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part107 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. A professional wildlife photographer operates an sUAS from a moving truck to capture aerial images of migrating birds in remote wetlands. The driver of the truck does not serve any crew member role in the operation. Is this sUAS operation in compliance with 14 CFR Part 107?
    A. Compliant with Part 107
    B. Not compliant with Part 107
    C. Not compliant with state and local traffic laws
A

A
You may operate a sUAS from a moving vehicle if you are in a sparsely populated area and the driver does not serve as the remote PIC, person manipulating the controls, or visual observer.
Reference: 14 CFR 107.25

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2
Q
  1. Remote Pilots are required to complete the following operational area surveillance prior to the sUAS flight:

A. Make a plan to keep non-participants in viewing distance for the whole operation
B. Select an operational area that is populated
C. Keep the operational area free of and at an appropriate distance from all non-participants

A

Answer: C
You may not operate a small, unmanned aircraft directly over another person unless that person is directly involved in the operation (such as a visual observer or other crew member) or within a safe cover, such as inside a stationary vehicle or a protective structure that would protect a person from harm if the small, unmanned aircraft were to crash into that structure. Reference: 14
CFR 107.39

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3
Q
  1. Personnel at an outdoor concert venue use an sUAS to drop promotional t-shirts and CDs over the audience. Is this sUAS operation in compliance with 14 CFR 107?
    A. No, unless authorized by the venue
    B. Yes, compliant with Part 107
    C. Not compliant with Part 107
A

Answer: C
This scenario is not compliant with Part 107. You may not operate over non-participants without safe cover, and you may not drop objects in a manner that creates hazard.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following crewmembers must be used during Part 107 sUAS operations?
    A. Remote PIC
    B. Remote PIC, Visual Observer
    C. Remote PIC, Visual Observer, Person manipulating the controls
A

Answer: A
A remote pilot-in-command must be used during Part 107 a sUAS operations. A visual observer is optional. The person manipulating the controls may be the remote PIC, or must be operating under the direct supervision of the remote PIC.
Reference:14 CFR 107.19

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5
Q
  1. The remote PIC may operate how many sUAS at a time?
    A. 5
    B. 1
    C. No more than 2
A

Answer: B
A person may not operate or act as a remote pilot-in-command or visual observer in the operation of more than one unmanned aircraft at the same time.

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6
Q
  1. “Unmanned aircraft” is defined as a device operated
    A. during search and rescue operations other than the public
    B. without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft
    C. for hobby and recreational use when not certified
A

Answer: B
An unmanned aircraft is an aircraft operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft. Reference: 14 CFR 107.1, 107.3, AC 107-2

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7
Q
  1. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from the sUAS?
    A. if prior permission is received from the FAA
    B. in an emergency
    C. if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface
A

Answer: C
No items may be dropped from the small unmanned aircraft in a manner that creates undue hazard to persons or property.
Reference: 14 CFR 107.23

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8
Q
  1. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum airspeed at which a person may operate an sUAS below 400 feet?
    A. 80 mph
    B. 100 mph
    C. 200 knots
A

Answer: B
The sUAS cannot be flown faster than a ground speed of 87 knots (100mph) and must be operated below 400 feet.
Reference: 14 CFR 107.51

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9
Q
  1. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no remote PIC may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
    A. an emergency
    B. when the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion”
    C. if the clearance contains a restriction
A

Answer: A
Except in an emergency, no person may operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC clearance or instruction.
Reference: 14 CFR 107.21

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10
Q
  1. Under what conditions would a small unmanned aircraft not have to be registered before it is operated in the United States?

A. When the aircraft has a takeoff weight that is more than .55 pounds but less than 55 pounds, not including fuel and necessary attachments

B. When the aircraft weighs less than .55 pounds on take-off, including everything that is onboard or attached to the aircraft

C. All small unmanned aircraft need to be registered regardless of the weight of the aircraft before, during, or after the flight

A

Answer: B
“Owners must register the sUAS if it is greater than 0.55 lbs., less than 55 pounds, and operated under the provisions of the 14 CFR Part 107.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.13”

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11
Q
  1. Which publication contains an explanation of airport signs and markings?
    A. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
    B. Advisory Circulars (AC)
    C. Chart Supplements US
A

Answer: A
“Both the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) and the Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (FAA-H-8083-25) contain explanations of airport signs and markings
Reference: AIM Chapter 2, Section 3”

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12
Q
  1. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
    A. the controlling agency
    B. all pilots
    C. Air Traffic Control
A

Answer: B
“All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with FAA regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance
Reference: AIM 3-4-6”

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13
Q
  1. According to 14 CFR Part 107, how may a Remote Pilot in Command (Remote PIC) operate an unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace?
    A. The remote PIC must contact the ATC facility after launching the unmanned aircraft
    B. The remote PIC must monitor the ATC frequency from launch to recovery
    C. The remote PIC must have prior authorization from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility
    having jurisdiction over that airspace.
A

Answer: C
“No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that person has prior authorization from ATC
Reference: 14 CFR 107.41”

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14
Q
  1. When approaching holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
    A. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
    B. may continue taxiing
    C. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
A

Answer: A
“When approaching the holding line from the side with the continuous lines, a pilot should not cross the holding line without ATC clearance at a controlled airport, or without making sure of adequate separation from other aircraft at uncontrolled airports.

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15
Q
  1. The lateral dimensions of class D airspace are based on
    A. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established
    B. the number of airports that lie within Class D airspace
    C. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport
A

Answer: A
“The dimensions of Class D airspace are as needed for each individual circumstance. The airspace may include extensions necessary for IFR arrival and departure paths.
Reference: AIM 3-2-5”

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16
Q
  1. You have received authorization to operate an sUAS at an airport. When flying the sUAS, the ATC tower instructs you to stay clear of all runways. Which situation would indicate that you are complying with this request?
    A. You are on the double solid yellow line side of markings near the runway
    B. You are on the double dashed yellow line side of markings near the runway
    C. You are over the dashed white lines in the center of the pavement
A

Answer: A
“Runway hold markings are indicated by two double dashed and two solid yellow lines. You are considered to be on the taxiway on the double solid yellow line side while you are considered to be on the runway if on the double dashed yellow line side.
Reference: AIM 2-3-4”

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17
Q
  1. When a manned aircraft is approaching to land at an airport in Class G airspace without an operating control tower, the pilot will
    A. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL
    B. make all turns to the left unless otherwise indicated
    C. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL
A

Answer: B
“When a manned aircraft is approaching to land at an airport in Class G airspace without an operating control tower, each pilot of an airplane will make all turns to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals of visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right (which will be detailed in the Chart Supplements US)
Reference: 14 CFR 91.126”

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18
Q
  1. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
    A. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue
    B. Aircrafts with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class
    D and E airspace are magenta
    C. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta
A

Answer: A
“Refer to Appendix 1, Legend 1. Airports having control towers are shown in blue, all others in magenta.
Reference: Sectional Chart Legend.”

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19
Q
  1. Under what conditions, if any, may remote pilots fly through a restricted area?
    A. With the controlling agency’s authorization
    B. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance
    C. Regulations do not allow this
A

Answer: A
Restricted areas can be penetrated but only with the permission of the controlling agency. No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed unless he/she has the permission of the using or controlling agency. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be fatal to the aircraft and its occupants
Reference: 14 CFR 107.45, AIM 3-4-3

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20
Q
  1. Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic?
    A. Continuously scan the sky from right to left
    B. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
    C. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
A

Answer: B
“Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement brings successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees and each area should be observed at least one second to enable detection.
Reference: AIM 8-1-6”

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21
Q
  1. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
    A. are thunderstorms in the area
    B. is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
    C. has been a cold frontal passage
A

Answer: B
“Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude
Reference: AC 00-6B”

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22
Q
  1. The minimum distance from clouds required for sUAS part 107 operations is
    A. 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontally
    B. clear of clouds
    C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet horizontally
A

