Pass Medicine Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What is cabergoline used for?

A

Cabergoline is a dopamine receptor agonist which inhibits prolactin production causing suppression of lactation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do ectopic pregnancies present?

A

A typical history is a female with a history of 6-8 weeks amenorrhoea who presents with lower abdominal pain and later develops vaginal bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Streptococcus agalacticae is the bacterium which causes what disease?

A

Streptococcus agalacticae is the bacterium which causes Group B Streptococcal disease (GBS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the medication of choice in suppressing lactation when breastfeeding cessation is indicated?

A

Cabergoline - dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does PCOS present?

A
  • subfertility and infertility
  • menstrual disturbances: oligomenorrhea and amenorrhoea
  • hirsutism, acne (due to hyperandrogenism)
  • obesity
  • acanthosis nigricans (due to insulin resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is acanthosis nigricans?

A

Darkening of the skin in the folds of the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes acanthosis nigricans?

A

The most common cause of acanthosis nigricans is being very overweight. Other causes include: type 2 diabetes. conditions that affect hormone levels – such as Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome or an underactive thyroid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a risk factor of progesterone HRT?

A

HRT: adding a progestogen increases the risk of breast cancer.

Progestogens carry the increased risk of breast cancer, venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is HRT indicated?

A

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should be considered for patients presenting with vasomotor symptoms such as hot flushes, night sweats and palpitations in menopause.
Note: If a patient only presents with urogenital symptoms, topical oestrogens may be appropriate (e.g. oestradiol creams or pessaries). Topical oestrogens act locally to reduce vaginal dryness, reduce UTI recurrence, reduce dyspareunia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the risk of oestrogen only HRT?

A

If the patient has not had a hysterectomy, their HRT regime must include oestrogen and progestogen. This is because unopposed oestrogen therapy causes hypertrophy of the uterus and a 5-10x increased risk of endometrial carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of endometrial cancer?

A
  • postmenopausal bleeding is the classic symptom
  • premenopausal women may have a change intermenstrual bleeding
  • pain and discharge are unusual features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of metformin in the treatment of PCOS?

A

Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity.

Both hyperinsulinaemia and high levels of luteinizing hormone are seen in PCOS and there appears to be some overlap with the metabolic syndrome.

Treats fertility by increasing ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Adenomyosis is a condition in which the inner lining of the uterus (the endometrium) breaks through the muscle wall of the uterus (the myometrium). Adenomyosis can cause menstrual cramps, lower abdominal pressure, and bloating before menstrual periods and can result in heavy periods.

  • Treated with a hysterectomy.

Features:

Features

  • dysmenorrhoea
  • menorrhagia
  • enlarged, boggy uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is folic acid taken in pregnancy?

A

Prevent neural tube defects in the baby such spina bifida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Raised proteinuria can be a sign of what in pregnancy?

A

There is also usually increased urine protein and the threshold for excessive proteinuria in pregnancy is >300 mg/24 hours versus >150 in non-pregnant patients. However, protein should still be monitored as proteinuria can be a feature of pre-eclampsia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tumour markers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Lochia?

A

Lochia is the bleeding that presents for the first 2 weeks following giving birth, whether this is by vaginal birth or caesarian section. Due to the higher risk of post-partum haemorrhage in caesarian section however, a detailed history and examination should take place in this case for any concerning features.

Lochia typically takes the course of fresh bleeding, which undergoes colour changes before finally stopping. The patient can be reassured and advice should be given to her regarding lochia. Specifically, she should be told that if this begins to smell badly, its volume increases or it doesn’t stop, she should seek medical help. In this case the volume is not excessive and there are no concerning features to the lochia or abnormal observations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Late vs Early onset sepsis bugs:

A

Sepsis in the neonate often presents with non-specific features. Therefore, one must have a high index of suspicion and a low threshold for investigation. Sepsis in the neonate can broadly be divided into early-onset (<48 hours since birth) and late-onset (>48 hours from birth).

Early-onset sepsis is associated with acquisition of micro-organisms from the mothers birth canal. Late-onset sepsis normally occurs due to hospital acquired pathogens such as Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the gold standard for investigating endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy is the gold-standard investigation for patients with suspected endometriosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the case of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 points toward what?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Rhesus disease?

A

A condition where antibodies in a pregnant womans blood destroy her babies blood cells, aka haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).

