passmed Flashcards

1
Q

What medication should be avoided in patients taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

A

NSAIDs eg sumatriptan

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2
Q

Treatment for PTSD?

A

SSRI sertraline or paroxetine or venlafaxine

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3
Q

What are some key signs of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Common in adolescents and typically, pain is:
Unilateral (but may be bilateral in up to 30% of people).
Gradual in onset and initially mild and intermittent, but may progress to become severe and continuous.
Relieved by rest and made worse by kneeling and activity, such as running or jumping.

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4
Q

Is it nephritic or nephrotic syndrome: Minimal Change Disease

A

Nephrotic: proteinuria (> 1 g/m^2 per 24 hours)
hypoalbuminaemia (< 25 g/l)
oedema

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5
Q

What is the presentation of malrotation with volvulus and what should be done immediately. what treatment

A

A distended abdomen and bilious vomiting is highly suggestive of intestinal malrotation and volvulus. An urgent upper GI contrast study and ultrasound is required. treated with Ladd’s procedure

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6
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed?

A

M>F
5-10% Family history in parents
Projectile non bile stained vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life
Diagnosis is made by test feed or USS
Treatment: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy (open or laparoscopic)

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7
Q

Intussusception treatment

A

Telescoping bowel
Proximal to or at the level of, ileocaecal valve
6-9 months of age
Colicky pain, diarrhoea and vomiting, sausage-shaped mass, red jelly stool.
Treatment: reduction with air insufflation

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8
Q

necrotising enterocolitis

A

Prematurity is the main risk factor
Early features include abdominal distension and passage of bloody stools
X-Rays may show pneumatosis intestinalis and evidence of free air
Increased risk when empirical antibiotics are given to infants beyond 5 days
Treatment is with total gut rest and TPN, babies with perforations will require laparotomy

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9
Q

what procedure should be done for biliary atresia?

A

Jaundice > 14 days
Increased conjugated bilirubin
Urgent Kasai procedure

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10
Q

Which condition of the liver is associated with very itchy skin?

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

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11
Q

What is the main side effect of clozapine? What condition is it administered to?

A

agranulocytosis, atypical antipsychotic

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12
Q

Atypical antipsychotics what are the main s.e.?

A

Atypical: weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia.

Typical: Akathisia, dystonia, parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia (facial)

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13
Q

What are the 3 main symptoms of PTSD?

A

hypervigilance, avoidance and intrusive memories

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14
Q

COCP increases the risk of which cancers and decreases the risk of which cancers?

A

Increases risk of breast and cervical
Protective against ovarian and endometrial

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15
Q

Define these:
Euthymia
Reactive affect
Congruent affect:

A

Euthymia- steady state happy calm, content
Reactive affect: responds appropriately to the subject of conversation
Congruent affect: emotions match the situation

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16
Q

What drug classes:
Tolterodine
Teriparatide
Toremifene
Finasteride
Tamsculosin
Oxybutunin

A

Tolterodine: antimuscarinic
Teriparatide: bisphosphonates for osteoporosis
Toremifene: nonsteroidal antiestrogens
Finasteride: 5-alpha reductase
Tamsculosin: alpha blocker
Oxybutunin: antimuscarinic

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17
Q

MAOIs- monamine oxidase inhibitors (isocarboxazid, moclobemide) why is it so bad

A

Can cause hypertensive crisis, tyrosine kinase reaction associated with cheese/wine/marmite!!!!!!!!!!

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18
Q

A patient with lung cancer has PET scan to evaluate mets. What does this type of scan demonstrate?
A) Cellular proliferation
B) apoptotic activity
C) glucose uptake
D) Vascular supply
E) tyrosine kinase activity

A

C) glucose update

19
Q

Fever persisting for more than 5 days, rash, strawberry tongue, lymphadenopathy, conjunctivitis

A

Kawasaki Disease

20
Q

Which anaesthetic can cause malignant hyperthermia and what do you give for management?

A

Suxamethonium, and give Dantrolene prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

21
Q

A 2-week-old infant with a small chin, posterior displacement of the tongue and cleft palate

A

Pierre-Robin syndrome

22
Q

Supravalvular aortic stenosis is found in a 3-year-old boy with learning difficulties

A

Williams syndrome

23
Q

A 9-week-old is noted to have a small chin and rocker-bottom feet

A

Edward’s syndrome

24
Q

Which drug can cause similar symptoms to schizophrenia?

A

Amphetamine as it is a dopamine agonist

25
Q

What are poor prognosis factors for schizophrenia?

