Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Non Interpretive Skills > Part I (1-31) > Flashcards

Part I (1-31) Flashcards

1
Q

Page 1

Institute of Medicine’s Six Improvements

A 
STEEEP
Safety
Timeliness
Equity
Efficiency
Effectiveness
Patient-Centeredness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Page 1

Limitations of Traditional QI Techniques in Healthcare

A 
Static
Physician focused
Under-emphasizes
 - Non-MD contributions
 - Organizational processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Page 1

Three major focuses of traditional older theory practice of QA

A

Measuring Performance
Comparing Performance to Standards
Improving Performance
- When Standards are not met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Page 1

QA is considered

A 
FPPRR
Finger Pointing
Punitive
Policing
Reactive
Retrospective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Page 1

QI is considered

A

Prospective and Retrospective
Avoids attributing blame
Creates Systems to prevent errors
Continuous Process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Page 2

Describe modern quality science

A

Discipline whereby statistical techniques are used to assist decision making regarding product quality and production pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Page 2

Describe the New Paradigmatic Approach to Quality Science (Redefined Quality in Healthcare)

A

Continuous effort by all members of an organization to meet the needs and expectations of patients and other customers, insurance companies, families, providers, and employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Page 2

Six IOM Quality Aims

A 
Safe
Timely
Effective
Efficient
Equitable
Patient-centered
(((STEEEP)))
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Page 2
New Paradigmatic Approach to Quality Science
Three components

A

Measuring Quality
Improving Quality
Personnel Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Page 2

Six Core Competencies of MOC

A 
FISPPP
Fund of Knowledge
 - Medical
Interpersonal / Communication Skills
System Based Practice
Professionalism
Patient Care
 - Compassionate
 - Appropriate
 - Effective
Practice-based
 - Learning
 - Improvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Page 3

Dashboard

A

A visual display of the most important information needed to achieve one or more objectives consolidated and arranged on a single screen.

Can be monitored at a glance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Page 3

Benchmarking

A

Measurement of an organizations quality compared with a standard of its peers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Page 3

Objectives of Benchmarking

A
  1. Determine what and where improvements are necessary
  2. Analyze how other organizations achieve high performance levels
  3. Use this information to improve performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Page 3

What is a PDSA Cycle

A 
A 4 step cycle
 - used for QI
Plan
Do
Study
Act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Page 4

Plan -

A

Identify an area of your practice judged to be in need of improvement and devise a measure to asses the degree of need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Page 4

Do -

A

Put the plan in action and take baseline measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Page 4

Study

A

Determine how well your measure compared to the desired goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Page 5

Act -

A

Devise and implement a plan for performance improvement

  • After your improvement plan implementation, begin another PDSA cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Page 5

Lean

A
  • Organizational style of continuous improvement workflow
  • Emerged from postwar Japan
  • Toyota Production Systems (TPS)
  • Emphasis on smoothness of workflow from end to end
  • Best used for closing performance gaps
  • Lean six sigma can be complimentary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Page 5

Two core management principles of Lean

A
  1. Relentless elimination of waste
  2. Respect for ppl with long term relationships
  • methodology has a fundamental reliance on company culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Page 5
Lean
- Forms of Waste

A 
MOWIT  DDSP
Motion
Overproduction
Waiting
Inventory
Transportation
Defective Steps
Defective Products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Page 5

What focus is one reason Lean has become popular in healthcare quality improvement

A

Unnecessary Variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Page 5

Potential stumbling block in implementation of Lean

A

Culture - Lean relies heavily on employee engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Page 6

Value Stream Mapping -

A
  • Tool to help understand and improve the material and information flow within a process
  • End product is a visual flow map
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Page 6

What does the Five S Tool focus on?

A
  • Standardization of work areas
  • Eliminate clutter
  • Find a place for everything
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Page 6

What does Five S stand for?

A 
Sorting
Straightening
Systematic Cleaning
Standardizing
Sustaining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Page 6

Pull Systems

A

Work to emulate one-piece flow

  • the next step of work on an item
  • occurs immediately at completion of prior step
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Page 6

Kanbans

A

Alert systems that signal readiness for additional parts or work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Page 6

Error-proofing

A

Defining and standardizing process steps and quickly addressing new sources of error with further refinement of the steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Page 6

In Lean systems what two primary issues result in ‘poor flow’

A
  1. Unreasonable work due to poor organization
  2. Pushing beyond natural limits
  • Lean focuses on ‘system’ impositions on workers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Page 7

DMAIC

A 
Design
Measure
Analyze
Improve
Control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Page 7
Six Sigma targets -
a defect rate of how many opportunities?
how many standard deviations from the population average?