  • can lead to jaundice and anaemia in the baby - does not harm the mother.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is given as a form of prophylaxis to women whom have already had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy?

A

Low dose asprin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is low dose asprin given as prophylaxis for pre-eclampsia?

A

Inhibits thromboxane, which is a hormone that raises bloodpressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the approach to managing a women with postmenopausal bleeding?

A

Endometrial cancer is a common cancer in postmenopausal women and it is important to rule this out in all women that present with post-menopausal bleeding.

The first step in the investigation of possible endometrial cancer is to perform a trans-vaginal ultrasound scan to measure the endometrial thickness.

If the endometrial lining is thickened then a hysteroscopy will be preformed and an endometrial biopsy taken.

Treatment for endometrial cancer is usually laparoscopic hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, with or without radiotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Heart murmurs sounds

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lydia is a 26-year-old woman who has come to her GP complaining of low mood, sleep disturbance and headaches. She says the symptoms come on around the same time each month and seem to stop just before her period. In between episodes she feel fine but is concerned about how these symptoms are affecting her performance at work. She does not plan to have children for at least the next couple of years.

Given the likely diagnosis which treatment is appropriate for Lydia at this stage?

A

The likely diagnosis is premenstrual syndrome and appropriate treatments include combined oral contraceptive (often taken continually with no pill free break) and SSRIs. Patients should also be referred for CBT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Explain the treatment of pre-menstrual syndrome fully:

A

Mild: Life-style modifiers, small frequent meals, exercise etc.

Moderate: Combined oral contraceptive.

Severe: SSRI’s (setraline).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A

HNPCC/Lynch syndrome is a strong risk factor for endometrial cancer. The combined oral contraceptive pill is protective against endometrial cancer. Other main risk factors include obesity, increased number of ovulations (for example fewer pregnancies, early menarche, and late menopause), as well as some medications such as tamoxifen, and medical conditions such as diabetes and polycystic ovarian syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does the combined oral contraceptive affects cancer risks how?

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill:

  • increased risk of breast and cervical cancer
  • protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A 22-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 10 weeks’ gestation is involved in a high speed vehicle collision and her abdomen hits the steering wheel. Maternal vital signs are stable. No uterine contractions are present, and there is no vaginal bleeding. U/S shows an intact placenta. Which is the most appropriate next step?

A

Blood and rhesus testing.

A pregnant woman with abdominal trauma should have Rhesus testing asap because women who are Rhesus-negative should be given anti-D to prevent Rhesus isoimmunization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When should you admit a women to hospital with hyperemesis?

A

Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy: Admission should be considered in cases of ketonuria and/or weight loss despite use of oral anitemetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is used for eclampsia prophylaxis in pre-eclampsis?

A

IV magnesium sulphate is used for eclampsia (seizure) prophylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Contraceptives - time until effective (if not first day period):

Instant?

2 days?

7 days?

A

Contraceptives - time until effective (if not first day period):

Instant: IUD
2 days: POP
7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is placenta praevia and how does it present?

A

Placenta praevia describes a placenta lying wholly or partly in the lower uterine segment.

The bleeding associated with placenta praevia is painless and usually bright red. Meanwhile the bleeding associated with placental abruption is associated with pain and is usually dark red. The pattern of previous bleeding also favours placenta praevia. Though vasa praevia can also present with painless vaginal bleeding other expected features would include fetal bradycardia and membrane rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the classic symptoms of endometriosis?

A

The classic symptoms of endometriosis are pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia and subfertility.

36
Q

What is a bicornuate uterus?

A

A bicornuate uterus is an embryological abnormalilty giving the uterus 2 fundi, giving a ‘heart-shaped’ uterus. It is thought to be associated with an increased risk of recurrent miscarriages.

37
Q

A 27-year-old is found to have a blood pressure of 165/111 mmHg and ++proteinuria on urinalysis on a routine visit to the antenatal clinic. Her consulting doctor is worried about pre-eclampsia and admits her to the obstetrics assessment unit. She has recently moved here and therefore her medical notes are not accessible. She is quite fit and well and does not take any medications apart from her blue and brown inhalers. She has recently completed a 5-day course of steroids after being hospitalised for a severe exacerbation of asthma.

Which is the choice of drug for managing her hypertension?

A

Nifedipine is the first line anti-hypertensive for pre-eclampsia in women with severe asthma.

38
Q

When is expectant management following miscarriage not suitable?

A

Miscarriage - expectant management is not suitable if evidence of infection or increased risk of haemorrhage.

39
Q

First line treatment for atrophic vaginitis:

A

Lubricants and moisturisers are useful adjuncts to topical oestrogen as first-line treatment of atrophic vaginitis.

40
Q

How is gestational diabetes diagnosed?

A

Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed by:

Fasting glucose >=5.6

2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/l (glucose challenge test)

41
Q

The most common ovarian cancer:

A

Serous carcinoma (epithelial)

42
Q

Known as chocolate cysts due to their appearance:

A

Endometriotic cyst

43
Q

What is tranexamic acid used for?

A

It helps your blood to clot and is used for nosebleeds and heavy periods.

44
Q

What is mefenamic acid used for?

  • what class of drug?
A

NSAID used to treat menstrual pain.

45
Q

Management of stress incontinence:

A

Stresssss - Pelvisss (floor exercise)
Stressed -> Duloxetine (SSRI)

46
Q

What are the features of placental abruption?

A
  • continuous abdominal pain
  • shock disproportionate to the amount of blood loss (20% of placental abruptions are ‘concealed’ - the blood is trapped behind the placenta and does not drain)
  • the uterus may be in spasm and feel firm or ‘woody’
  • the fetus may be hard to feel
  • the fetal heart may be hard to auscultate
47
Q

What is given in the case of a medical abortion?

A

Medical abortions are undertaken using mifepristone followed by at least one episode of prostaglandins and are appropriate at any gestation.

48
Q

Placenta accreta

A

Placenta accreta is a serious pregnancy condition that occurs when the placenta grows too deeply into the uterine wall. Typically, the placenta detaches from the uterine wall after childbirth. With placenta accreta, part or all of the placenta remains attached. This can cause severe blood loss after delivery.

49
Q

What antibiotic is given for GBS prophylaxis?

A

Benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis.

50
Q

Whirlpool sign can be seen on ultrasound scanning and indicates what condition?

A

Ovarian torsion

51
Q

A snow storm appearance on ultrasound indicates what?

A

A snow-storm appearance is classic of a complete hydatidiform mole.

52
Q

What is a hydatidiform mole?

A

A hydatidiform mole is a growing mass of tissue inside your womb (uterus) that will not develop into a baby. It is the result of abnormal conception. It may cause bleeding in early pregnancy and is usually picked up in an early pregnancy ultrasound scan. It needs to be removed and most women can expect a full recovery.

53
Q

What is the most appropriate investigation to diagnose premature ovarian failure?

A

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) level is raised significantly in menopausal patients. Test FSH to confirm menopause.

54
Q

Oral metronidazole is used in what gyne conditions?

A

Oral metronidazole is used in bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis.

55
Q

Oral doxycycline is used in what gyne conditions?

A

Oral doxycycline is used in Chlamydia infections.

56
Q

How does placental abruption present?

A
  • Shock out of keeping with visible loss
  • pain constant
  • tender, tense uterus
  • normal lie and presentation
  • fetal heart: absent/distressed
  • coagulation problems
  • beware pre-eclampsia, DIC, anuria
57
Q

When does uterine rupture usually occur?

Risk factors?

How does uterine rupture present?

A

Ruptures usually occur during labour but occur in third trimester.
Risk factors: previous caesarean section
Presents with maternal shock, abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding to varying degree.

58
Q

What is the child-pugh score used for?

A

The Child-Pugh score is used to assess the severity of liver cirrhosis. It is graded as A, B and C with grade C suggesting a life expectancy of 1-3 years.

59
Q

What score should be calculated prior to induction of labour?

A

Prior to inducing labour, the Bishop’s score should be calculated with a score of 8 or above suggesting that there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or a highly favourable response to methods of induction. If methods of induction are required, NICE recommend that vaginal prostaglandins should be used first-line.

60
Q

Combined oral contraceptive pill increased risk to what cancers and protective against what cancers?

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill

  • Increased risk of breast and cervical cancer
  • Protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer
61
Q

COCP protects against the cancers that present indolently in older age (endometrial, ovarian, bowel) but increases risk of the ones we screen for (breast, cervical).

A

COCP increases the risk to the cancers you screen for.

62
Q

What is the difference between gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

A

Gestational hypertension occurs after 20 weeks gestation and unlike pre-eclampsia, it is without proteinuria

63
Q

How long does the POP take to become effective?

A

The progestogen-only pill takes 48 hours before it becomes effective.

64
Q

What is the most common side effect of the POP?

A

Irregular vaginal bleeding is the most common problem

65
Q

What treatment should a menopausal women with a history of VTE be offered?

A

Transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE (vs. oral).

66
Q

What are the most common side effects of HRT?

A
  • nausea
  • breast tenderness
  • fluid retention and weight gain
67
Q

How frequent is cervical smear recall with normal HPV and a smear?

(two age groups)

A

3 years for 25-49

5 years 50-64

68
Q

POP missed pill what do you do?

A

POP - Missed pill (>3 hrs or >12 hrs depending on pill) then you have to take another pill and use condoms for 48hrs?

69
Q

COCP missed pill

A

COCP - Missed pill (>24hrs later) then take the pill and no other action needed, Missed two pills take the pill and use condoms for 7 days?

70
Q

The first-line medical treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is what?

A

The first-line medical treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is ursodeoxycholic acid

71
Q

Treatment of vaginal candidiasis - one off vs recurrent?

A

An induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole should be considered for recurrent vaginal candidiasis.

Over the counter treatments include antifungals (such as clotrimazole cream) and are usually successful for management of one-off episodes of vaginal candidiasis.

72
Q

What medication is used to treat BV?

A

Oral metronidazole

73
Q

Cervical smears summary

A
  • 1st screen HPV+ve and cytology -ve: repeat at 12 months
  • 2nd screen HPV+ve and cytology -ve repeat again at 12 months
  • 3rd screen (24 months from 1st) is still HPV+ve and cytology -ve: colposcopy.
74
Q

What is HELLP syndrome and what does it relate to?

A

HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening liver disorder thought to be a type of severe preeclampsia. It is characterized by H emolysis (destruction of red blood cells), E levated L iver enzymes (which indicate liver damage), and L ow P latelet count. HELLP is usually related to preeclampsia.

75
Q

Summary of HELLP syndrome:

A

Features

  • nausea & vomiting
  • right upper quadrant pain
  • lethargy

Investigations

  • bloods: Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and a Low Platelet

Treatment

  • delivery of the baby
76
Q

POP most common adverse affect is…?

A

Irregular vaginal bleeding

77
Q

Woman aged > 30 years with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, enlarged, boggy uterus → ?

A

Adenomyosis

78
Q

Management of chicken pox in pregnancy:

A
  1. Check antibody levels
  2. If antibody levels low give IVIg
  3. If after 20 weeks and symptomatic with a vesicular rash give oral aciclovir.
79
Q

How does hypo/hyperthyroidism affect the mensutrual cycle?

A

Hyperthyroidism is associated with oligomennorhoea, or amennorhoea.

Hypothyroidism is associated with menorrhagia.

80
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

They cause foetal abnormalities and renal failure.

81
Q

When should resus neg women be given anti D?

A

Rhesus negative woman - give anti-D at 28 and 34 weeks.

82
Q

How does vasa praevia present?

A

The classic triad of vasa praevia is rupture of membranes followed by painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia. Unlike placenta praevia, vasa praevia carries no major maternal risk but fetal mortality rates are significant. The two conditions may be difficult to distinguish in acute clinical situations, but for examination purposes a preceding rupture of membranes will usually be emphasised. Although ultrasound scans can detect vasa praevia, many cases are undetectable antenatally.

83
Q

Lithium in pregnancy causes what?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly in baby

84
Q

Why to avoid COCP for first 21 days post partum for contraception?

A

Pro thrombotic state

85
Q

Skim IUD post partum

A

While an intrauterine device can be fitted during a caesarean section (ideally within 10 minutes of the passage of the placenta), once the wound is closed it is advised to wait 4-6 weeks post-partum before having it inserted vaginally.

86
Q

Skim IUD post partum

A

While an intrauterine device can be fitted during a caesarean section (ideally within 10 minutes of the passage of the placenta), once the wound is closed it is advised to wait 4-6 weeks post-partum before having it inserted vaginally.

87
Q

Bleeding in the first trimester: do what investgiation?

A

Bleeding in the first trimester: a transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation