how do you manage systemic-onset juvenile arthritis/stills disease

A

NSAIDS +/- steroids

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the components of tetralogy of falot

A

right ventricular hypertrophy
ventricular septal defect
tricuspid atresia/right sided outflow obstruction
overriding aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when should a <5 year old with asthma be referred to a respiratory paediatrician

A

when using salbutamol inhaler >3 times a week and they are on SABA + low dose ICS + LTRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is suspected for a child with a musty odour or the skin and urine, hypopigmentation and eczema

A

phenylketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is tetralogy of falot’s cause

A

anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are features of achondroplasia

A

short limbs and stature but with normal growth of head leading to ‘abnormally large head’ appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what mutation is responsible for achondroplasia

A

activation of the FGF3 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is edwards syndrome

A

trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are features of edwards syndrome
microcephaly, overlapping fingers, rocker bottom feet, congenital heart disease,breathing and feeding problems, severe learning difficulty
26
when is a pavlick harness contraindicated for DDH and what is the only alternative
in children over 6 months old or with irreducible deformity, surgery is the only option
27
what virus causes bronchiolitis
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
28
what is the most common cause of cyanosis of a newborn
Transposition of the great arteries
29
how do you differentiate between hypoplastic left heart syndrome and TGA
HLHS has pulmonary oedema/respiratory distress whereas TGA does not, it presents with cyanosis and severe low oxygen saturation
30
when should you ultrasound a newborns hips for ?DDH if ortolanis and barlows test is normal, and when should the scan be done
if they have significant risk factors for DDH (oligohydramnios , breech position) 4-6 weeks as opposed to 2 weeks for a positive ortolanis/barlows
31
when should a child have a CT head for ?intracranial haemorrhage post head trauma within 1 hour
any more than >1 of 1. LOC >5 mins 2. abnormal drowsiness 3. 3+ episodes of vomiting 4. dangerous mechanism/high speed impact 5. retrograde/anterograde amnesia for >5 mins 6. suspicion of NAI 7. post traumatic seizure with no ddx of epilepsy 8. GCS <15 , initially or 2 hours after 9. tense fontanelle 10. signs of basal skull fracture 11. focal neurological defect 12. any bruise/swelling/laceration on head if <1yo
32
when should a child be monitored for 4 hours post head injury
only one of 1. LOC >5 mins 2. abnormal drowsiness 3. 3+ episodes of vomiting 4. dangerous mechanism/high speed impact 5. retrograde/anterograde amnesia for >5 mins 6. suspicion of NAI 7. post traumatic seizure with no ddx of epilepsy 8. GCS <15 , initially or 2 hours after 9. tense fontanelle 10. signs of basal skull fracture 11. focal neurological defect 12. any bruise/swelling/laceration on head if <1yo
33
what are signs of a congenital toxoplasmosis infection
jaundice at birth, organomegaly and convulsions
34
what is the most common cause of an uncomplicated, raised unconjugated bilirubin in a newborn, presenting after the first 24 hours of life
breast milk jaundice | genetic testing should rule out gilberts
35
what % of omphalocele causes are genetic
15%
36
what is the presentation of roseola infantum
child aged 6-24 months with a 3-5 day history of a blanching rash, high (>40) fevers, lethargy, cervical lymphadenopathy and enlarged tonsils
37
how do you treat roseola infantum
it is self limiting so supportive
38
what causes roseola infantum
Human Herpes Virus 6
39
what is the most likely cause of a RIF pain with cervical lymphadenopathy and high fever, following a viral URTI
mesenteric adenitis
40
what does an egg on side appearance of the cardiac shadow on XR indicate
TGA
41
what is the definitive management of TGA
balloon atrial septostomy
42
whats the treatment of otitis media +/- effusion in children without abnormal architecture
amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days
43
whats the treatment of otitis media +/- effusion in children with known abnormal facial architecture (T21, cleft palate)
specialist referral
44
whats the most sensitive test for detecting a viral gastroenteritis in a child
stool electron microscopy
45
what are the options for procedural sedation of a child
nitrous first line or: midazolam - if the procedure is only expected to cause mild/moderate pain Ketamine - if the procedure is expected to be more painful or if nitrous/midazolam not working
46