Answer: A
“Part 107 sUAS operations require the minimum distance of the small unmanned aircraft from clouds must be no less than 500 feet below the cloud and 2,000 feet horizontally from the cloud.
Reference: 14 CFR 107.51”

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23
Q
  1. What is the best way for a remote pilot to determine the likelihood of local fog formation?
    A. Monitor the wind conditions to insure the wind speed is not increasing
    B. Monitor the barometric pressure to ensure that it is not decreasing
    C. Monitor the temperature / dew point spread
A

Answer: C
“Fog is more likely to form when the temperature and dew point convergence. A difference between these two temperatures of 3 degrees C (or 5 degrees F) is indicative of possible fog formation.
Reference: AC 00-6B”

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24
Q
  1. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
    A. Heavy rain
    B. Hail
    C. Lightning
A

Answer: C
“A thunderstorm is, in general, a local storm invariably produced by a cumulonimbus cloud, and is always accompanied by lightning and thunder.
Reference: AC 00-6B

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25
Q
  1. What effect does high-density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?
    A. Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency
    B. Propeller efficiency is increased
    C. Propeller efficiency is decreased
A

Answer: C
“The propeller produces thrust in proportion to the mass of air being accelerated through the rotating blades. If the air is less dense, propeller efficiency is decreased.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

26
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
    A. Turbulence and showery precipitation
    B. Poor visibility and smooth air
    C. Haze and smoke
A

Answer: A
“Characteristics of a moist unstable air mass include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, rough air (turbulence), and good visibility (except in blowing obstructions)
Reference: AC 00-6B”

27
Q
  1. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the accumulation rate?
    A. Cumulus clouds with below-freezing temperatures
    B. Freezing rain
    C. Freezing drizzle
A

Answer: B
“A condition favorable for rapid accumulation of clear icing is freezing rain below a frontal surface.
Reference: AC 00-6B”

28
Q
  1. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a
    change in
    A. wind direction
    B. type of precipitation
    C. stability of the air mass
A

Answer: A
“Wind direction always changes across a front
Reference: AC 00-6B”

29
Q
  1. A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
    A. Showery precipitation
    B. Poor surface visibility
    C. Turbulent air
A

Answer: B
“Characteristics of a stable air mass include stratiform clouds and fog, continuous precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

30
Q
  1. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
    A. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute
    B. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours
    C. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation
A

Answer: C
“An individual microburst will seldom last longer than 15 minutes from the time it strikes the ground until dissipation. However, there may be multiple microbursts in the area.
Reference: AIM 7-1-25”

31
Q
  1. When loading cameras or other equipment on an sUAS, mount the items in a manner that:
    A. Does not adversely affect the center of gravity
    B. Is visible to the visual observer or other crew members
    C. Can be easily removed without the use of tools
A

Answer: A
“Any mounted equipment should be balanced in a manner that does not adversely affect the center of gravity or result in unsafe performance.
Reference: AC 107-2”

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the weight and balance of small unmanned aircraft?
    A. Operations outside weight and balance limitations may result in loss of control
    B. CG cannot change during the flight
    C. Lateral CG is not important to small unmanned aircraft operations.
A

Answer: A
“Loading the aircraft outside of limitations (weight, balance, or both) may lead to moments that exceed the capabilities of the flight controls/ engine (s), thus possibly leading to loss of control or other performance anomalies?
Reference: FAA-H8083-1”

33
Q
  1. A stall occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned aircraft’s wing/ propeller(s) is disrupted and the lift reduces rapidly. this is caused when the wing/ propeller (s)
    A. exceeds the maximum allowable operating weight
    B. exceeds the critical angle of attack
    C. exceeds the maximum speed
A

Answer: B
“The airfoil will stall if the critical angle of attack is exceeded.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-3”

34
Q
  1. Maximum endurance is obtained at the point of minimum power to maintain the aircraft
    A. in a long-range descent
    B. in steady, level flight
    C. at its slowest possible indicated airspeed
A

Answer: B
“The maximum endurance condition is obtained at the point of minimum power required since this would require the lowest fuel flow or battery to keep the sUAS in steady, level flight. Maximum range condition occurs where the proportion between speed and power required is greatest.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

35
Q
  1. When range and economy of operation are the principal goals, the remote pilot must ensure that the sUAS will be operated at the recommended
    A. long-range cruise performance
    B. specific endurance
    C. equivalent airspeed
A

Answer: A
“Total range is dependent on both fuel available and specific range. When range and economy of operation are the principal goals, the remote pilot must ensure that the sUAS is operated at the recommended long-range cruise condition. By this procedure, the sUAS will be capable of its maximum design-operating radius, or can achieve lesser flight distances with a maximum of fuel reserve at the destination.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

36
Q
  1. What is the best source for sUAS performance data and information?
    A. Pilot report
    B. Estimates based upon similar systems
    C. Manufacturer publications
A

Answer: C
“The manufacturer is the best source of performance data and information, if available
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

37
Q
  1. What effect does an uphill terrain slope have on launch performance?
    A. Increases launch distance
    B. increase launch speed
    C. decreases launch distances
A

Answer: A
“The effect of runway slope on launch distance is due to the component of weight along the inclined path of the aircraft. An upslope would contribute an accelerating force component. In the case of an upslope, the retarding force component adds to drag and rolling friction to reduce
the net accelerating force.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

38
Q
  1. When operating an unmanned aircraft, the remote pilot-in-command should consider that the load factor on the wings or rotors may be increased anytime:
    A. the CG is shifted rearward to the aft CG limit
    B. the gross weight is reduced
    C. the aircraft is subjected to maneuvers other than straight and level flight
A

Answer: C
“Unmanned airplane performance can be decreased due to an increase in load factor when the airplane is operated in maneuvers other than straight and level flight.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

39
Q
  1. The most critical conditions of launch performance are the result of some combination of high gross weight, altitude, temperature and
    A. obstacles surrounding the launch site
    B. power plant systems
    C. unfavorable wind
A

Answer: C
“The most critical conditions of launch performance are the result of some combination of high gross weight, altitude, temperature, and unfavorable wind. In all cases, the remote pilot must make and accurate prediction of take-off distance from the performance data of the AFM/ POH, regardless of the runway available, and strive for polished, professional launch procedures.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

40
Q
  1. Before each flight the remote PIC must ensure that:
    A. objects carried on the sUAS are secure
    B. ATC has granted clearance
    C. the site supervisor has approved the flight
A

Answer: A “Prior to each flight, the remote PIC must ensure that any object attached to or carried by the small unmanned aircraft is secure and does not adversely affect the flight characteristics or controllability of the aircraft
Reference: AC 107-2”

41
Q
  1. Which of the following events is considered a flyaway?
    A. Unmanned aircraft does not respond to control inputs and does not execute known lost link maneuvers
    B. Loss of the link between the Remote PIC and the unmanned aircraft
    C. Loss of communication link between the Remote PIC and ATC
A

Answer: A
“A flyaway is when the sUAS becomes uncontrollable and does not operate in a manner that would be expected in a normal or lost link flight situation.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 107”

42
Q
  1. Fatigue can be either
    A. physiological or psychological
    B. physical or mental
    C. acute or chronic
A

Answer: C
“Fatigue can be either acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term). Acute fatigue, a normal occurrence of everyday living is the tiredness felt after long periods of physical and mental strain, including strenuous muscular effort, immobility, heavy mental workload, strong emotional pressure, monotony, and lack of sleep. Chronic fatigue occurs when there is not enough time for a full recovery from repeated episodes of acute fatigue.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

43
Q
  1. A common cause of sUAS flyaway events is
    A. frequency interference
    B. loss of GPS signals
    C. persons standing close to the control station antenna
A

Answer: A
“Frequency interference is one of the most common causes of flyaways; therefore, remote PICs should assess the risk of such interference prior to and during flight. Extra caution is necessary when operating in the vicinity of other a sUAS. The loss of GPS may degrade the sUAS capabilities slightly but should not cause a flyaway. It is not unusual for people to stand near the control station; it is highly unlikely for this to cause a flyaway.
Reference: AC 107-2”

44
Q
  1. You have just landed at a towered airport and the tower tells you to contact ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when
    A. the aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line
    B. the tail of the aircraft is clear of the runway edge
    C. all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line
A

Answer: C
“An aircraft exiting a runway is not clear of the runway until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the applicable holding position marking.
Reference: AIM 2-3-5”

45
Q
  1. Which of the following sources of information should you consult first when determining what maintenance should be performed on an sUAS or its components
    A. Local pilot best practices
    B. 14 CFR Part 107
    C. Manufacturer guidance
A

Answer: C
“The preferred source of information is the manufacturer’s guidance about maintenance schedule and instructions,
Reference: AC 107-2”

46
Q
  1. What is the best way for the remote PIC to minimize the risk of radio frequency interference during sUAS operations?
    A. Never transmit on aviation frequency ranges during flight operations
    B. Monitor frequency use with a spectral analyzer
    C. Avoid the use of cell phones in the vicinity of the control station
A

Answer: B
“Remote PICs should monitor the appropriate aviation frequency such as CTAF during flight operations and make announcement concerning a sUAS operations as appropriate. Some a sUAS require the use of cellphone or tablet computers for operation, therefore are acceptable for use in most cases. The best way to avoid frequency interference is to check local frequency spectrum use prior to flight and continue to monitor such use during flight by utilizing a frequency spectrum analyzer.
Reference: AC 107-2”

47
Q
  1. Under what condition should the operator of a small unmanned aircraft establish a scheduled maintenance protocol?
    A. When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule
    B. When the FAA requires you to, following an accident
    C. Small unmanned aircraft systems do not require maintenance
A

Answer: A
“Follow all manufacturer maintenance recommendations to achieve the longest safest service life of the sUAS. If the sUAS or component manufacturer does not provide scheduled maintenance instructions, it is recommended that you establish your own scheduled maintenance protocol.
Reference: AC 107-2”

48
Q
  1. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
    A. The owner or operator
    B. The remote pilot-in-command
    C. The certificate mechanic who performed the annual inspection
A

Answer: B
“The remote PIC is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

49
Q
  1. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation
    A. The excessive consumption of alcohol
    B. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear
    C. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen
A

Answer: B
“Hyperventilation is most likely to occur during period of stress or anxiety
Reference: AIM 8-1-3”

50
Q
  1. Upon GPS signal loss, the remote Pilot should immediately
    A. contact ATC and declare an emergency
    B. perform the planned lost link contingency procedure
    C. operate the sUAS normally, noting to account for any mode or control changes that occur if GPS is lost
A

Answer: C
“Most a sUAS are designed to fly normally with minimal impact on features or controllability if GPS signals are degraded or lost. Loss of GPS is not an emergency and is not considered to be a loss of link between the unmanned aircraft and the control station. If the failure of GPS does result in a flyaway or other dangerous situation, it should be treated as an emergency.
Reference: AC 107-2”

51
Q
  1. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, a pilot should contact ground control
    A. when advised by the tower
    B. prior to turning off the runway
    C. after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area
A

Answer: A
“A pilot who has just landed should not change from the tower frequency to the ground control frequency until directed to do so by the controller
Reference: AIM 4-3-14”

52
Q
  1. What action should the remote PIC take upon GPS signal loss?
    A. Perform the planned flyaway emergency procedure
    B. Follow normal sUAS operational procedure, noting any mode or control changes that normally occur if GPS is lost.
    C. Land the unmanned aircraft immediately prior to loss of control
A

Answer: B
“Most a sUAS are designed to fly normally with minimal impact on features or controllability if GPS signals are degraded or lost. Loss of GPS is not an emergency and is not considered to be a loss of link between the unmanned aircraft and the control station. If the failure of GPS does result in a flyaway or other dangerous situation, it should be treated as an emergency.
Reference: AC 107-2”

53
Q
  1. Which will almost always affect your ability to fly?
    A. Prescription analgesics and antihistamines
    B. Over-the-counter analgesics and antihistamines
    C. Antibiotics and anesthetic drugs
A

