Part B Flashcards

Everything there is to know about part B.

1
Q

What conditions allow the S76D to be approved for ditching ?

A

Not approved for ditching unless emergency flotation gear and suitable lifesaving equipment (life jackets, rafts, etc.) as required by the operating rules are installed, and compliance with FAR 29.1411, 29.1415 and 29.1561 is shown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of terrain avoidance warning system is on the aircraft?

A

The TAWS used on the aircraft is the Honeywell MK XXII Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many modes does the TAWS use to protect against CFIT and what are the modes based on?

A

The TAWS uses two sets of modes to protect against CFIT.

The Basic mode and the Enhanced mode

The basic modes (modes 2 through 6) are based on Radar altitude

The basic modes prevent descent into level or evenly sloping terrain.

The enhanced or “look ahead” modes are based on GPS position compared to terrain and obstacle databases.

The look ahead modes prevent the aircraft from running into sharply rising terrain or manmade obstacles.

Both modes provide visual and aural alerts when terrain/obstacle clearance is not assured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where can you find powerline information in the EGPWS database?

A

Power Line information is not included in the EGPWS database.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is the ATT mode of the AFCS required to be engaged?

A

ATT mode is required to be engaged while conducting IFR operations under the following conditions:

  • Instrument approach Flight Path Angles (FPA) in excess of 3°.
  • Climbing flight in excess of 1700 fpm.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When can the Depart (DPT) mode be used during cat A operations,

A

Depart (DPT) mode shall not be used during Category “A” takeoff operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Under what conditions can the ELT be tested?

A

The ELT shall only be activated when an emergency landing is imminent.

It may be actuated for test under the following conditions only:

  1. While on the ground.
  2. During the first five minutes of each hour.
  3. For a maximum duration of three sweeps of the warble tone (about one second).
  4. The control tower has been notified prior to the test.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What action should be taken in flight if the GPS FAIL caution illuminates?

A

If a GPS FAIL caution illuminates, navigation predicated on GPS must be discontinued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With the FMS operating in dead reckoning (DR) mode, for how long can navigation rely solely on the FMS?

A

Navigation shall not rely solely upon the FMS during periods of FMS operating in Dead Reckoning (DR) mode longer than 10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To reduce nose float oscillations what is the maximum recommended speed during sideways flight or crosswind for crosswind hover,

A

Significant nose float oscillations may occur above 10 knots in sideward flight or crosswind hover. Flight and hover into the wind will minimize float oscillations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the aircraft configuration considered to have been altered ?

A

The aircraft’s configuration is considered to have been significantly changed if any of the following equipment settings are altered:

  • Landing Gear
  • Altimeters
  • HISL (Strobe)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the procedures to be applied when selecting landing gear up or down ?

A

In order to ensure that both the pilot flying and the pilot monitoring are fully aware of the landing gear position, particularly during critical phases of flight, the following procedures will be adopted.

  • The landing gear will only be selected up or down following a positive call of “Landing Gear Up/Down” from the Pilot Flying (PF).
  • The call “Landing Gear Up” will only be made when flying at a speed of no less than:

OEI :- V.TOSS with a positive rate of climb
AEO :- At a height of not less than 200 feet and > 60 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the restrictions associated with opening the sliding door in flight?

A

The sliding door, if fitted, may be opened in flight subject to the following conditions:

  • Maximum airspeed with either one or two sliding doors in the full open and locked position is 125 KIAS.
  • Maximum airspeed for opening and closing the sliding door in flight is 125 KIAS, this includes climb at maximum continuous power and autorotation.
  • IMC flight is prohibited with either one or two sliding doors open.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the restrictions on the use of the white strobe light ?

A

Tail and bottom fuselage mounted High Intensity Strobe Lights (2000 candle power white strobes) with combination strobe (white) and anticollision (red) lights. Only one colour is illuminated at a time. Replaces baseline upper mounted anti-collision light.