what is the medical management of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
ursodeoxycholic acid
47
what is the appropriate investigation if you suspect sickle cell anaemia
haemoglobin electrophoresis
48
what is the most likely cause of frontal bossing, FTT, splenomegaly and anaemia
beta-thalassaemia
49
what are the common symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism
most clinical features similar to adults drowsiness and poor feeding with a large protruding tongue and flattened nasal bridge
50
how is congenital hypothyroidism screened for
heel-prick test (guthrie test)
51
what is the first-line investigation for a swelling post-delivery that crosses the suture lines in a neonate, and what are you worried about
cranial ultrasound to check for subgleal haemorrhage
52
what is the main concern with subgleal haemorrhage
neonatal seizures, shock, death
53
what are features of galactoseaemia
jaundice, hepatomegaly, elevated liver enzymes, presence of reducing substances in the urine
54
what kind of small bowel obstruction is common in kids with cystic fibrosis
meconium ileus
55
what is erbs palsy
C5/6 injury usually due to shoulder dystocia
56
what are the signs of erbs palsy
reduced moros reflex on that side with reduced tone
57
what congenital infection causes jaundice, microcephaly, thrombocytopenia and periventricular calcification
TORCH infections - the most common of which is CMV
58
what is the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis infection
hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis and tram like calcifications on CT
59
what are some classic features of congenital syphilis infection
hutchinsons teeth - wide spaced notched small teeth frontal bossing of the skull saddle nose deformity anterior bowing of shins (shaber shins) cluttons joints - symmetrical knee swelling
60
what does a congenital parovirus infection cause
hydrops fetalis (cmv also causes but parovirus should be excluded)
61
what is hydrops fetalis
accumulation of fluid in more than one compartment in the foetus - scalp/pericardium/peritoneal cavity/subcutaneous tissue
62
First line treatment for threadworm
oral mebendazole
63
what is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis in the UK
Group B strep infection
64
what are features of coxsackie infection
hand foot and mouth disease oral ulcers fever red spots on hands and feet
65
what drug is used to induce duct closure in children with PDA
indomethacin
66
what are the empirical antibiotics for ?meningococcal septicaemia in <3 months and >3 months and why is it different
<3 months: IV cefotaxime + IV amoxicillin 3 months: IV cefotaxime IV amoxicillin covers for listeria
67
what is a typical presentation + examination findings for a patient with transposition of the great arteries
baby is cyanosed very shortly after birth no murmur but loud S2 and prominent right ventricular pulse
68
when should you administer steroids to a patient with ?meningococcal septicaemia
<3 months = dont >3 months + findings suggestive of infection on CSF = give IV dexamethasone
69
why is IV dexamethasone given in meningococcal septicaemia
prevents neurological sequalae
70
what are the biochemical abnormalities shown in gilberts syndrome on an LFT
normal liver enzymes but raised unconjugated bilirubin
71
what is indicated for children at high risk of hypoxic brain injury after labour
therapeutic cooling
72
what liver malformation is caused by congenital CMV infection
biliary atresia
73
what vaccinations are given at birth
BCG if there has been Tb in the family for the past 6 months
74
what vaccinations are given at 2 months
6 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) Men B Oral Rotavirus
75
what vaccinations are given at 3 months
6 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) Oral rotavirus PCV
76
what vaccinations are given at 4 months
6 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) Men B
77
what vaccinations are given at 12-13 months
Hib/Men C MMR PCV Men B
78
what vaccines are offered at 2-8 years
annual flu vaccine
79
what vaccine should be given at 3-4 years
('4-in-1 pre-school booster' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) MMR
80
what vaccination is given at 12-13 years old
HPV - boys and girls now
81
what vaccinations are given at 13-18 years old
'3-in-1 teenage booster' (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) | Men ACWY
82
what is the most common complication of intracerebral bleeding
hydrocephalus
83
what should be the primary consideration of a neonate presenting with raised conjugated bilirubin
biliary atresia
84
what are features of a life threatening asthma attack in children
``` SpO2 <92% PEF <33% Silent chest Poor respiratory effort Drowsiness Agitation Cyanosis ```
85
What are features of a severe asthma attack in children
SpO2 < 92% PEF 33-50% Too breathless to talk or feed Heart rate >125 (>5 years) >140 (1-5 years) Respiratory rate >30 breaths/min (>5 years) >40 (1-5 years) Use of accessory neck muscles
86
what is the advice regarding exclusion from school with a child with chicken pox
until all lesions have crusted over they should be excluded from school
87
what causes hypertonia in neonates
cerebral palsy - but its important to note that hypotonia may precede
88
does cystic fibrosis cause hypotonia in children
no
89
what is patau syndrome and what are some of the features
Trisomy 13 Microcephalic, small eyes Cleft lip/palate Polydactyly Scalp lesions
90
what is edwards syndrome and what are some of the features
Trisomy 18 Micrognathia - small lower jaw Low-set ears Rocker bottom feet Overlapping of fingers
91
What are some features of fragile X syndrome
``` Learning difficulties Macrocephaly Long face Large ears Macro-orchidism ```
92
what are some features of noonans syndrome
Webbed neck Pectus excavatum Short stature Pulmonary stenosis
93
what are some features of pierre-robin syndrome
Micrognathia - small jaw Posterior displacement of the tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction) Cleft palate
94
what are some features of prader-willi syndrome
hypotonia obesity hypogonadism
95
what are some features of williams syndrome
``` Short stature Learning difficulties Friendly, extrovert personality Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia Supravalvular aortic stenosis ```
96
what are some features of crit du chat syndrome
Characteristic cry (hence the name) due to larynx and neurological problems Feeding difficulties and poor weight gain Learning difficulties Microcephaly and micrognathism Hypertelorism (abnormal distance between two body parts)
97
what syndrome should be considered if a child has microcephaly
edwards or patau
98
what syndrome causes rocker bottom feet
edwards syndrome
99
what syndrome tends to cause macrocephaly
fragile X
100
if a patient with a previous viral gastroenteritis presents with chronic loose stools what is the most likely diagnosis
transient lactose intolerance
101
how do you manage a transient lactose intolerance following a viral gastroenteritis
exclusion of lactose from the diet with gradual reintroduction`
102
what are features of cystic hygroma
soft posterior neck swelling that transilluminates
103
what are features of a dermoid cyst
small mass, usually above the hyoid bone on ultrasound there will be a heterogenous multiloculated mass
104
what are features of a branchial cyst
smooth mass in anterior triangle (usually near mandible) on ultrasound it is fluid filled an anechoic
105
what are common features of measles
initial prodrome of cough, coryza and koplik spots (white spots on the buccal mucosa) presents before the emerging rash, which starts behind the ears and spreads down the body between day 3 and 5
106
what is the most common complication of measles
otitis media
107
what is the most common cause of death from measles
pneumonia
108
what is the management of a slipped upper capital epiphysis
internal fixation along the growth plate
109
what murmur indicates an aortic coarctation
Crescendo-decrescendo murmur in the upper left sternal border
110
what murmur indicates a patent ductus arteriosus
Diastolic machinery murmur in the upper left sternal border
111
what murmur indicates pulmonary stenosis
Ejection systolic murmur in the upper left sternal border
112
what murmur indicates an atrioseptal defect
a ejection systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound.
113
what are the antibiotic reccomendations for ?pneumonia in children
Amoxicillin is first-line for all children with pneumonia Macrolides (erythromycin) may be added if there is no response to first line therapy Macrolides should be used if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected In pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended
114
At what age do the majority of children achieve day and night time urinary continence
3-4 years
115
what is the treatment for spasticity in cerebral palsy
oral diazepam ``` oral and intrathecal baclofen botulinum toxin type A orthopaedic surgery and selective dorsal rhizotomy anticonvulsants analgesia as required ```
116
what type of inheritence is haemophilila
X linked recessive
117
treatment for kawasakis
aspirin and IV immunoglobins
118
what are some complications of mumps infection
orchitis pancreatitis infertility
119
what heart abnormality is fragile x syndrome associated with
mitral valve prolapse
120
what are the risk factors for SIDS
``` prone sleeping parental smoking bed sharing hyperthermia and head covering prematurity ```
121
for how long should a child be excluded from school for with whooping cough
48 hours from commencement of antibiotics

Child Health (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions