Part_10 Flashcards
Question 1
Which option must be used to support a WLC with an IPv6 management address and 100 Cisco Aironet 2800 Series access points that will use DHCP to register?
A. 43
B. 52
C. 60
D. 82
Answer:B
Explanation
The CAPWAP protocol allows a lightweight access point (AP) to use DHCP to discover a wireless controller to which it is connected to. Cisco lightweight APs running 8.0 and above support DHCP discovery for both IPv4 and IPv6 networks:
+ IPv4 – Cisco lightweight APs implement DHCP option 43 to supply the IPv4 management interface addresses of the primary, secondary, and tertiary wireless controllers (see the guide).
+ IPv6 – Cisco lightweight APs implementDHCPv6 option 52(RFC 5417) to supply the IPv6 management interface addresses of the primary, secondary, and tertiary wireless controllers.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/8-0/IPV6_DG.html
This question asks about DHCPv6, not DHCPv4 so Option 52 is the best answer.
Question 5
In which two ways does the routing protocol OSPF differ from EIGRP? (Choose two)
A. OSPF supports only equal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing
B. OSPF supports an unlimited number of hops. EIGRP supports a maximum of 255 hops
C. OSPF is distance vector protocol. EIGRP is a link-state protocol
D. OSPF provides shorter convergence time than EIGRP
E. OSPF supports unequal-cost load balancing. EIGRP supports only equal-cost load balancing
Answer:A B
Explanation
EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing via “variance” command -> Answer A is correct while answer E is not correct.
Answer C is not correct obviously.
The maximum number of hops that EIGRP will accept is 100 by default, the maximum can be configured to 225 with metric maximum hops -> Answer B is correct.
Reference:https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/cisco-ios-in/0596008694/re597.html
The network convergence time is faster than OSPF networks, because EIGRP network can learn the topology information and updates more rapidly -> Answer D is not correct.
Reference:https://scialert.net/fulltext/?doi=aujcs.2014.1.8
Question 6
A customer wants to connect a device to an autonomous Cisco AP configured as a WGB. The WGB is configured property; however, it fails to associate to a CAPWAP-enabled AP. Which change must be applied in the advanced WLAN settings to resolve this issue?
A. Disable FlexConnect local switching
B. Enable Aironet IE
C. Disable AAA override
D. Enable passive client
Answer:B
Explanation
Step 6. Ensure that the WLAN has Aironet IE enable, otherwise WGB wont be able to
associate.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/service-set-identifier-ssid/211293-Configure-Work-Group-Bridge-WGB-Multip.html
Question 7
A customer deploys a new wireless network to perform location-based services using Cisco DNA Spaces. The customer has a single WLC located on-premises in a secure data center. The security team does not want to expose the WLC to the public Internet. Which solution allows the customer to securely send RSSI updates to Cisco DNA Spaces?
A. Replace the WLC with a cloud-based controller
B. Deploy a Cisco DNA Spaces connector as a VM
C. Implement Cisco Mobility Services Engine
D. Perform tethering with Cisco DNA Center
Answer:B
Explanation
Deploying the Cisco DNA Spaces: Connector OVA
This deployment is recommended when most of the devices that are managed by the Connector are on private or internal networks.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/cisco-dna-spaces/connector/config/b_connector/m_ova.html
Note:
Cisco DNA Spaces: Detect and Locate maintains a device eviction time of 10 minutes. As long as you receive updates (RSSI, AOA, Info, Stats) from the controller, the device is kept active and is displayed on the dashboard. If updates (RSSI, AOA, Info, Stats) are not received for a particular device within this eviction time, the device is removed from the system.
Question 9
By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 32 use?
A. 05:5e:5c:ac:0c:32
B. 00:00:0c:07:ac:20
C. 00:5e:0c:07:ac:20
D. 04:19:20:96:7e:32
Answer:B
Question 11
In Cisco DNA Center, what is the integration API?
A. southbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management
B. westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data to be used by ITSM, IPAM and reporting
C. an interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management
D. northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management
Answer:B
Explanation
+Westbound(Integration) APIs: provide the capability to publish the network data,
events and notifications to the external systems and consume information in Cisco DNA Center from the connected systems. Through integration APIs, Cisco DNA Center platform can power end-to-end IT processes across the value chain by integrating various domains such as IT Service Management (ITSM), IP address management (IPAM), and reporting. By leveraging the REST-based Integration Adapter APIs, bi-directional interfaces can be built to allow the exchange of contextual information between Cisco DNA Center and the external, third-party IT systems.
Question 12
Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?
A. provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration
B. performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks
C. used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches
D. in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node
Answer:C
Explanation
SD-Access Extended nodes – Switch operating in Layer2 mode connected to a Fabric Edge device
Reference:https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKCRS-2817.pdf
Question 13
An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, which virtual IP address must be used in this configuration?
A. 1.1.1.1
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 192.0.2.1
D. 172.20.10.1
Answer:C
Question 15
An engineer must configure an EXEC authorization list that first checks a AAA server then a local username. If both methods fail, the user is denied. Which configuration should be applied?
A. aaa authorization exec default local group tacacs+
B. aaa authorization exec default local group radius none
C. aaa authorization exec default group radius local none
D. aaa authorization exec default group radius local
Answer:D
Explanation
AAA server can be RADIUS or TACACS+ server so we can use either of them.
Note: “none” means no authorization is required.
Question 17
What is one characteristic of VXLAN?
A. It supports a maximum of 4096 VLANs.
B. It supports multitenant segments.
C. It uses STP to prevent loops in the underlay network.
D. It uses the Layer 2 header to transfer packets through the network underlay.
Answer:B
Explanation
VXLAN has a 24-bit VXLAN network identifier (VNI), which allows for up to 16 million (= 224) VXLAN segments to coexist within the same infrastructure -> Answer A is not correct.
VXLAN does not use STP to prevent loops. It uses Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) links for load sharing and near-instant failure recovery -> Answer C is not correct.
VXLAN offers the following benefits:
VLAN flexibility inmultitenant segments: It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over the underlying network infrastructure so that tenant workload can be placed across physical pods in the data center.
VXLAN uses Layer 3, not Layer 2 header to transfer packets through the underlay -> Answer D is not correct.
Reference:https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2999385&seqNum=3
Question 18
What is one benefit of adopting a data modeling language?
A. augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models
B. refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations
C. augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions
D. deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices
Answer:B
Question 23
An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?
A. WPA2 Personal
B. WPA3 Enterprise
C. WPA3 Personal
D. WPA2 Enterprise
Answer:C
Question 26
A customer has a wireless network deployed within a multi-tenant building. The network provides client access, location-based services, and is monitored using Cisco DNA Center. The security department wants to locate and track malicious devices based on threat signatures. Which feature is required for this solution?
A. Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center
B. Cisco aWIPS policies on the WLC
C. malicious rogue rules on Cisco DNA Center
D. malicious rogue rules on the WLC
Answer:A
Explanation
The Cisco Advanced Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (aWIPS) is a wireless intrusion threat detection and mitigation mechanism. The aWIPS uses an advanced approach to wireless threat detection and performance management. The AP detects threats and generates alarms. It combines network traffic analysis, network device and topology information, signature-based techniques, and anomaly detection to deliver highly accurate and complete wireless threat prevention.
Because the aWIPS functionality is integrated into Cisco DNA Center, the aWIPS can configure and monitor WIPS policies and alarms and report threats.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/9800/17-1/config-guide/b_wl_17_11_cg/b_wl_17_11_cg_chapter_010001100.html
Question 28
In a Cisco SD-Access wireless environment, which device is responsible for hosting the anycast gateway?
A. fabric border node
B. fusion router
C. fabric edge node
D. control plane node
Answer:C
Explanation
Edge Node provides first-hop services for Users / Devices connected to a Fabric
…
+ Provide an Anycast L3 Gateway for the connected Endpoints (same IP address on all Edge nodes)
Reference:https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKCRS-2810.pdf
Question 37
Where in Cisco DNA Center is documentation of each API call, organized by its functional area?
A. Developer Toolkit
B. platform management
C. platform bundles
D. Runtime Dashboard
Answer:A
Explanation
About Developer Toolkit
The Cisco DNA Center platform provides you with the following software developer tools to access and program with Cisco DNA Center, as well as to integrate Cisco DNA Center with other applications:
APIs: Available APIs organized within categories by functionality (for example, Operational Tasks or Site Management APIs).
The Cisco DNA Center GUI displays documentation about each API call, including the request method and URL, query parameters, request header parameters, responses, and schema, and ways to preview or test the request.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center-platform/2-1-2-0/user_guide/b_dnac_platform_ug_2_1_2/b_dnac_platform_ug_2_1_1_chapter_0111.html
Question 39
What does a YANG model provide?
A. standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols
B. creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS
C. user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify
network configurations
D. standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONF or RESTCONF transport protocol
Answer:A
Explanation
YANG (Yet Another Next Generation) is protocol independent, and YANG data models can be usedindependent of the transportor RPC protocol and can be converted into any encoding format supported by the network configuration protocol.
Reference:https://www.juniper.net/documentation/us/en/software/junos/netconf/topics/concept/netconf-yang-overview.html
Currently YANG can be used by NETCONF, RESTCONF and gRPC.
Question 40
A network engineer must configure a switch to allow remote access for all feasible protocols. Only a password must be requested for device authentication and all idle sessions must be terminated in 30 minutes. Which configuration must be applied?
A. line vty 0 15 password cisco transport input all exec-timeout 0 30
B. line console 0 password cisco exec-timeout 30 0
C. line vty 0 15 password cisco transport input telnet ssh exec-timeout 30 0
D. username cisco privilege 15 cisco line vty 0 15 transport input telnet ssh login local exec-timeout 0 30
Answer:C
Explanation
The “exec-timeout” command is used to configure the inactive session timeout on the console port or the virtual terminal. The syntax of this command is:
exec-timeoutminutes[seconds]
Therefore we need to use the “exec-timeout 30 0” command to set the user inactivity timer to 30 minutes.
Question 42
What is the recommended minimum SNR for voice applications on wireless networks?
A. 10
B. 25
C. 15
D. 20
Answer:B
Question 44
Which free application has the ability to make REST cans against Cisco DNA Center?
A. API Explorer
B. REST Explorer
C. Postman
D. Mozilla
Answer:C
Question 45
If AP power level is increased from 25 mW to 100 mW, what is the power difference in dBm?
A. 6 dBm
B. 14 dBm
C. 17 dBm
D. 20 dBm
Answer:A
Explanation
3 dB of gain =+3 dB = doubles signal strength(Let’s say, the base is P. So 10log10(P/P)= 0 dB and 10log10(2P/P) = 10*log10(2) = 3dB -> double signal)
Question 46
When does a Cisco StackWise primary switch lose its role?
A. when the priority value of a stack member is changed to a higher value
B. when a switch with a higher priority is added to the stack
C. when the stack primary is reset
D. when a stack member fails
Answer:C
Explanation
The new priority value takes effect immediately but does not affect the current active switch. The new priority value helps determine which stack member is elected as the new active switch when thecurrent active switch or the switch stack resets-> Answer A is not correct while answer C is correct.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9300/software/release/16-5/configuration_guide/stck_mgr_ha/b_165_stck_mgr_ha_9300_cg/managing_switch_stacks.html
Question 47
Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI?
A. provisioning a wireless LAN controller
B. creating a configuration template
C. upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software
D. graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center
Answer:D
Explanation
The Cisco DNA Center GUI can creates a configuration template by clicking on Menu icon and choose Tools > Template Editor -> Answer B is not correct.
The Cisco DNA Center GUI can also upgrade the Cisco DNA Center software by clicking the menu icon and choose System > Software Updates -> Answer C is not correct.
Between the two answers left, answer D is the best choice. We can shutdown the DNA Center with the “sudo shutdown -h now” command.
Question 48
Which record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?
A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain
Answer:D
Explanation
The AP will attempt to resolve the DNS name CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain. When the AP is able to resolve this name to one or more IP addresses, the AP sends a unicast CAPWAP Discovery Message to the resolved IP address(es). Each WLC that receives the CAPWAP Discovery Request Message replies with a unicast CAPWAP Discovery Response to the AP.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/107606-dns-wlc-config.html
Question 49
Which NTP mode must be activated when using a Cisco router as an NTP authoritative server?
A. primary
B. server
C. broadcast client
D. peer
Answer:B
Explanation
Cisco routers and switches can use 3 different NTP modes:
NTP client mode.
NTP server mode.
NTP symmetric active mode.
The symmetric active mode is used between NTP devices to synchronize with each other, it’s used as a backup mechanism when they are unable to reach the (external) NTP server.
The NTP server can operate in master mode to serve time using the local clock, when it has lost synchronization.
Question 51
Which signal strength and noise values meet the minimum SNR for voice networks?
A. signal strength -67 dBm, noise 91 dBm
B. signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm
C. signal strength -68 dBm, noise 89 dBm
D. signal strength -66 dBm, noise 90 dBm
Answer:B
Explanation
The recommended minimum SNR for voice applications on wireless networks is25dB. The noise should be in negative number so if the question says “noise 91 dBm” we should understand: N = -91 dBm.
If your SNR measurements are already in decibel form, then you can subtract the noise quantity from the desired signal: SNR = S – N. This is because when you subtract logarithms, it is the equivalent of dividing normal numbers. Also, the difference in the numbers equals the SNR. In this question, only “signal strength -69 dBm, noise 94 dBm” has SNR = -69 – (-94) = 25dB which is equal to the recommended minimum SNR for voice applications.
Question 52
An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?
A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor
Answer:D
Explanation
The command “terminal monitor” helps logging messages appear on the your current terminal session.
Question 53
An engineer is configuring RADIUS-Based Authentication with EAP. MS-CHAPv2 is configured on a client device. Which outer method protocol must be configured on the ISE to support this authentication type?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. LDAP
D. PEAP
Answer:D
Explanation
You can use PEAP-EAP-MSCHAPv2 which use a certificate on the authentication server (NPS) and a password for clients. You can use PEAP-EAP-TLS which use a certificate on the authentication server and a certificate on the client.
Reference:https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/Lync/en-US/7962d24d-7aa2-4413-97da-4f03793f2405/very-confused-on-authenciation-concepts-eap-peap-eapmschapv2-?forum=winserversecurity
Question 58
Which technology reduces the implementation of STP and leverages both unicast and multicast?
A. VPC
B. VXLAN
C. VSS
D. VLAN
Answer:C
Explanation
A VSS combines a pair of switches into a single network element -> It reduces STP.
For Layer 3 multicast in the VSS, learned multicast routes are stored in hardware in the standby supervisor engine. After a switchover, multicast forwarding continues, using the existing hardware entries.
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/15-4SY/config_guide/sup6T/15_3_sy_swcg_6T/virtual_switching_systems.pdf
VXLAN solved Layer 2 STP limitations. VXLAN packets are transferred through the underlying network based on its Layer 3 header and can take complete advantage of Layer 3 routing, equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing, and link aggregation protocols to use all available paths.
VXLAN uses Layer 3 routing so it also supports multicast. Therefore in fact we have two correct answers in this question.
Question 59
Which application has the ability to make REST calls against Cisco DNA Center?
A. API Explorer
B. Postman
C. REST Explorer
D. Mozilla
Answer:B
Question 61
A company recently decided to use RESTCONF instead of NETCONF and many of their NETCONF scripts contain the operation <edit-config>(operation=”create”). Which RESTCONF operation must be used to replace these statements?</edit-config>
A. CREATE
B. GET
C. PUT
D. POST
Answer:D
Explanation
POST: This method creates a data resource or invokes an operations resource.
Question 62
An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?
A. service password-encryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j
Answer:A
Explanation
Over-the-shoulder attack is a type of social engineering technique used to obtain information such as personal identification numbers (PINs), passwords and other confidential data by looking over the victim’s shoulder. We can protect the password by encrypting it.