part2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 questions you must ask before conducting decon

A
  • Can decon be conducted safely
  • Are existing resources adequate and if not -how can I get them
  • What agents
  • What is the weather
  • Terrain
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2
Q

What are some considerations within the weather considerations of decon

A
  • Is it really cold (below 36 degrees dry decon)
  • Do they have hypothermia
  • After dry decon move inside to wash with high-volume and LOW pressure
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3
Q

What is required respiratory protection for OSHA when facing unknown contamination

A

Positive pressure SCBA

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4
Q

What are the three types of decon, who gets each, and is speed a factor

A
  • Emergency – anybody – yes
  • Mass – victims – yes
  • Technical – responders – no
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5
Q

What is the most important consideration with regards to transfer/product removal

A

Appropriate equipment

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6
Q

What are you using for transfer on a 406,407, 412

A

PTO (Power Take-off Pump)

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7
Q

If you are using nitrogen or compressed air during transfer on a 431 or 438 what type of pressure transfer are you using

A

Compressed air

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8
Q

What are you using for transfer on a 431 or 438

A

Pressure Transfer

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9
Q

What are the 4 types of leaks in a 406,407 or 412

A
  • Dome Cover Leak
  • Irregular shaped hole
  • Puncture
  • Split or tear
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10
Q

What are the two things you must ensure when containing leak for 406,407,412

A

Use compatible equipment and control spilled product

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11
Q

What are the safety considerations for product transfer ops

A
  • Bonding
  • Grounding
  • Elimination of ignition sources
  • Shock hazards
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12
Q

What are the 3 methods of decon

A
  • Physical
  • Chemical
  • Prevention
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13
Q

What are the 3 types of decontaminants

A
  • Misc (commercial)
  • Natural
  • Military
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14
Q

UV light kills what and what does it not kill

A

Bioagents but not spores

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15
Q

Do you need to control runoff during emergency decon, mass, technical?

A

No, yes, yes

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16
Q

What resources are available to help you select the correct decon procedure

A

Manufacturer
Chemtrek
National Response center
Local and regional poison control

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17
Q

What are the major considerations when operating in a confined space environment

A
Oxygen level
	Toxicity/flammable
	Engulfment
	Slips/Trips
	Electrical Shock
	Structural
	Mechanical
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18
Q

What are the 4 types of 55 gal drum leak

A

Chime
Sidewall
Nail puncture
Forklift puncture

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19
Q

What are the 5 basic steps for the process of mass decon

A
Initial size up
	Victim control and triage
	Decontamination setup
	Mass Decon execution
	Post Decon
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20
Q

What is technical decon

A

Planned and systematic process of reducing contamination to ALARA

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21
Q

What are the atmospheric considerations in a confined environment

A

Oxygen levels

Toxicity/flammability

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22
Q

What are the 3 fundamental stages of decon

A

Primary (gross)
Secondary (residual)
Tertiary (PPE removal)

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23
Q

What are the safety considerations when installing a clamp

A
PPE
	Compatibility
	Monitor
	Eliminate ignition source
	Control Spilled product
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24
Q

What percent bleach do you use on personnel?

A

.5% (use 5% and dilute 10:1)

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25
Q

What are the methods of chemical decon

A
Adsorption
	Disinfecting 
	Degradation
	Nuetralization
	Solidification
	Sterilization
	Dilution
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26
Q

What is the most effective method of decon?

A

Washing

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27
Q

What are the methods of physical decon

A
Absorption
	Brushing/scraping
	Isolation and disposal
	Vacuuming
        Washing
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28
Q

What is the most important part of emergency decon

A

Speed

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29
Q

How should you separate victims

A

Symptomatic/Asymptomatic, male female, (take aside special needs and elderly), don’t separate families

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30
Q

In what manner should decontamination be set up and implemented

A

In a way which timely manner which is effective in saving lives, limiting injuries, and reducing the spread of contamination

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31
Q

When should a debrief take place, when should a critique

A
  • Up to LERP or SOP, although generally as soon as possible

- Still up to LERP or SOP but generally a few days after so the stress has subsided

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32
Q

3 Methods for overpacking a 55 gal drum and key words associated with them

A

Slip over - “over the top”
Slide-in – “V roll”
Rolling slide in - “rollers”

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33
Q

What are 3 methods useful in assessing the effectiveness of decon

A

Visual observation
Monitoring devices
Wipe Samples

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34
Q

What are the hazards to consider regarding leaks/spills in a confined environment?

A

Engulfment
Oxygen levels
Toxicity/Flammable

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35
Q

What is the first thing to do during a drum leak

A

Position leak above fluid level (turn it so the leak is highest)

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36
Q

Performing technical decon you should remove all contamination (true or false)

A

True (you SHOULD you just probably wont)

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37
Q

What is the key thing to remember for the test about evaporation

A

It does not work well on porous surfaces

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38
Q

Which sorption is physical and which chemical

A

Absorption is physical

Adsorption is chemical

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39
Q

What must be done when using dilution

A

Collect and dispose of run-off

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40
Q

What is the prime advantage and disadvantage to isolation and disposal

A
  • Eliminates the immediate threat to people, property, and the environment
  • Increased potential for cross-contamination
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41
Q

What is the difference between disingection and sterilization

A

Disinfection removes majority of pathogens, sterilization removes all

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42
Q

What is the only decon method used on personnel

A

Physical

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43
Q

What must a cbrn responder do with regards to decontamination

A

Do it as quickly as possible in order to save lives

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44
Q

What do you use to communicate with the victims during a hazmat event

A

Loud speaker or public address system (this is not a speakerphone)

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45
Q

What are some examples of adsorption materials

A

Activated charcoal, silica or aluminum gel, fuller earth or other clay

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46
Q

What are some examples of absorbents?

A

Soil, sand, and absorbent pillows

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47
Q

What is important during execution of mass decon execution

A

Proper positioning of fire apparatus and hose streams

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48
Q

What are the 3 components of a effective debriefing

A

Direction
Participation
Solution

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49
Q

How long does OSHA require exposure and medical records to be maintained

A

Till end of employment plus 30 years

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50
Q

Where does everything regading your actions on a site go

A

Activity log (da form 1594)

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51
Q

What is the most complex drum leak

A

Forklift puncture

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52
Q

What are the 3 types of leak from a pressure tank

A

Fusible plug
Valve
Sidewall

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53
Q

On what do you use a dome clamp (specialty clamp)

A

406, 407, 412 trucks domes

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54
Q

What are the 3 components of an effective critique

A

Direction
Participation
Solution (yes this is the same as debrief)

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55
Q

What documents should be prepared as a result of critique

A

Up to LERP/SOP
A written report
Site saftey plan
Written elements of plan of action

56
Q

Can we use tech decon for ambulatory and non ambulatory victims

A

Yes

57
Q

Are fatalities done on the same decon line as live victims

A

No

58
Q

What do you never do with bleach

A

Apply to the face

59
Q

The removal of clothing does what

A

Removes 50-80% of contamination

60
Q

What is the main limitation of disinfection

A

Does not completely remove microorganism

61
Q

Is evaporation of a flammable liquid spill an example of degradation

A

Yes (even though its not)

62
Q

What are the requirements for logs

A

SOP/LERP

63
Q

Who should be involved in a critique

A
  • LERP/SOP
  • 1 member from each agency
  • Individuals responsible for training, revising SOP and ERP, and resource acquisition
64
Q

Action options and response objectives at Technician level

A

(a) Offensive
(b) Defensive
(c) Nonintervention

65
Q

What are action options and response objectives based on

A

Stage of the incident

66
Q

The timing of intervention doesn’t matter. True or false

A

False the earlier the intervention the more acceptable the losses will be

67
Q

Decisions should focus on changing the actions of what

A

stressors, the containment system,

and the hazardous material

68
Q

List the sequences of an event

A
Stress 
Breach 
Release 
Engulf 
Contact 
Harm
69
Q

What is the response objective for Stress

A

Change Applied Stress

70
Q

How do you change breach size

A

Chill Contents
Limit Stress Levels
Activate Venting Devices
Mechanical Repair

71
Q

How do you change Change Quantity Release

A

Change container position
Minimize pressure differential
Cap off breach
Remove Contents

72
Q

How do you change Change Applied Stress

A

Move Stressor
Move Stressed system
Shield Stressed System

73
Q

What is the response objective for Contact

A

Change
Exposures
Contacted

74
Q

How do you change Change Exposures Contacted

A

Provide Sheltering
Begin Evacuation
Personal Protective Equipment

75
Q

What is the response objective for Engulf

A

Change
Size of
Danger Zone

76
Q

How do you change Change Severity Of Harm

A

Rinse Off Contaminant
Increase Distance From Source
Provide Shielding
Provide Prompt Medical Attention

77
Q

How do you change the danger zone

A
Barriers
Adsorbents
Absorbents 
Diluents 
Reactants
Overpack
78
Q

What is the response objective for Breach

A

Change

Breach Size

79
Q

NFPA 1991 deals with which level class

A

Level A, class 1, type

80
Q

What is the response objective for Harm

A

Change
Severity
Of Harm

81
Q

Which NFPA deals with level B or class 2 what else deals with level B

A

1994 (1992)

82
Q

Which NFPA deals with level B with CBRN option

A

1974

83
Q

Which NFPA deals with class 3 and class 4 (level C and Level)

A

1994

84
Q

What is the response objective for Release

A

Change Quantity Release

85
Q

What is the difference between class 3 and 4 ppe

A

Extra regulations for radioactivity and bio agents

86
Q

If I said you need the “highest level” of respiratory and skin protection I would be talking about

A

Level A, Class 1, or Type 1, Type 3

It would mean SCBA or SAR

87
Q

What are the conditions for level B

A

Highest level of respiratory protection but a LESSER level of skin protection

88
Q

In order to use level C what do you need to know

A

The concentration of all known contaminants and that there is at least 19.5% oxygen

89
Q

What are the exclusion zones at a hazmat incident

A

Hot Zone and Warm Zone

90
Q

What is PPE against thermal harm

A

Fire entry suits, NOMEX, proximity suits, specialized undergarments

91
Q

What is PPE against chemical harm

A

Tychem/Tyvex, promask, protective overgarment,

92
Q

What is PPE against radiological

A

lead apron

93
Q

When do you use level D

A

When there is only nuisance contamination and outside of exclusion zones

94
Q

What is PPE against mechanical harm (explosives

A

kevlar

95
Q

What is PPE against asphyxiating

A

SCBA, level A and B

96
Q

What is the minimum level of PPE against etiological harm

A

LEvel C

97
Q

What are some situations where you may find you cant judge if PPE is adequate

A

Chemicals that have not been tested against material
Mixtures of chemicals
Chemicals cant be identified
Extreme environments (hot temp)
Lack of data on all clothing components (seams visors, etc..)

98
Q

What is the key to respiratory protection

A

Clothing level (boils down to mask type but test will say this)

99
Q

How far is the line on an SAR

A

300 ft

100
Q

What must you wear with an SAR

A

emergency egress system

101
Q

Who provides the criteria for which conditions must meet to where APR

A

OSHA and EPA

102
Q

What are the items that must be considered in the process of selecting proper respiratory protection

A
Name
Concentration
Hazard
Expected Exposure
OSHA requirements (nobody can have everything OSHA)
103
Q

What is the minimum level of respiratory protection required for an unknown hazard

A

SCBA, (not level A)

104
Q

What are the two types of degradation

A

Chemical and Physical

105
Q

How should all pieces of equipment be used

A

According to manufacturer specifications

106
Q

What are indications of degradation

A

Stiffness or excess pliability
Tears, cuts, abrasions
Damage to zippers or closures
Soft sticky areas

107
Q

What are the NFPA 1991 standards for permeation. NFPA 1992 and 1994?

A

3 hrs

1 hr

108
Q

List the classification term for NFPA, EPA, and OSHA PPE

A

NFPA - class
EPA - Type
OSHA - Level

109
Q

What is type 3 PPE

A

level A but with SAR

110
Q

What are heat cramp symptoms

A

cramps
weakness
heavy perspiration

111
Q

What are heat exhaustion symptoms

A
excessive sweating, pale moist cool skin,
headache,weakness
dizziness, loss of appetite
cramping, nausea, urge to defecate
chills, rapid breathing, confusion
112
Q

What are heat Stroke symptoms

A

hot red skin, weakness, dizziness, confusion, headache, seizure, nausea, stomach pains, rapid weak pulse, unconsciousness

113
Q

What reduces anxiety from using PPE

A

practice

114
Q

What is blanketing

A

covering the contaminant inside or outside WITH FOAM to prevent it from spreading (can limit vaporization)

115
Q

What is covering

A

Actually putting a barrier on top of contaminatns

116
Q

What is the difference between damming and diking

A

Damming occurs in a waterway, diking on the ground

117
Q

What is the difference between damming/diking and diversion

A

Diversion redirects it doesn’t stop flow

118
Q

When is dispersion used and what does it do

A

On water, to disperse or break up the contaminant (does spread to larger area)

119
Q

List some things that should be in the incident action plan

A
Site map or sketch (inl CP and Control zones)
Entry obj
On scene organization
Hazard (evaluation and analysis)
PPE
work assignments
Communication procedures
Decon procedures
120
Q

If there is no possibility of saving lives then..

A

no risk to safety of team members is acceptable

121
Q

When are the two times you should give safety brief

A

Arrival to site and prior to HZ entry

122
Q

what are the five functions of the ICS

A

command, operations, finance, logistics, Operations, Planning

123
Q

What is the number of people a supervisor can effectively supervise? What is the optimal number

A

3-7, 5

124
Q

What is true about unified command

A

No agencys legal authority will be comprimised

125
Q

What is commander responsible for

A

delegation
takes direction from authorities
ensures safety
provides information to external and internal stakeholders
liaises with other agencies participating in incident

126
Q

Who are the command staff

A

Safety officer, public information officer, liaison officer

127
Q

What is the Finance/Admin section responsible for

A
Contract negotiating
Timekeeping
Cost analysis
Compensation for injury or damage
(basically money and time)
128
Q

What is the Logistics section responsible for

A

facilities, services, materials and support systems (beans, bullets and equipment)

129
Q

What is the Operations section responsible for

A

Execution (basically S3)

130
Q

What is the Planning section responsible for

A

intel gathering and dissemination (basically S2)

131
Q

What is group, division, and branch associated with

A

group - one job not neccesarily one location
division - many jobs one area
branch - big jobs either geographical or functional

132
Q

What is a Base?

A

Location at which primary logistic functions for incident are coordinated and administered. only 1

133
Q

What are the functions within a hazmat branch

A
Supervisor
Ass. Safety Supervisor
Site access control leader
Decon Leader
Tech Specialist/hazmat leader
Safe Refuge area manager
134
Q

Why should you establish rehabilitation programs

A

Replenishment of fluids

Rest and recovery

135
Q

what do you need to record with regards to PPE

A

Time interval
Repair
Inspections
Testing