The strobe light is controlled by two switches - OFF/ON and POS/BOTH.
Depending on the serial number of the aircraft, this switch may be located either above the LH or RH pilot:

When the OFF/ON switch is selected to ON and the POS/BOTH switch to POS, only the position lights are on. When the POS/BOTH switch is selected to BOTH, the strobe and position lights are both on.

The following operational restrictions apply to the use of the WHITE strobe:

The WHITE strobe must be switched to POS on the following occasions:

  • When on the ground, unless approaching or on the active runway.
  • During flight if any undesirable strobe effects are observed.
  • Before landing on an offshore installation to avoid causing eye injuries to deck personnel. The strobe must not be switched back to WHITE until after take-off from a deck.
  • At night
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How should the barometer settings be set when flying at a flight level?

A

In order to increase PMs monitoring capability, PF and PM should be set to the same barometric pressure setting.

For example when flying at Flight Levels both PF and PM set Standard 1013hPa and the Standby Altimeter shall be set to the Regional or Area QNH for MSA monitoring purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the recommended taxi speed?

A

Normal taxi speed should not exceed 10 knots groundspeed. Maximum groundspeed for taxi operations is 54 knots on paved runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the maximum wheel taxi distance on the 76D?

A

The S76D should not, under normal circumstances, wheel taxi for more than a distance of 1.5 miles/3 kms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During high speed running landings, what is the speed to fly at with the landing gear down for cooling and for how long.

A
  • After take-off following a period of prolonged wheel brake use, leave landing gear extended for a minimum of 5 minutes before gear retraction.
  • During high speed running landings, allow 2 minutes of intervening forward flight time above 50 KIAS, or 10 minutes of intervening ground time between maximum performance wheel brake applications, to permit brake disc cooldown.
19
Q

What is the recovery action for a biomechanical oscillation?

A

When on the ground, it is important to always keep the collective in trim by depressing the trim release when moving it.

Care must be taken to avoid inadvertent movements of the collective against the trim, e.g.
whilst traversing a bump on the taxiway, as this could trigger violent biomechanical oscillations.

The collective must be guarded at all times by keeping a hand lightly touching or in close proximity to it.

Should such biomechanical oscillations occur, the recovery action is to depress the trim release, lower the collective fully, then let go of the collective.

20
Q

What is the take off distance for the following headwind component.

  1. 0 Kts
  2. 10 kts
  3. 20 kts
A

0kts Headwimd = 1300 ft
10kts Headwind = 1000 ft
20kts Headwind = 700 ft.

21
Q

How often should the power assurance check be done ?

A

An Engine Power Assurance Check (EPAC) must be performed at least every 20 flight hours or following engine maintenance.

22
Q

What is the approximate float inflation time?

A

10 Seconds

23
Q

For how long can an aircraft with a malfunctioning rotor brake caution light be flown before rectification?

A

Pilots are not to accept any aircraft with a malfunctioning ROTOR BRAKE caution light. Any unserviceability of this indicating system should automatically render the aircraft AOG pending engineering rectification.

24
Q

What could be the indication of a failure of a main rotor head damper piston rod?

A

In-flight failure of a main rotor head damper piston rod is indicated by an increase in head vibration, especially in the lateral plane.

If these symptoms are encountered in flight a diversion should be made.

The rotor brake is not to be applied during the subsequent shutdown.

25
Q

What is the Category A landing distance for the following unfactored headwind components

  1. 0kts
  2. 10Kts
  3. 20Kts
A
  1. 700ft
  2. 550ft
  3. 400ft
26
Q

What is the Alternate category A landing distance for the following unfactored headwind components

  1. 0kts
  2. 10Kts
  3. 20Kts
A
  1. 1300ft
  2. 1090ft
  3. 880ft
27
Q

What is the maximum cabin weight to ensure the use of fuel to the minimum inflight content of 30lbs without causing the COG limits to be infringed?

A

Provided no more than 1300lbs of freight is carried in the cabin, regardless of whether seats are fitted or not, then the use of fuel down to the minimum in flight fuel of 30lbs will not cause the centre of gravity limits to be infringed.

28
Q

What type of PLB is fitted to the liferaft?

A

The Techtest 500-27Y Multi-Function Personal Locator Beacons plus Embedded GPS is now fitted within each liferaft.

29
Q

What type of first aid kit is carried on the aircraft?

A

One Type “C” First Aid Kit is carried.

30
Q

How long will the emergency torches last for once removed from their mountings?

A

4.2 hours.

31
Q

Where is the dukane acoustic beacon located?

A

One “Dukane” underwater acoustic beacon is mounted on the CVFDR in the nose of the aircraft. The beacon transmits on 37.5 KHz for 30 days from being submerged below a depth of 30 feet.

32
Q

What are the 3 levels of traffic threats normally illustrated by the TCAS?

A
  1. Non-Threat Traffic (more than +/- 1,200 feet or at a range over 5 nm),
  2. Proximity Intruder Traffic (within +/- 1,200 feet relative altitude and/or at a range under 5 nm)
  3. Traffic Alert (potential conflict with another aircraft within 30 seconds).
33
Q

What are the 3 selectable altitude display modes of the TCAS?

A
  1. Normal (+/- 2700 feet),
  2. Above (- 2,700 feet to + 8,700 feet), and
  3. Below (+ 2,700 feet to - 8,700 feet). TCAS is controlled using the CCDs.
34
Q

What is the maximum desired ground contact speed during autorotation ?

A

Maximum desired ground contact speed is 40kts.

On soft ground surfaces the ground contact speed should be kept to a minimum (30kts maximum on a grass surface) to avoid damage to the undercarriage and a subsequent roll over.

35
Q

How does the aircraft emergency lighting function?

A

With the switch in the ARM position, it monitors the aircraft generated DC supply and operates the emergency light when this supply fails. The unit’s selfcontained battery is charged when aircraft supplies are operating normally.

36
Q

How long will the emergency lighting operate for?

A

20 minutes.

37
Q

What is the recommended speed to fly on entering turbulence

A

It is recommended that, on entering turbulence, crews make a positive power adjustment to reduce airspeed to 120 KIAS.

38
Q

What is the recommendation for putting off the fuel levers, during engine shutdowns?

A

If an engine fuel lever is moved to the OFF position too early, the FCU will be starved of fuel, reducing the lubrication the fuel provides as well as running the risk of cavitation within the fuel pumps.

To prevent this from happening, on shutdown, the engine fuel levers should not be moved to OFF until:

• The blades have come to a complete stop
• The N1 gauges read 10% NG or less

39
Q

How is the extra fuel allowance calculated when flying single engine, in strong winds ?

A

To allow for the extra fuel required to reach the destination following an engine failure in strong headwinds, add 1% more fuel for each knot of wind over 45 knots when departing into a headwind at a take-off weight above 11,000 lbs at temperatures above ISA.

40
Q

What effect does flying with the undercarriage down have on fuel consumption.

A

With the undercarriage “down”, fuel requirements are increased by as much as 20%.

41
Q

How many hours of

  1. Voice
  2. Data

Can the CVFDR record?

A

FDR/CVR Combined Flight Data Recorder (FDR) and Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR), which is capable of recording

120 minutes of voice and

25 hours of data.

Also includes ultrasonic underwater locator beacon, control panel mounted in center console, 10 minute emergency power supply, and miniature cockpit area microphone installed in instrument panel

42
Q

On which side FMS should flight plan modifications be verified.

A

All FMS flight plan modifications shall be verified on the side in command FMS after activation.

43
Q

What is the minimum authorized RNP value for procedures?

A

Procedures requiring RNP of less than 0.3 nm are not authorized.

44
Q

If an engine fuel lever is moved to the OFF position too early, the FCU will be starved of fuel, reducing the lubrication the fuel provides as well as running the risk of cavitation within the fuel pumps.

To prevent this from happening, on shutdown, the engine fuel levers should not be moved to OFF until……?

A

The blades have come to a complete stop

The N1 gauges read 10% NG or less