A
  • 3.4 million

- six

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Page 7

Two steps involved in Target Identification

A
  1. Focus on process as objects of improvement
    (85% of worker effectiveness is due to the system within which they work, not the individuals skill)
  2. Eliminate unnecessary variation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Page 8

Key Performance Indicators

A

Measures selected to evaluate organizational success

  • can be quality or financial measures
  • ideally would be something amenable to reproducible measurement
  • patient safety, quality of care, customer service, utilization, productivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Page 8

Quality Improvement Tools

A

Established techniques/instruments used to improve a structure, process, and/or outcome measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Page 8

Flowchart or Map

A

A schematic representation of an algorithm or a process

- first step toward understanding the inputs, steps, and outputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Page 8

Name four things that flow charts are used for?

A 
SCIOM
clarify Steps and decision points
Identify the complexity and variability
clarify Outcome vs Process steps
establish Measures for procedures within a process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Page 9

Simple Flowchart

A

High level diagram that describes/depicts an overall process from beginning to end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Page 9

Swim Lane Flowchart

A

Processes and decisions are grouped visually by placing them in lanes

  • Longitudinal direction represents sequence of events
  • Lateral divisions depicts what subprocess is performing that step
  • Arrows between lanes represent information or material passed between subprocesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Page 9

Value Stream Map

A
  • used to analyze the flow of materials and information currently required to deliver a product or service to a consumer
  • used to measure value-added and non value-added activities from end to end
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Page 9

Spaghetti Diagram

A

A map of the path taken by a specific item as it travels down the value stream in an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Page 9

Check Sheets

A
  • used to facilitate the collection and compilation of event data during a process
  • used to count different types of defects like interruptions, rework, and other errors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Page 9

Cause and Effect Diagram

A
  • logically organize possible causes for a specific problem or effect by graphically displaying them in increasing detail
  • helps to identify root causes and ensures common understanding of the causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Page 9

Name three things Cause and Effect Diagrams are used for

A
  1. Define and understand the causes of an outcome
  2. Graphically display the relationship of causes to the outcome
  3. Help identify improvement opportunities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Page 9

Run Charts / Trend Charts / Tie Series Plots

A
  • used to show trent over time
  • single point measurements can be misleading
  • displaying data over time increases understanding of real performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Page 9

Control Charts

A
  • depict mean, median, upper, and lower control limits to aid in identification of process noise vs significant deviation worthy of attention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Page 10

Pareto Chart

A
  • based on Pareto principle
  • small number of process steps contribute to the majority of problems
  • arranged in descending order w/ highest occurrences shown first
  • uses a cumulative line to track percentages of each category which distinguishes the 20 % of items causing 80 % of the problem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Page 10

Brainstorming

A
  • group creativity technique used to generate a large number of ideas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Page 10

Four things brainstorming is used for

A
  • Identify all issues
  • Understand and clarify the process
  • Generate potential solutions or action plans
  • Data collection issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Page 10

Multi-Voting

A
  • group exercise used to select highest priority items from a brainstorming list
  • narrows a large list
  • allows an item that is favored by all, but not the top choice of any to rise to the top
  • Variations: sticking dots, weighted voting, multiple picking-out method (MPM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Page 10

Nominal Group Technique (NGT)

A
  • structured method for generating ideas and/or condensing them
  • more formal and structured than basic brainstorming
  • minimal dialogue
  • effective for controversial issues
  • every team member has equal say
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Page 10

Two stages of Nominal Group Technique (NGT)

A
  1. Formalized brainstorming

2. Decision Making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Page 10

Prioritization Matrix

A
  • used to achieve consensus about an issue
  • ranks problems or issues
  • prioritizes problems to work on first
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Page 10

Voice of the Customer (VOC)

A
  • market research technique
  • process to capture customers’ requirements
  • produces a detailed set of customer wants and needs
  • generally conducted at the start of a new product, process, or service
  • used to better understand the customer’s wants and needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Page 10

Walk-through

A
  • simulates the processes a patient encounters during their visit
  • can substantiate or validate survey findings
  • identify bottlenecks
  • provides direct knowledge of the patient experience
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Page 11

National Patient Safety Goals

A

Established by the Joint Commission in 2002

  • Help organizations address specific areas of concern for patient safety
  • Highlight problem areas and describe evidence based solutions
  • First set of NPSGs was effective Jan 1, 2003
  • Examples - falls, patient ID, Infections, pressure ulcers, communication
  • also created a list of ‘do not use’ abbreviations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Page 11

Who develops NPSGs?

A

Patient Safety Advisory Group
- composed or expert physicians, nurses, pharmacists, engineers, risk managers, and others with real world patient safety experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Page 12

Give examples of key NPSGs involving radiology practice

A
  • Two patient identifiers when providing care
  • Report critical results on a timely basis
  • Label all medication and solutions even in sterile field
  • Maintain and communicate accurate pt meds info
  • Comply with CDC or WHO hand hygiene guidelines
  • Implement evidence based practices to prevent infections CLABI
  • Conduct a pre-procedure verification process
  • Mark procedure site
  • Perform a Time Out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Page 12
Epidemiology of Error
What are the most common types of adverse events?

A 
Inadequate information flow
Human performance problems
Poor organizational transfer of knowledge
Insufficient staffing patterns
Technical failures
Inadequate policies and procedures
Defective Systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Page 12

To Err is Human

A

National Academy of Sciences’ Institute of Medicine (IOM) initiated Quality of Healthcare in America project in 1998

  • to develop a strategy that would result in a threshold improvement in quality over 10 yrs
  • published ‘To Err is Human’ in 1999
    • attributed 44,000 to 98,000 deaths to medical error
    • projected deaths exceeded MVAs, breast CA, and AIDS
    • projected societal financial costs between $17 and $29 billion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Page 13

Define medical error

A

The failure of a planned action to be completed as intended
- or
The use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Page 13

Which areas of the hospital carry the highest risk of errors?

A

ICU
OR
ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Page 13
IOM Report
Four fundamental factors contributing to error

A
  1. Decentralized nature of healthcare delivery ‘non-system’
  2. Failure of the licensing systems to focus on errors
  3. Impediment of the liability system to identify errors
  4. Failure of third party providers to provide financial incentives to improve safety
    - Most errors are felt to be system errors rather than individual problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Page 13
IOM Report
Comprehensive strategy to reduce preventable medical errors with goal of 50% reduction over 5 yrs.
What were the four main foci?

A
  1. Establishing a national focus
    - Center for Patient Safety funded
  2. Identifying and learning from errors
    - nationwide mandatory reporting
  3. Raising performance standards
    - improvement in safety w/ oversight
  4. Implementing safety systems in HO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Page 13 - informational
IOM report resulted in congressional hearings
$50 mil appropriated to fund Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality

A

Contracted with National Quality Forum to create ‘never events’
- easily preventable events of sufficient importance that they should never occur in a properly functioning healthcare environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Page 13

Types of Errors

A

Diagnostic
Treatment
Preventive
Other

66
Q

Page 13

Diagnostic Errors

A

Delay in diagnosis
Failure to employ indicated tests
Use of outmoded tests or therapy
Failure to Act on results of monitoring or testing

67
Q

Page 14

Treatment Errors

A 
Performance error
 - operation, procedure, or test
Administering treatment
Dose or Method of using a drug
Avoidable delay
 - In treatment 
 - Responding to abnormal test
Inappropriate (not indicated) care
68
Q

Page 14

Preventive Errors

A

Failure to provide prophylactic treatment
Inadequate monitoring
Inadequate follow-up treatment

69
Q

Page 14

Other Errors

A

Failure of Communication
Equipment Failure
Other System Failure

70
Q

Page 14

Ten Rules for Redisign

A 
CCK  DSWTC  PCN
Care is based on a continuous healing relationship
Care customized according to pt needs
Knowledge is shared and info flows freely
Decision making is evidence based
Safety is a system property
Waste is continuously decreased
Transparency is necessary
Clinician cooperation is a priority
Patient is the source of control
Needs are anticipated
71
Q

Page 15

Systems Thinking

A

Includes a definition of systems that all come together to provide care
- providers, patients, support staff, clinical and admin processes, technology, information
Compromised of multiple layers that affect safety
- nation, state, hospital, caregiving unit

72
Q

Page 15

Human Factors

A

Human errors
- facilitated by similarities in appearance of different meds
or
- by non-compatibility of equipment

73
Q

Page 16

Human Factors Engineering

A

The discipline that attempts to identify and address human factor errors

  • has been used to improve safety in many industries (auto, aviation, nuclear power plants)
  • significantly reduced risk of injury in the OR by redesign of anesthesia equipment
74
Q

Page 16

Applications of Human Factors Engineering

A

Usability Testing
Workarounds
Forcing Functions
Standardization

75
Q

Page 16
Application of Human Factors Engineering to Improving Safety
Define Usability Testing

A

Testing of new systems and equipment under real-world conditions as much as possible in order to identify unintended consequences of new technology

76
Q

Page 16
Application of Human Factors Engineering to Improving Safety
Define Workarounds -

A
  • the consistent bypassing of policies or safety procedures by frontline workers
  • frequently arise because of flawed or poorly designed systems that actually increase the time necessary for workers to complete a task
77
Q

Page 16
Application of Human Factors Engineering to Improving Safety
Define Forcing Functions -

A
  • an aspect of design that prevents an unintended or undesirable action from being performed or allows its performance only if another specific action is performed first
  • example - removing concentrated potassium from general hospital wards
78
Q

Page 16
Application of Human Factors Engineering to Improving Safety
Standardization

A

Axiom of human factors engineering in that
- equipment and processes should be standardized whenever possible in order to increase reliability, improve information flow, and minimize cross-training needs

79
Q

Page 17

What is the WHO Safe Surgery Checklist?