Answer: A
“Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by both prescribed and over-the-counter medications, as well as by the medical conditions for which they are taken. Flying is almost always precluded while using prescription analgesics since these drugs may cause side effects such as mental confusion, dizziness, headaches, nausea, and vision problems. Depressants, including antihistamines, lower blood pressure, reduce mental processing, and slow motor and reaction responses.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

54
Q
  1. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of “anti-authority”?
    A. Rules do not apply to this situation
    B. I know what I am doing
    C. Follow the rules
A

Answer: C
“The antiauthority (don’t tell me) attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. The antidote for this attitude is: follow the rules, they are usually right.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

55
Q
  1. Which of the following lithium batteries should not be used
    A. A battery with a bulge on one of the sides of its case
    B. A partially discharged battery that is warm from recent prior use
    C. A new battery that has only been charged once, several charging cycles are required prior
    to normal use.
A

Answer: A
“Damaged batteries should never be used or charged. Lithium batteries do normally get warm during discharge. Avoid the use of hot batteries. New batteries should be treated per manufacturing instructions, but do not normally need several charge cycles to use.
Reference: SAFO 10017”

56
Q
  1. The responsibility for ensuring that an sUAS is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
    A. Owner or operator
    B. Remote pilot-in-command
    C. mechanic who performs the work
A

Answer: B
“No person may operate a sUAS unless it is in a condition for safe operation. Prior to each flight, the remote pilot-in-command must check the sUAS to determine whether it is in a condition for safe operation. No person may continue flight of the small unmanned aircraft when he or she knows or has reason to know that the small unmanned aircraft system is no longer in a condition for safe operation
Reference: 14 CFR 107.15”

57
Q
  1. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with Whitted ATC Tower is
    A. Whitted, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE requesting to operate within Class D, west of the field.
    B. Whitted Tower, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO five NM west of the airport, request permission to enter Class D airspace for unmanned aircraft operations below four hundred AGL, three NM west of the airport
    C. Whitted Tower, Triple Six Charlie Bravo, five NM west, operating in Class D below four hundred AGL west of the airport
A

Answer: B
“The term ““initial radio contact”” or ““initial call-up”” means the first radio call you make to a given facility, or the first call to a different controller or Flight Service specialist within a facility.Use the following format:
1. Name of the facility being called
2. You full aircraft identification as filed in the flight plan
3. Type of message to follow or your request if it is short
4. The word ““over”” if required (typically omitted, except for communications via a remote communication outlet or in cases when it is necessary to confirm the end of a transmission Example: New York Radio, Mooney Three One One Echo, over
When the aircrafts manufacturer’s name or model is stated, the prefix ““N”” is dropped. The first two characters of the call sign may be dropped only after ATC calls you by your last three numbers
Reference: AIM 4-2-3”

58
Q
  1. Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight even though he or she holds a current medical certificate
    A. The FAA
    B. The medical examiner
    C. The Pilot
A

Answer: C
“The pilot is responsible for determining whether he or she is fit to fly for a particular flight
Reference: FAA-H-8083-25”

59
Q
  1. Fatigue can be recognized
    A. as being in an impaired state
    B. easily by an experienced pilot
    C. by an ability to overcome sleep deprivation
A

Answer: A
“The fatigues pilot is an impaired pilot, and flying requires unimpaired judgment.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-2”

60
Q
  1. What action should be taken by the Remote PIC during an sUAS flyaway event?
    A. Immediately notify any/all crewmembers, bystanders, and ATC (if applicable)
    B. Immediately notify the NTSB
    C. Immediately notify any/all crewmembers, local law enforcement personnel, and bystanders
A

Answer: A
“During a flyaway event a sUAS may not react in ways that can be expected or predicted thus this is an emergency situation. The remote PIC should immediately communicate this emergency to crew members and ATC (if applicable) as well as any persons in the immediate area so as to minimize risk for injury. There is no obligation to contact the NTSB or law enforcement during a flyaway.
Reference: 14 CFR 107.19, 107.21

61
Q
A

PILOT (1 decks)

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