A

Factors associated with poor prognosis
strong family history
gradual onset
low IQ
prodromal phase of social withdrawal
lack of obvious precipitant

26
Q

A 26 year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3 month history of inter-menstrual bleeding and occasional post-coital bleeding. She is sexually active and takes Microgynon (a combined oral contraceptive pill). Her last cervical smear was normal.

A

Cervical ectropion

27
Q

Which opioid should be given for severe kidney failure in palliative care?

A

Buprenorphine or fentanyl are the opioids of choice for pain relief in palliative care patients with severe renal impairment

28
Q

Gynaecomastia, loss of libido and erectile dysfunction what causes this in antipsychotic meds?

A

Gynaecomastia, loss of libido and erectile dysfunction, which are defining features of hyperprolactinaemia

29
Q

How long do you have to continue antidepressants for after starting to feel better on them before you start tapering down?

A

Antidepressants should be continued for at least 6 months after remission of symptoms to decrease risk of relapse

30
Q

A risk factor for developing Ebstein’s anomaly is the mother taking ……..?

A

A risk factor for developing Ebstein’s anomaly is the mother taking lithium during the first trimester of pregnancy.

Systolic heart murmur is heard. An echocardiogram shows right atrial hypertrophy and the septal and posterior leaflet of the tricuspid valve attached to the right ventricle

31
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic should you give for hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Aripiprazole has the most tolerable side effect profile of the atypical antispsychotics, particularly for prolactin elevation

32
Q

conjunctivitis, slapped cheek, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms and hand, foot and mouth.

whooping cough.

measles.

rubella.

All lesions crusted over is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of chickenpox.

5 days from onset of swollen glands is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of mumps.

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of infectious gastroenteritis.

Until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of impetigo.

A

No exclusion is incorrect and instead appropriate for the following diagnoses: conjunctivitis, slapped cheek, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms and hand, foot and mouth.

2 days after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics) is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of whooping cough.

4 days from onset of rash is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of measles.

5 days from onset of rash is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of rubella.

All lesions crusted over is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of chickenpox.

5 days from onset of swollen glands is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of mumps.

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of infectious gastroenteritis.

Until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment is incorrect and instead appropriate for a diagnosis of impetigo.

33
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic is given for drug management for challenging behaviours with dementia? short-term treatment (up to six weeks) ​

Only medicine licensed ​

Moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease ​

Where risk of harm to Self or Others

A

Risperidone

34
Q

What are some causes of delirium?
PINCH ME

A

pain, infection, neoplasm, constipation, hydration, medication, environment

35
Q

In males what epilepsy meds for generalised seizure and what for focal seizure?

A

Epilepsy medication for males:
generalised seizure: sodium valproate
focal seizure: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

36
Q

Main things to remember in medical emergencies:
-Acute exarcebation of COPD ( what meds and what is the scoring system called for in patient mortality score)
-Anaphylaxis (what blood is important to take)
-PE (management)
-

A

COPD: DECAF score, salbutamol, ipratroprium, hydrocortisone/prednisolone
Anaphylaxis: lie patient flat, raise legs, call for help, administer IM adrenaline and remove antigen causing attack. do mast cell trypstase!! give chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone!!!!! and repeat mast cell tryptase 2 hours post event
PE: furosemide IV, do troponin and BNP!! catheterise patient, consider CPAP potentially, do ECHO

37
Q

Alcohol withdrawal what to expect after
6-12 hours?
24 hours?
36 hours?
3-4 days?

A

6-12 hours → tremor
24 hours → anxiety, agitation, muscle pain, sweating, nausea, insomnia
36 hours → seizures
3-4 days → delirium tremens

38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzos?

A

GABA agonist!!! targets GABA, allowing chloride to flow into cells. Advise patient they should not drive or operate machinery after taking the drug. Avoid daily use or no longer than 4 weeks.

39
Q

Which illegal drug is an Monoamine reuptake inhibitor?

A

Cocaine

40
Q

Cocaine, LSD, MDMA/ ectasy, canabis amphetamine(meth/speed), ketamine, mushrooms, heroin, benzos

A

Canabis: Class B
Ketamine: Class B
Cocaine: Class A
LSD: Class A
Mushrooms: Class A
Amphetamine: Class B
MDMA/ectasy: Class A
Heroin: Class A (pinpoint pupils) give naloxone and methadone
Benzos: Class C (flumazenil)

41
Q

In MHA how long does section 2 and section 3 lasts?

A

Section 2 for assessment is up to 28 days
Section 3 is for medical treatment and is up to 6 months

42
Q

Haloperidol administered due to patient being aggressive. What medication is important to also have prepared in the case the patient suffers a dystonic reaction?

A

Acute dystonia secondary to antipsychotics is usually managed with procyclidine

43
Q
A