A

A list of 19 measures that should be performed before an invasive procedure to improve the safety of that procedure

Steps divided to

  • before anesthesia
  • before skin incision
  • before pt leaves the OR
80
Q

Page 17
WHO Safe Surgery Checklist
Before induction of Anesthesia

A
  • Confirm patient Identity
  • Site marking
  • Check of Anesthesia Machine and medication
  • Pulse Ox in place and functioning
  • Allergies?
  • Difficult airway or aspiration risk?
  • Risk of significant blood loss?
81
Q

Page 17
WHO Safe Surgery Checklist
Before Skin Incision

A
  • Confirm all team members have introduced themselves by name and role
  • Confirm pt name, procedure, and site of incision
  • Antibiotic Prophylaxis
  • Review anticipated critical events
  • Review pt specific concerns related to anesthesia
  • Confirm sterility of equipment/equipment concerns
  • Is essential imaging available
82
Q

Page 17
WHO Safe Surgery Checklist
Before patient leaves the Operating Room

A 
Nurse confirms
 - name of procedure
 - instrument, sponge, and needle counts
 - specimen labeling
Any equipment problems to be addressed?
Concerns for recovery or management
83
Q

Page 18

Resiliency Efforts

A

Given that unexpected events occur
- there should be attention to detecting and mitigating

Resiliency approaches tap into the dynamic aspects of risk management and how organizations anticipate and adapt to changing conditions and recover from system anomalies

84
Q

Page 18

Communication in disclosure of adverse events

A

TTAPE

  1. Telling the pt and family what happened
    - in terms they can understand
  2. Taking responsibility
  3. Apologizing
  4. Explaining what will be done to prevent similar errors
85
Q

Page 18

Culture of Safety

A

Beliefs, attitudes, and values about work risk and safety

Mainly the distinction between errors resulting from
- deliberate unsafe acts
and
- errors that are a result of system failures

86
Q

Page 18
Culture of Safety
Background

A
  • concept originated outside of healthcare in studies of high reliability organizations that consistently minimize adverse events despite carrying out intrinsically complex and hazardous work
  • HROs maintain a commitment to safety at all levels
87
Q

Page 19
Culture of Safety
4 Key Features?

A
  • Acknowledgment of high-risk
  • Blame-free environment
  • Encouragement of collaboration across ranks
  • Organizational commitment of resources to address safety concerns
88
Q

Page 19

Measuring and Achieving a Culture of Safety

A
  • generally measured by surveys
  • Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality’s (AHRQ) Patient Safety Culture Survey
  • Safety Attitudes Questionnaire
89
Q

Page 19

Just Culture

A

Identify and address systems issues

  • that lead to unsafe behaviors
  • while maintaining individual accountability
  • and establishing zero tolerance for reckless behavior
90
Q

Page 19
Just Culture
Distinctions

A
  • Human Error - slips
  • At-risk Behavior - taking shortcuts
  • Reckless Behavior - ignoring required safety steps

Not a no-blame approach

  • but instead assigns blame predicated on the type of behavior associated with the error even if there was no patient harm
  • ie not performing a time out
91
Q 
Page 20
Active Error (Active Failure)
A
  • errors that occur at the point of contact between a human and some aspect of a larger system
  • generally readily apparent (pushing an incorrect button)
  • almost always involve someone at the front line
  • termed errors at the ‘sharp end’ (figuratively referring to a scalpel)
92
Q

Page 20
Adverse Drug Event
Definition -
Examples -

A

An adverse event or injury resulting from medical care involving medication use

Anaphylaxis, major hemorrhage from heparin, Aminoglicoside-induced renal failure, Agranulocytosis from chloramphenicol

93
Q 
Page 20 - Describe
Preventable ADE - 
Potential ADE - 
Non-Preventable ADE - 
Ameliorable ADE -
A
  • involve an element of error (either omission or commission)
  • medication error that reached the pt but did not cause any harm
  • unavoidable ADE (drug rx on pt without prior history)
  • not completely preventable, but could have been mitigated
94
Q

Page 20

Adverse Drug Reaction -

A
  • adverse effect produced by the use of a medication in the recommended manner (ie side effects)
  • they are non-preventable ADEs
95
Q

Page 20

Adverse Event -

A
  • any injury caused by medical care
  • pneumothorax, anaphylaxis, wound infection, hospital acquired delirium
  • simply indicates that an undesirable clinical outcome resulted from some aspect of diagnosis or therapy
96
Q

Page 20

Authority Gradient -

A
  • balance of decision-making power or the steepness of command hierarchy in a given situation
97
Q

Page 22

Blunt End -

A
  • refers to the many layers of the healthcare system not in direct contact with patients, but which influence the personnel and equipment at the sharp end
  • consists of those who set policy, manage healthcare institutions, design medical devices
98
Q 
Page 22
Close Call (Near Miss) -
A
  • event or situation that did not produced patient injury, but only because of chance
  • Pt w/ PCN allergy that gets PCN and does not have a reaction
  • Nurse notices physician wrote order in the wrong chart
99
Q 
Page 22
Latent Error (or Latent Condition) -
A
  • less apparent failures of organization or design that contributed to the occurrence of errors or allowed them to cause harm to patients
  • ‘accidents waiting to happen’
  • referred to errors at the blunt end (Active failures are at the sharp end)
100
Q

Page 22

Mistakes -

A
  • reflect failures during attentional behaviors (behaviors that require thought, analysis, and planning)
  • ‘Lapse in Concentration’
  • typically involve insufficient knowledge, reflect inexperience, or lack of training
  • wrong diagnostic test or suboptimal medication
  • Typically requires more training, supervision, or occasionally disciplinary action
101
Q

Page 23

Potential ADE -

A
  • medication error or other drug-related mishap that reached the patient but happened not to produce harm (PCN allergy pt but no bad reaction)
102
Q

Page 23

Sharp End -

A
  • personnel or parts of the healthcare system in direct contact with pts
  • literally holding the scalpel
  • operating on the wrong leg
  • error in programing an IV pump is at the sharp end
  • institutions decision to use multiple types of infusion pumps (making programming errors more likely) is at the blunt end
103
Q

Page 23

Sentinel Event -

A
  • unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof
  • serious injury specifically includes loss of limb or function
  • ‘sentinel’ refers to the need for immediate investigation and response
104
Q

Page 23

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

A
  • process used to prospectively identify error risk within a particular process
  • begins with complete process mapping that identifies all steps that must take place for a given process to occur
  • identifying the ways in which each step can go wrong (failure modes)
  • identifying the probability that each error will be detected
  • identifies the consequences or impact of the error not being detected
  • these are all combined numerically to produce a Criticality Index
105
Q

Page 23

Criticality Index -

A
  • rough quantitative estimate of the magnitude of hazard posed by each step in a high-risk process
106
Q

Page 24

Root Cause Analysis -

A
  • a structured method used to analyze serious adverse events
  • initially developed to analyze industrial accidents
  • identifying underlying problems that increase the likelihood of errors while avoiding the trap of focusing on mistakes by individuals
  • goal is to identify both active and latent errors
107
Q

Page 24

RCA Process -

A
  • begins with data collection and reconstruction of the event
  • multidisciplinary team
  • analyze the sequence of events leading to error
  • identifying how the event occurred through ID of active errors
  • identifying why the event occurred through the ID of latent errors
  • goal of RCA is to prevent future harm by eliminating latent errors
108
Q

Page 24

Factors that may lead to Latent Errors

A
  • Institutional/ regulatory
  • Organizational / Management
  • Work Environment
  • Team environment
  • Staffing
  • Task-related
  • Patient Characteristics
109
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Institutional / Regulatory

A
  • a patient on anticoagulants received an intramuscular pneumococcal vaccination, resulting in a hematoma and prolonged hospitalization because the hospital was under regulatory pressure to improve its pneumococcal vaccination rates
110
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Organizational / management

A
  • a nurse detected a medication error, but the physician discouraged her from reporting it
111
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Work Environment

A
  • lacking the appropriate equipment to perform hysteroscopy, operating room staff improvised using equipment from other sets. During the operation, the patient suffered an air embolism
112
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Team Environment

A
  • a surgeon completed an operation despite being informed by a nurse and the anesthesiologist that the suction catheter tip was missing. The tip was subsequently found inside the patient, requiring re-operation
113
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Staffing

A
  • an overworked nurse mistakenly administered insulin instead of an anti-nausea medication, resulting in hypoglycemic coma
114
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Task Related

A
  • an intern incorrectly calculated the equivalent dose of long-acting MS Contin for a patient who had been receiving Vicodin. The patient experienced an opiate overdose and aspiration pneumonia, resulting in a prolonged ICU course
115
Q

Page 24
Factors that may lead to Latent Errors
Examples - Patient Characteristics

A
  • the parents of a young boy misread the instructions on a bottle of acetaminophen, causing their child to experience liver damage
116
Q

Page 25

Medication Reconciliation -

A
  • the process of avoiding inadvertent inconsistencies across transitions in care by reviewing the patient’s complete medication regimen at the time of admission, transfer, and discharge and comparing it with the regimen being considered for the new setting of care
117
Q

Page 27

Name 6 patient Identifiers

A
  • Name - Photo ID
  • DOB - Phone #
  • MR # - Last 4 SS #
118
Q

Page 27
IR Procedures may require specific patient assessment
Who can perform the assessment?

What does it need to include?

A
  • Radiologist, Nurse Practitioner, Physicians Assistant, or referring provider
  • Focused History and Physical, assessment of risk factors for sedation if needed, and relevant labs
119
Q

Page 27

Informed Consent

A
  • required for invasive procedures
  • may be required or at least advisable for some diagnostic imaging
  • a process and not the simple act of signing a formal document
  • should be obtained from the patient or the patient’s legal representative by the physician or other healthcare provider performing the procedure, or by other qualified personnel assisting that person
  • the final responsibility for answering the patients questions and addressing any patient concerns rests with the physician
120
Q

Page 27

Elements of Informed consent

A
  • Discussion of the proposed procedure including benefits and potential risks (every conceivable risk does not need to be relayed to the patient), and reasonable alternatives to the procedure
  • the patient should also be informed of the risks of refusing the procedure
  • must be obtained before procedure-related sedation is administered
121
Q

Page 28

How do you obtain consent when the patient is not able?

A
  • from the patient’s appointed healthcare representative, legal guardian, or appropriate family member
  • in emergency situations when the patient needs immediate care and consent cannot be obtained from the patient or a representative, the physician may provide treatment or perform a procedure ‘to prevent serious disability or death or to alleviate great pain or suffering
122
Q

Page 28

Why do we perform a Time-out

A
  • Joint Commission’s Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, and Wrong Person Surgery
  • Marking the incision site on the patient’s skin is required when there is more than one possible location for the procedure and when performing the procedure in a different location would negatively affect quality or safety
123
Q

Page 28

What has to be confirmed during a time out?

A
  • Patient Identity
  • Correct site of the procedure
  • Procedure being performed
124
Q

Page 28

Maximum sterile barrier technique requires?

A
  • Defined by the National Quality Measures Clearinghouse

- Cap, mask, sterile gown, sterile gloves, large sterile sheet, hand hygiene, and cutaneous antisepsis

125
Q

Page 29

Minimal Sedation or Anxiolysis

A
  • the administration of medications for the reduction of anxiety and the drug-induced state during which the patient responds to verbal commands
  • in this state, cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, but ventilatory and cardiovascular functions are unaffected
126
Q

Page 29

Moderate Sedation/Analgesia

A
  • a minimally depressed level of consciousness in which the patient retains a continuous and independent ability to maintain protective reflexes and a patent airway and to be aroused by physical or verbal stimulation
127
Q

Page 29

Deep Sedation/ Analgesia

A
  • drug-induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation
  • the ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired
  • patients may require assistance in maintaining a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate
  • cardiovascular function is usually maintained
128
Q

Page 29

General Anesthesia

A
  • a controlled state of unconsciousness in which there is a complete loss of protective reflexes, including the ability to maintain a patent airway independently and to respond appropriately to painful stimulation
129
Q

Page 30

Anesthesiologists Physical Status Classification (ASA)

A
  • Class I - normal healthy patient
  • Class II - mild systemic disease
  • Class III - severe systemic disease
  • Class IV - severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
  • Class V - moribund patient not expected to survive w/o operation
  • Class VI - brain-dead, organs being removed for donor purposes
130
Q

Page 30

Which ASA Classes qualify for moderate sedation?

A
  • Class I and II
131
Q

Page 30

Requirements for conscious sedation

A
  • Nurse
  • IV Access
  • Continuous monitoring
  • Level of Consciousness, RR, Pulse Ox, BP, HR, and Rhythm
  • Similar monitoring is also needed in recovery
132
Q

Page 30

Reversal Agents

A
  • their duration of effect may be shorter than the sedating agent
  • risk or relapse in to a deeper level of sedation
  • level of consciousness and vital signs should return to acceptable levels for a period of two hours from the time of administration of the reversal agent before monitoring ends
133
Q

Page 30
MR Safety
Four Zones

A
  • Zone I - unrestricted
  • Zone II - Interface between Zone’s I and IV
    • Greet patients, obtain history, and screen pts for MR safety
  • Zone III - there is potential danger of serious injury or death
    • Scanner control room is in Zone III
    • Strictly restricted with physical barriers including locks
  • Zone IV - the MR scanner magnet room
    • Highest risk area
    • Should be clearly demarcated & marked as potentially hazardous
    • Access should be under direct observation of MR personnel
    • In a medical emergency, pt should be immediately removed to a
      magnetically safe location while resuscitation is begun
134
Q

Page 32

What is ‘Low Osmolality” contrast media relative to human serum?

A

Osmolality twice that of human serum

135
Q

Page 32

What is the overall incidence of contrast media reactions?

A

0.2 to 0.7 %

136
Q

Page 32

What is the incidence of severe or life threatening reactions?

A

0.01 - 0.02 %

137
Q

Page 32

List three goals for contrast administration according to the ACR Manual on Contrast Media

A
  1. To assure that the administration of contrast is appropriate for the patient and the indication
  2. To minimize the likelihood of a contrast reaction
  3. To be fully prepared to treat a reaction should one occur
138
Q

Page 32

What is the greatest risk factor for allergic contrast reaction?

A
  • history of prior reaction to contrast

- associated with a five times increased risk of subsequent reaction

139
Q

Page 32

What increases a patients risk of contrast reaction?

A
  • Any other allergic history, particularly anaphylaxis
  • Atopy (hyperallergic syndrome) results in a 2-3 times increased risk
  • Asthma
  • Significant Cardiac Disease
  • Anxiety (controversial)
140
Q

Page 32

What is the ideal route and timing of premedication?

A
  • Oral medication at least six hours from initial administration of contrast
  • Supplemental administration of H-1 antihistamine will reduce urticaria, angioedema, and respiratory symptoms
141
Q

Page 32

How does the osmolality of contrast media affect the likelihood of a reaction?

A
  • hyperosmolality stimulated release of histamine from basophils and mast cells
  • increased size and complexity of the contrast molecule may also potentiate the release of histamine
142
Q

Page 33

What are the two most frequently used elective premedication regimens listed in the ACR Manual on Contrast Media?

A
  • Prednisone 50 mg po at 13, 7 and 1 hour before injection, plus Benadryl 50 mg IV / IM / or PO 1 hour before injection
  • Methylprednisolone 32 mg by mouth 12 hours and 2 hours before injection, Benadryl may be added / 200 mg hydrocortisone IV may be substituted for oral prednisone if the patient is unable to take po
143
Q

Page 33

Are IV Steroids effective for premedication?

A

-IV steroids have not been shown to be effective when administered fewer than 4-6 hours prior to contrast injection

144
Q

Page 33

Name one regimen for IV contrast recommended by the ACR Manual for shorter time-frame premedication

A
  • Solu-Medrol 40 mg or Solu-Cortef 200 mg IV every 4 hours until contrast study plus Benadryl 50 mg IV 1 hour prior to injection
145
Q

Page 33
During a contrast reaction, what observations will allow the responding physician to quickly determine the severity of the reaction?

A
  • Level of Consciousness - Lung Auscultation
  • Appearance of the skin - Blood Pressure
  • Quality of phonation - Heart Rate
146
Q

Page 33
Contrast Reaction
Proper diagnosis of the reaction includes evaluating for?

A
  • Urticaria - Vagal Reaction
  • Facial or Laryngeal edema - Seizure
  • Bronchospasm - Pulmonary Edema
  • Hemodynamic Instability
147
Q

Page 34

Classification of reactions

A
  • Mild - signs and symptoms are self-limited without evidence of progression
  • Moderate - signs and symptoms are more pronounced and commonly require medical management
  • Severe - signs and symptoms are often life-threatening and can result in permanent morbidity or death if not managed appropriately
148
Q

Page 34

Examples of severe allergic-like reactions

A
  • diffuse or facial edema with dyspnea
  • diffuse erythema with hypotension
  • laryngeal edema with stridor / hypoxia
  • wheezing or bronchospasm with significant hypoxia
  • anaphylactic shock (hypotension and tachycardia)
149
Q

Page 34

Examples of severe physiologic reactions

A
  • vasovagal reaction unresponsive to treatment
  • arrhythmia
  • convulsions or seizures
  • hypertensive emergency
150
Q

Page 34
Management of contrast reactions
- Hives

A
  • No treatment needed in most cases
  • Benadryl if symptomatic - 25 to 50 mg PO for mild or IV if severe
  • Allegra can be used as an alternative for Benadryl
  • If severe
    • epinephrine IM (1:1000) 0.3 ml (=0.3 mg) or
    • epinephrine IV 1-3 ml or 1:10,000 dilution slowly into a running IV
  • Monitor vital signs and maintain IV access in moderate/severe cases
151
Q

Page 35
Management of contrast reactions
- Diffuse Erythema

A
  • Preserve IV access, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • Mask O2, 6-10 liters/min
  • If pt normotensive, no further treatment is usually needed
  • If pt is hypotensive, give 1000 cc IV fluids rapidly
  • Profound hypotension
    • Consider epinephrine 1:10,000 IV 1-3 cc slow IV infusion
      - can be repeated q 5-10 min as needed up to 10 cc (1mg)
    • If no IV, give epi IM (1:1000) 0.3 ml (=0.3 mg) up to 1 mg
152
Q

Page 35
Management of contrast reactions
- Laryngeal Edema

A
  • Preserve IV access, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • O2 at 6 to 10 liters/min
  • Epinephrine IM (1:1000) 0.3 ml (=0.3 mg)
  • If hypotensive - Epinephrine IV (1:10,000) 1 to 3 ml (=0.1 to 0.3 mg) slow infusion
  • Repeat epinephrine as needed up to a maximum of 1 mg
  • Consider calling emergency response team
153
Q

Page 35
Management of contrast reactions
- Bronchospasm

A
  • Preserve IV, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • Mask O2 at 6 to 10 liters / min
  • Beta-agonist inhaler albuterol 2 puffs (90 mcg per puff)
  • In moderate cases consider epi / may repeat up to 1 mg
  • IV epi in severe cases
  • Consider calling emergency response team
154
Q

Page 35
Management of contrast reactions
- Hypotension of any cause
- Systolic BP of less than 90

A
  • Preserve IV access
  • Elevate legs or Trendelenburg
  • Mask O2
  • Rapid IV fluids
155
Q

Page 36
Management of contrast reactions
- Hypotension with Bradycardia (pulse of less than 60 bpm
- Vagal Reaction

A
  • If mild, no additional treatment is needed beyond that listed for any cause (Trendelenburg, IV bolus)
  • If severe, give ATROPINE 0.6 to 1.0 mg IV slowly, followed by NS flush
  • May repeat atropine up to 3 mg
  • Consider calling emergency response team
156
Q 
Page 36
Management of contrast reactions
 - Hypotension with Tachycardia
 - Pulse less than100 bpm
 - Anaphylactoid Reaction
A
  • If persists after basic measures
  • -> EPINEPHRINE
  • Consider calling emergency response team
157
Q 
Page 36
Management of contrast reactions
 - Hypertensive Crisis
 - Diastolic above 120
 - Systolic above 200
 - sxs of end organ compromise
A
  • Preserve IV access, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • O2 at 6 to 10 liters/min
  • LABETALOL 20 mg IV slowly over 2 min, can double dose every 10 min
  • If no labetalol, NITROGLYCERINE 0.4 mg sublingual, repeat q 5-10 min
  • LASIX 20-40 mg IV slowly over 2 min
  • Call emergency response team
158
Q

Page 36
Management of contrast reactions
- Seizures or Convulsions

A
  • Observe and protect patient
  • Turn patient on side to avoid aspiration
  • Suction airway as needed
  • Preserve IV access, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • O2 at 6 to 10 liters / min
  • LORAZEPAM 2-4 mg IV slowly to max dose of 4 mg
159
Q

Page 36
Management of contrast reactions
- Pulmonary Edema

A
  • Preserve IV access, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • O2 at 6 to 10 liters / min
  • Elevate head of bed
  • LASIX 20 to 40 mg IV slowly over 2 min
  • Consider MORPHINE 1 to 3 mg IV, may repeat 5-10 min
  • Consider calling emergency response team
160
Q

Page 37
Management of contrast reactions
- Hypoglycemia

A
  • Preserve IV access
  • O2 at 6 to 10 liters/ min
  • ORAL GLUCOSE if possible, 15 g of glucose tablet or 4 oz juice
  • If unable to swallow, D50W 1 ampule (25 mg) IV over 2 min
  • If unable to swallow and no IV, give GLUCAGON 1 mg IM
161
Q

Page 37
Management of contrast reactions
- Unresponsive ad pulseless

A
  • Check responsiveness
  • Activate emergency response team or call 911
  • Perform CPR
  • Defibrillate if available
  • EPINEPHRINE IV (1:10,000) 10 cc between 2 min cycles
162
Q

Page 37
Management of contrast reactions
- Anxiety (panic attack)

A
  • Diagnosis of exclusion
  • Pt must be asessed for developing signs and symptoms of another more severe reaction or condition, such as those listed
  • Preserve IV access, monitor vitals, pulse ox
  • If there is no identifiable manifestations of another diagnosis and there is normal oxygenation, consider this diagnosis
  • Reassure patient

Non Interpretive Skills (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions