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MYCO-VIRO > PARVO, PAPOVA, ADENO > Flashcards

PARVO, PAPOVA, ADENO Flashcards

1
Q

Who discovered Parvovirus in 1970s?

A

Yvonne Cossart

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2
Q

Etymology of parvovirus came from ____________ word?

A

Latin

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3
Q

Name origin of the parvovirus that means small?

A

parvum

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4
Q

State the whole structure of parvovirus.

A

DNA, Single-stranded, Naked, Icosahedral, Linear

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5
Q

What is the host range of a parvovirus?

is it animals or humans (and what kind)

A

warm-blood animals

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6
Q

What is the single human pathogen among the Parvoviridae?

A

Parvovirus B-19

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7
Q

What and where is the replication site of Parvovirus in adults?

A

erythroid progenitor cells in bone marrow

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8
Q

What and where is the replication site of Parvovirus in a fetus?

A

erythroid progenitor cells in liver cells

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9
Q

What are the associated diseases of Parvovirus?

A

Fifth Disease, Aplastic Crisis, Fetal Infection

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10
Q

Arrange the process from 1 as the beginning to 7 as the end:

Capsid Protein Synthesis
Release
Early Transcription and Translation
Attachment
Maturation
DNA Replication
Penetration and Uncoating

A

1 - Attachment
2 - Penetration and Uncoating
3 - Early Transcription and Translation
4 - DNA Replication
5 - Capsid Protein Synthesis
6 - Maturation
7 - Release

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11
Q

Which of the following is the smallest animal virus?

a. Parvovirus
b. PaPoVa virus
c. Adenovirus

A

a. Parvovirus

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12
Q

What is the term used for a virus that only causes disease in animals?

A

epizootic

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13
Q

What is synthesized in late transcription in the Viral Replication of Parvovirus?

A

capsid proteins

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14
Q

What is synthesized in early transcription and translation in the Viral Replication of Parvovirus?

A

enzymes

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15
Q

What is the causative agent of the condition with slapped cheeks as a characteristic?

A

Parvovirus B-19

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16
Q

A condition that affects the endothelial cells and has a skin rash.

A

Fifth Disease

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17
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission for parvovirus?

A

inhalation (respiratory route)

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18
Q

What is the other term for the Fifth Disease?

A

Erythema infectiosum

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19
Q

A type of anemia where the RBC does not reach 120 days as it starts to hemolyze.

A

sickle cell anemia or hemolytic anemia

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19
Q

A manifestation of a patient with a Fifth Disease having sickle cell anemia.

A

Aplastic Crisis

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20
Q

What are the two complications caused by the Fifth Disease?

A

Hydrops fetalis (hemolytic disease of newborns) and Miscarriages

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21
Q

Site the four (4) modes of transmission of Parvovirus.

A
  1. respiratory route (inhalation via droplets)
  2. blood products (transfusion)
  3. factor VIII and IX concentrates
  4. transplacental
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22
Q

What do you call a transmission of a virus from mother to baby?

A

vertical or transplacental transmission

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23
Q

What are the characteristics of Fifth Disease?

A
  1. Slapped cheek
  2. Arthralgia (muscle pains)
  3. rash on extremities
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24
Q

Two kinds of replication if a parvovirus enters the respiratory tract.

A
  1. Viral replication
  2. Local replication
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25
Q

Where is the passage of the virus in the Local replication of Parvovirus?

A

lungs to blood

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26
Q

An immunocompetent host for Parvovirus that undergoes viral replication in the erythroid precursor cell in the bone marrow.

A

normal host

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27
Q

An immunocompromised host for Parvovirus that undergoes viral replication in the erythroid precursor cell in the bone marrow.

A

Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

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28
Q

Normal host OR Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

slight drop in hemoglobin level

A

normal host

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29
Q

Normal host OR Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

life-threatening aplastic crise

A

Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

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30
Q

Normal host OR Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

viral replication in erythroid precursor cell

A

both

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31
Q

Normal host OR Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

mild anemia

A

normal host

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32
Q

Normal host OR Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

easy fatigability and general body weakness

A

Host with chronic hemolytic anemia

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33
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

fever, malaise, myalgia, chills

A

FIRST

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34
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

rash and arthralgia

A

SECOND

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35
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

occurs after the virus has disappeard from the bloodstream

A

SECOND

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35
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

corresponds to peak viral levels an destruction of erythroblasts

A

FIRST

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36
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

mistaken for nonspecific viral illness

A

FIRST

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37
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

rash is due to immune complex deposition in the capillaries

A

SECOND

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37
Q

Laboratory diagnosis for Parvovirus is accomplished using parvovirus-specific IgM or virus-specific IgG antibody testing with paired ________ and ____________ sera.

A

acute and convalescent

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38
Q

What is the antibody that appear after 7 days post infection of Parvovirus as an immune response?

A

IgM antibodies

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38
Q

What is the antibody that appear after 14 days post infection of Parvovirus as an immune response?

A

IgG antibodies

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39
Q

The procedure used for detecting the viral DNA of Parvovirus.

A

PCR

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39
Q

True or False:

Parvovirus cannot be cultivated in the typical cells available in clinical virology laboratories.

A

TRUE

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39
Q

Incubation period of Parvovirus

A

1 to 2 weeks (usual)

may extend up to 3 weeks

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40
Q

Most common individual affected by Fifth disease.

A

children of early school age

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40
Q

Term used for the way how viruses spread — to target organs using the bloodstream.

A

hematogenous spread

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40
Q

What serves as the entry and exit point for Parvovirus?

A

respiratory virus

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41
Q

True or False:

There are already symptoms during incubation period of Parvovirus.

A

FALSE

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41
Q

FIRST OR SECOND PHASE (Biphasic Illness - PARVO)

coincides with viremia, reticulocytopenia,and detection of IgM parvovirus immune complexes

A

FIRST

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42
Q

MATCH COLUMN A TO COLUMN B

Column A
* Days 0-6
* Days 6-5
* Days 8-12
* Days 10-12
* Days 10-12

Column B
* Rising IgG levels, rash, and arthralgia may appear as the disease progresses.
* Peak symptoms and potential aplastic crisis
* Incubation period with no symptoms
* Rising IgM levels as the body respond to infection
* Onset of viremia and early symptoms

A

Days 0-6: Incubation period with no symptoms
Days 6-8: Onset of viremia and early symptoms
Days 8-12: Peak symptoms and potential aplastic crisis
Days 10-12: Rising IgM levels as the body respond to infection
Day 16 and beyond: Rising IgG levels, rash, and arthralgia may appear as the disease progresses.

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42
Q

Onset of the Parvovirus

A

approx. 1 week after infection

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43
Q

How long will a Parvovirus persists in humans?

A

5 days

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44
Q

True or False

A rash of a patient with Fifth Disease has a lacy pattern on extremities seen on the first phase of the illness.

A

FALSE

seen on Second Phase

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45
Q

In the occurence of Hemolytic Disease of Newborn, an infected pregnanct women may experience ________________ or ________________ in the infant.

A

miscarriage and severe anemia

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46
Q

Site the 3 virus included in PaPoVa Viruses.

A

Papilloma viruses
Polyomavirus
Vacuolating (Simian virus 40, SV40)

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46
Q

In PCR testing for Parvovirus, this sample is used for diagnosing current infection.

A

blood

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46
Q

What is the best method for treating patients that has parvovirus?

A

Accurate diagnosis and Supportive care

- antibiotics are not effective

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46
Q

In serologic test for Parvovirus, theIgG Antibodies appear about 15 days post-infection and confirm past infection or ____________.

A

immunization

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46
Q

In serologic test for Parvovirus, the presence of parvovirus-specific IgM antibodies indicates an ________________.

A

acute infection

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46
Q

In PCR testing for Parvovirus, this sample is used for diagnosing fetal infection.

A

amniotic fluid

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47
Q

The symptoms of parvovirus mimic ____________, and the arthropathy may persist for weeks, months, or year.

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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47
Q

What do you call the family name of the causative agent of erythema infectiosum?

A

Parvoviridae

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48
Q

What are the three (3) methods of detection for Parvoviruses?

A
  1. Serology
  2. PCR
  3. Histology
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49
Q

What is the genome sizes of Polyomavirus and Papillomavirus?

A

Polyomavirus = 5kbp
Papillomavirus = 8kbp

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50
Q

In Replication and Transcription of PaPoVaVirus, what is the first identified structure?

A

transcriptional enhancers

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51
Q

In Replication and Transcription of PaPoVaVirus, what are they using for genome replication?

A

host cell DNA polymerase

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52
Q

A virus that contains 72 capsomeres and 2 capsid proteins.

A

Papillomavirus

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52
Q

What do you call the major and minor protein of Papillomavirus?

A

L1 gene (major)
L2 gene (minor

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53
Q

Complete the content:

Common warts (aka ____________)
Location: fingers and ________
Appearance: ___________

A

verrucae vulgaris
face
elevated lesions

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53
Q

State the whole structure of Papillomavirus.

A

dsDNA, icosahedral, naked, circular

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54
Q

What is the diagnostic feature of Papillomavirus?

A

tropism of squamous epithelial cells

55
Q

Complete the content:

____________ warts (aka Verrucae plantaris)
Location: ________________
Appearance: elevated or flat lesions

A

Plantar
soles of feet

55
Q

Complete the content:

Flat warts (aka Verrucae ________________)
Location: fingers, toes, and ________________
Appearance: ________________

A

plana
face
flat lesions

56
Q

What is the manifestation of Papillomavirus in the skin?

A

warts

57
Q

Which of the following is not the shared similarities of Papillomavirus and Polyomavirus?

a. morphology
b. genome biology
c. nucleic acid composition
d. transforming capabilities

A

b. genome biology

58
Q

What is the mode of transmission for Papillomavirus?

A

close contact

59
Q

Where can you find the viral nucleic acid of the Papillomavirus?

A

basal stem cells

60
Q

Where can you find the late gene expression (capsid protein) of the Papillomavirus?

A

restricted to the uppermost layer of differentiated keratinocytes

61
Q

What is the specific causative agent of cervical cancer?

A

HPV 16 and HPV 18

62
Q

Term that allows infection of proliferating basal layer cells at other sites or within different hosts in Papillomavirus.

A

Microabrasion

63
Q

What is the specific causative agent of ano-genital warts?

A

HPV 6 and HPV 11

64
Q

What is the most common type of cervical cancer linked to HPV?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

65
Q

A screening test that can detect early stage of cervical cancer?

A

Pap smear

65
Q

What is the other term used for anogenital warts?

A

condylomata acuminata

66
Q

A cervical examination that visually inspect the cervix and obtain samples for testing.

A

Speculum examination

66
Q

In what stage of Cervical Cancer where symptoms are mistaken for urinary tract infection?

A

Stage II

67
Q

True or False

HPV vaccination is given to both males and females to prevent HPV infections that lead to cervical cancer.

A

TRUE

68
Q

Term used for the patient position - lying on
the back with legs elevated and spread.

A

Lithotomy position

69
Q

Which part of cervix where early stages of Cervical cancer is manifested?

A

exocervix

70
Q

Which part of cervix where late stages of Cervical cancer is manifested?

A

endocervix

71
Q

HPV Types associated with Plantar and Common Warts

A

HPV 1
HPV 2
HPV 4

72
Q

HPV Types associated with Anogenital Warts and Respiratory Papillomas

A

HPV 6
HPV 11

73
Q

An effective treatment method for removing warts to prevent recurrence.

A

Electrocautery

73
Q

What are the methods to diagnose cervical cancer (tumors)?

A

Serology
PCR
Biopsy

74
Q

What method gives definitive diagnosis for Cervical Cancer?

A

Biopsy

75
Q

What method detects the presence of antibodies or antigens related to HPV infection?

A

Serology

76
Q

What method is highly sensitive in identifying HPV viral DNA in cervical cells?

A

PCR

77
Q

What method can detect abnormal cells that may indicate cervical cancer, even if no visible tumor is present?

A

Routine Pap Smear

78
Q

What treatment removes the uterus and possibly nearby structures to eliminate the cancerous tissues?

A

Hysterectomy

78
Q

What treatment removes the a cone-shaped section of the cervix to eliminate the cancerous tissues?

A

Conizatio Surgery

79
Q

A treatment that destroys abnormal cervical cells often used for pre-cancerous lesions or early-stage cancer.

A

Laser Therapy

80
Q

A treatment that uses extreme cold to freeze and destroys abnormal cervical cells often used for pre-cancerous lesions or early-stage cancer.

A

Cryosurgery

81
Q

Which of the following treatment is/are used for pre-cancerous lesions or early-stage cancer?

a. laser therapy
b. cryosurgery
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

81
Q

A topical treatment for genital warts, though less commonly used today.

A

Podophyllin

82
Q

A topical ointment used for wart treatment, not commonly used in modern practice.

A

Idoxuridine

83
Q

State the whole structure of Polyomavirus.

A

dsDNA, naked, icosahedral, circular

84
Q

Who isolated the murine polyomavirus in 1953?

A

Ludwig Gross

84
Q

In what animal does the murine polyomavirus was isolated?

A

mice

(leukemia in mice)

84
Q

What is the reason of naming the virus as polyomavirus?

A

solid tumors at multiple sites

85
Q

Who isolated BK Virus?

A

Gardner et al.

86
Q

What is the source of isolation of BKV?

A

urine of a patient after kidney
transplantation

87
Q

What is the primary disease caused by BKV?

A

Renal disease or kidney problem

87
Q

BKV symptoms can cause renal complications such as BKV ________ and may lead to mild ____________ disease in children.

A

nephropathy
respiratory

88
Q

Detection for BKV can be done through what methods?

A

Urine Testing
Biopsy
PCR

89
Q

Give the appropriate association

Human Polyomavirus 1: ____________
Human Polyomavirus 2: ____________

A

Human Polyomavirus 1: BK Virus
Human Polyomavirus 2: JC Virus

90
Q

Who isolated JC Virus?

A

Padget

91
Q

What is the source of isolation of JCV?

A

brain tissue

92
Q

What is the primary disease caused by JCV?

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)

92
Q

A disease characterized by demyelination and inflammation in the central nervous system (CNS)

A

JC Virus

92
Q

Target cells of JC Virus

A

oligodendrocytes

93
Q

Detection for JCV can be done through what methods?

A

MRI
Lumbar puncture in CSF analysis
Biopsy

94
Q

Which of the following is not a progressive symptom of JCV?
a. cognitive decline
b. motor dysfunction
c. respiratory disease
d. visial disturbance

A

c. respiratory disease

- it is a BKV symptom

95
Q

What is the mode of transmission of polyomaviruses?

A

inhalation of aerosolized particles

96
Q

PATHOGENESIS OF POLYOMAVIRUS: Fill in the blanks.

Primary Viremia: The virus enters the ____________.
Secondary Viremia: The virus multiplies in the ____________.

A

bloodstream
kidneys

97
Q

In immunocompetent individuals, Polyomavirus is ____________ indefinitely in kidney.

A

latent

98
Q

Replication of polyomaviruses occurs in ____________.

A

respiratory tract

OR oral, GI tract, upper respiratory tract

99
Q

In immunocompromised patients, BKV multiplies in ______________.

A

urinary tract

100
Q

True or False

In the pathogenesis of polyomavirus, the virus of immunocompromised patients undergo multiplication and reactivation after primary and secondary viremia.

A

TRUE

101
Q

What are the two symptoms present after the replication of BKV in urinary tract?

A

viruria
hemorrhagic cystitis

101
Q

Detection of viruria (caused by Human Polyomavirus 1) can be done through __________.

A

RT-PCR

102
Q

Reactivation of JC virus results in disease affecting __________.

A

central nervous system

103
Q

Who isolated SV-40 virus in 1960s?

A

Sweet and Hilleman

103
Q

A virus that is ubiquitous (found everywhere) in humans but not associated with any disease.

A

Simian Vacuolating - 40 Virus

104
Q

What is the source of isolation of SV-40 virus?

A

monkey kidney cell cultures

- used to grow the Sabin OPV caccine

105
Q

State the whole structure of Adenovirus.

A

dsDNA, naked, icosahedral, linear

106
Q

Etymology of adenovirus came from ____________ word?

A

Greek

107
Q

Name origin of the adenovirus that means gland?

A

adenas

108
Q

It facilitates the binding of the adenovirus capsid to the host cells

A

protruding fibers

109
Q

A group-specific antigen of all human adenoviruses

A

Cross-reactive protein - Hexon

110
Q

What is the source of isolation of adenovirus?

A

human adenoid tissues

*isolated in 1935

111
Q

How many serotypes of human adenoviruses are currently described?

A

85

52 to 85 are defined as genotypes

112
Q

What is the genus name of all human serotypes of adenoviruses?

A

Mastadenovirus

113
Q

The latent infection of adenovirus occurs in ________ and ________.

A

tonsils and adenoids

*no active infection during latent phase

114
Q

Outbreaks of adenovirus commonly occurs in what places?

A

military recruit or camps

115
Q

What are the 3 modes of transmission of adenovirus?

A
  1. direct contact
  2. respiratory droplets
  3. fecal or oral route
116
Q

Common infection and replication sites of adenovirus.

A

*specifically in the epithelial cells of pharynx, conjuctiva, small intestines, adn urinary bladder

eye, upper and lower respiratory, gastrointestinal tract, lymph nodes

117
Q

True or False

In immunocompromised patients, the spread of Adenovirus ends in lymph nodes.

A

FALSE

118
Q

Adenovirus enters the bloodstream (viremia) after infecting __________.

A

lymph nnodes

118
Q

What is the correct spread of adenovirus?
a. eye - lungs - GIT - lymph nodes
b. lungs - GIT - lymph nodes
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

119
Q

What is causative agent of viral conjuctivitis?

A

Adenovirus

120
Q

Specific Adenovirus serotypes of Acute Respiratory Disease

A

Serotypes 3, 4, 7, 21

121
Q

Specific Adenovirus serotypes of Epidemic Keratoconjunctivitis

A

Serotypes 8 and 19

122
Q

Most commonly affected of disease caused by adenovirus

A

infant, children, and immunocompromised patients

123
Q

Specific Adenovirus serotypes of Infantile Gastroenteritis

A

Serotypes 40 and 41

123
Q

What type of adenovirus current emerged causing a new, unusually severe lower respiratory tract that affects healthy individuals of all ages in several areas of the United States?

A

Adenovirus Type 14

124
Q

Specific Adenovirus serotypes linked to small outbreaks of gastroenteritis

A

Adenovirus A
Serotypes 12, 18, 31, and 16

125
Q

Adenoviruses can cause severe, acute respiratory disease epidemics in military recruits that often result in significant ____________ and ____________.

A

morbidity and mortality

125
Q

Specific Adenovirus serotypes of Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

Serotypes 11 and 21

125
Q

Specific serotypes of adenovirus that has highly effective vaccines for infected military recruits.

A

Serotypes 4 and 7

126
Q

Vaccines for military recruits epidemic was administered from ____ to ____.

A

1971 to 1996

*administered to military personnel aged 17 to 50

127
Q

Detection methods for Adenovirus

A

respiratory secretions or stools using cell culture
direct detection thru EM, ELISA, and PCR

128
Q

Specific Epithelial cell Lines used for Culturing of Adenovirus

A

A-549
HEp-2
KB
HeLa
HEK (Human Embryonic Kidney)
PMKC (Primary Monkey Kidney Cells)

129
Q

Growth time for cell culture of Adenovirus

A

2 to 5 days after inoculation

130
Q

In electron microscopy, how is adenovirus particles are detected?

A

direct examination of fecal extracts

131
Q

How is ELISA used for detecting Adenovirus?

A

detects adenoviral antigents

132
Q

How is PCR used for detecting Adenovirus?

A

detects adenoviral nucleic acids

*found in tissues or body fluis

133
Q

The adenovirus in cell culture exhibits what diagnostic feature?

A

grape-like structure

134
Q

True or False

Fecal extracts used in detection for Adenovirus does not produced specific detection.

A

TRUE

More Specific Detection
*For throat, conjunctival swabs, or urine samples,
use ELISA, PCR, or cell culture for more specific
results.

135
Q

What is the confirmatory Follow up test for Adenovirus?

A

Indirect Fluorescent Antibody (IFA) technique
Enzyme Immunoassay

136
Q

Respiratory Adenovirus Disease affecting infants and yound children

A
  1. Febrile, undifferentiated upper respiratory tract infection
  2. Pertussis-like syndrome
137
Q

Adenovirus Disease affecting any age and renal transplant recipients

A

epidemic keratoconjuctivitis

137
Q

Respiratory Adenovirus Disease affecting military recruits

A

Acute respiratory disease

137
Q

Adenovirus Disease affecting Children and bone marrow transplant recipients

A
137
Q

Respiratory Adenovirus Disease affecting children and adults

A

Pharyngoconjunctival fever

138
Q

Respiratory Adenovirus Disease affecting infants, young children, and miltary recruits

A

Pneumonia

139
Q

Adenovirus Disease affecting liver transplant recipients and other immunocompromised patients

A

hepatitis

140
Q

Adenovirus Disease affecting Infants, young children

A

gastroenteritis

141
Q

Adenovirus Disease affecting Children and Immunocompromised patients

A

meningoencephalitis

MYCO-VIRO (1 decks)

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