Part As - 2007-2011 Flashcards

1
Q

Is the resting membrane of an excitable cell many times MORE/LESS permeable to sodium compared to potassium?

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is the Na+/K+ ATPase pump necessary to restore the membrane potential to its resting value at the end of an action potential?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Increasing the external potassium concentration HYPERPOLARISES/DEPOLARISES the resting membrane potential of an excitable cell

A

Depolarises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Will the resting membrane potential of this excitable cell be the same as the potassium equilibrium potential (Ek)?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmia drug

A

beta-adrenoceptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nasal decongestant

A

alpha1-adrenoceptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Suppression of contractions during pregnancy

A

beta2-adrenoceptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Myasthenia gravis drug

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ophthalmic inspection

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient who has ingested an unknown drug presents with the following symptoms:
 increased salivation
 difficulty with breathing
 decreased heart rate
 hypotension
 abdominal colic
 pupillary constriction
From the list provided select: The class of drug that probably caused these effects

A

inhibitor of cholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient who has ingested an unknown drug presents with the following symptoms:
 increased salivation
 difficulty with breathing
 decreased heart rate
 hypotension
 abdominal colic
 pupillary constriction
From the list provided select: The main type of receptor involved

A

muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient who has ingested an unknown drug presents with the following symptoms:
 increased salivation
 difficulty with breathing
 decreased heart rate
 hypotension
 abdominal colic
 pupillary constriction
From the list provided select: A drug class that might worsen the difficulty with breathing

A

beta2-adrenoceptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient who has ingested an unknown drug presents with the following symptoms:
 increased salivation
 difficulty with breathing
 decreased heart rate
 hypotension
 abdominal colic
 pupillary constriction
From the list provided select: A drug class that might worsen the hypotension

A

alpha1-adrenoceptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A patient who has ingested an unknown drug presents with the following symptoms:
 increased salivation
 difficulty with breathing
 decreased heart rate
 hypotension
 abdominal colic
 pupillary constriction
From the list provided select: A drug class that would block the symptoms

A

muscarinic receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The main neurotransmitter released from preganglionic parasympathetic neurones is

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The main action of this neurotransmitter on the postganglionic parasympathetic neurones is

A

excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Excitation is mediated by

A

nicotinic cholinergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The main neurotransmitter released from postganglionic parasympathetic neurones is

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parasympathetic ACh acts on

A

muscarinic cholinergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lidocaine

A

Na+ channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Propranolol

A

beta-adrenoceptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Amiodarone

A

K+ channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Verapamil

A

Ca2+ channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Adenosine

A

Purinergic receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
From the following list select four factors that increase the velocity of conduction of an action potential in nerve fibres
- decrease in external resistance - decrease in internal resistance - decrease in membrane capacitance - increase in membrane resistance
26
What is the velocity of conduction in A alpha nerve fibres?
100 m/sec
27
Select the membrane channel responsible for the inward current during the depolarising phase of the action potential in nerve fibres
voltage-gated Na+ channel
28
Name one drug that blocks Na+ channels
tetrodotoxin - TTX
29
Select which membrane channels are responsible for the repolarising phase of the action potential in nerve fibres
delayed rectifier K+
30
Name a drug that blocks K+ channels
tetraethylammonium - TEA
31
What accounts for the absolute refractory period that follows an action potential
voltage-gated Na+ channel
32
Ouabain acts on
Na+/K+ ATPase
33
Tetrodotoxin acts on
Voltage gated sodium channels
34
Tetraethyl ammonium ion acts on
Voltage gated potassium channels
35
cAMP acts on
Protein kinase A
36
Neostigmine acts on
Acetylcholinesterase
37
Therapeutic use of Beta 2 adrenoceptor agonist
Asthma
38
Therapeutic use of Cholinesterase inhibitors
Myasthenia gravis
39
Therapeutic use of inhibitor of angiotensin converting enzyme
Hypertension
40
Therapeutic use of Na+ channel blocker
Cardiac dysrhythmia
41
Therapeutic use of Inhibitor of H+/K+ ATPase
Peptic ulcer
42
Example of a non-depolarizing blocking agent at the neuromuscular junction
Tubocurarine
43
Example of an irreversible antagonist of a metabolic enzyme
Aspirin
44
Example of a stimulant at the autonomic ganglia
Nicotine
45
Example of a blocker of vesicular transport
Reserpine
46
Example of a a reversible competitive antagonist on gastro-intestinal smooth muscle
Atropine
47
Match from the drop-down list below the following receptors or enzymes to the principal second messenger response which they elicit: Muscarinic M2 receptor
cAMP fall
48
Match from the drop-down list below the following receptors or enzymes to the principal second messenger response which they elicit: Oxytocin receptor
IP3 rise
49
Match from the drop-down list below the following receptors or enzymes to the principal second messenger response which they elicit: β2-adrenoceptor
cAMP rise
50
Match from the drop-down list below the following receptors or enzymes to the principal second messenger response which they elicit: α1-adrenoceptor
IP3 rise
51
Match from the drop-down list below the following receptors or enzymes to the principal second messenger response which they elicit: Nitric oxide synthase
cGMP rise
52
Noradrenaline in peripheral sympathetic nerves is released from preganglionic sympathetic nerves
False
53
Noradrenaline in peripheral sympathetic nerves is synthesised from dopamine
True
54
noradrenaline in peripheral sympathetic nerve transport into presynaptic vesicles is proton-dependent
True
55
noradrenaline in peripheral sympathetic nerve action is terminated by transporters located both pre- and postsynaptically
True
56
noradrenaline in peripheral sympathetic nerves once released - its action is blocked by an inhibitor of tyrosine hydroxylase
False
57
Example of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
physostigmine
58
Does Cl- contribute to the downstroke of the action potential?
No
59
Which ion makes the greatest contribution to the resting membrane potential?
K+
60
Rigor Mortis is due to myoplasmic ATP depletion. This results in rigor because
myosin head remains attached to actin
61
Acts on a Nicotinic receptor
Alpha-bungarotoxin
62
Acts on an Epithelial sodium channel
Amiloride
63
Acts on Voltage-gated calcium channel
Nifedipine
64
What is a clinical use for an inhibitor of voltage gates Na+ channels?
local anaesthetic
65
Which type of ion channel underlies the upstroke of the action potential in smooth muscle?
Ca2+
66
State a molecule that can inhibit Ca2+ channels
verapamil
67
Example of an Alpha 1 receptor agonist
phenylephrine
68
Example of an Alpha 1 receptor antagonist
prazosin
69
Example of an Inhibitor of noradrenaline release
guanethidine
70
Example of an Uptake 1 inhibitor
Cocaine
71
Example of a Beta receptor agonist
isoprenaline
72
The mechanism of action of depolarizing blockers at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction involves competitive antagonism of Nicotinic receptors
False
73
The mechanism of action of depolarizing blockers at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction involves inactivation of voltage gated sodium channels in muscle fibres
True
74
The mechanism of action of depolarizing blockers at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction involves stimulation of nicotinic receptors
True
75
The mechanism of action of depolarizing blockers at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction involves blockade of voltage gated calcium channels
False
76
The mechanism of action of depolarizing blockers at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction involves inhibition of acetylcholine release from motoneurones
False
77
What is the typical concentration of intracellular K+?
140 mM
78
What is the typical concentration of intracellular Na+?
15 mM
79
At rest, is the normal cell membrane more permeable to Na+ or K+?
more permeable to K+
80
What is the stoichiometry and direction of Na+ and K+ movements powered by the Na+/K+ ATPase in a resting cell?
3Na+ out and 2K+ in
81
Myelination increases conduction velocity because it
Decreases membrane capacitance
82
One mechanism that releases the ion from the endoplasmic (or sarcoplasmic) reticulum
IP3
83
A calcium binding protein that mediates the effects of calcium
Calmodulin
84
A calcium-activated enzyme that stimulates smooth muscle contraction
myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)
85
Example of a ganglion blocker
trimetaphan
86
Action potential conduction velocity in the largest myelinated nerve fibre is
120 m/s
87
Myelination increases conduction velocity because it
permits saltatory conduction
88
The sequence of nerve block by local anaesthetics is
pain first, then general sensory, then motor last
89
A clinical use of a voltage-gated K+ channel blocker is
antidysrhythmic
90
A depolarising blocker at the skeletal neuromuscular junction
suxamethonium
91
A blocker of autonomic ganglia receptors
hexamethonium
92
Sympathetic nerves innervate the motor endplate in skeletal muscle
False
93
Parasympathetic nerves innervate the motor endplate in smooth muscle
False
94
Smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract is directly innervated mainly by sympathetic nerves
False
95
Parasympathetic nerves contract bladder smooth muscle
True
96
Insulin is a
tyrosine kinase receptor
97
Noradrenaline in peripheral sympathetic nerves is released from preganglionic sympathetic nerves.
False
98
Noradrenaline is synthesised outside the vesicle in nerve terminals and then transported into the vesicle
False
99
Released NA acts on muscarinic M3 receptors in bladder smooth muscle
False
100
Once released the action of NA is terminated by tyrosine hydroxylase
False
101
NA, by action at beta1-adrenoceptors, increases cAMP levels in the heart
True
102
Nicotinic ACh receptors are found in
parasympathetic ganglia
103
Muscarinic ACh receptors are found in
endothelial cells
104
Bradycardia is produced by acetylcholine action on
M2 muscarinic cardiac receptors
105
The TWO main mechanisms underlying bradycardia are
a decrease in cAMP and potassium channel activation
106
The upstroke of the action potential in cardiac pacemaker cells is due to
L type voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
107
Hyperpolarisation is due to
voltage-gated K+ channels
108
Regarding the rate of rise of the cardiac action potential, local anaesthetics will
decrease it
109
Cortisol is produced in the
adrenal cortex
110
The upstroke of the action potential in skeletal muscle is usually blocked by calcium channel blockers
False
111
Skeletal muscle fibres have a well-defined t-tubule system
True
112
Sarcomeres are poorly developed in skeletal muscle
False
113
Troponin C binds calcium and initiates cross bridge cycling
True
114
The endplate potential is initiated by the actions of acetylcholine released from somatic motor nerves acting at muscarinic M3 receptors
False
115
An example of a primary active ion-transporter is
SERCA (sarcoplasmic endoplasmic reticular Ca2+- ATPase)
116
An example of a secondary active ion transporter is
Na+ -glucose symporter
117
The Na+ /K+ ATPase is directly inhibited by the drug
cardiac glycoside
118
and (v) Na+ /K+ ATPase inhibition causes the following two effects
Fall of intracellular K+ and rise of intracellular Na+
119
The typical equilibrium potential for K+ ions (EK) across the plasmalemma of a resting nerve cell (measured inside relative to outside; in mV) is
-90
120
The typical equilibrium potential for Na+ ions (ENa) across the plasmalemma of a resting nerve cell (measured inside relative to outside; in mV) is
60
121
Raising the extracellular K+ concentration bathing a nerve cell would
make Ek less negative (more positive)
122
Reducing the extracellular concentration of Na+ ions would
Make ENa more negative (less positive)
123
Noradrenaline released at a noradrenergic synapse is removed from the cleft by
Both presynaptic and postsynaptic reuptake
124
Acetylcholine applied to the heart
Decreases atrial contractility
125
Which of the following drugs is a Ca2+ channel antagonist that may be used for treatment of cardiac arrhythmias?
verapamil
126
The major excitatory receptor on skeletal muscle
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
127
The major mammalian presynaptic channel controlling transmitter release
Neuronal calcium channel
128
Enzyme for breaking down acetylcholine
AChE
129
Depolarizing NMJ blocker
Suxamethonium
130
Non-depolarizing NMJ blocker
Tubocurarine
131
Action potentials occur in most smooth muscles
True
132
Intracellular cAMP generally contracts smooth muscle cells
False
133
Smooth muscle contraction is generally faster than cardiac muscle
False
134
Troponin C is the major calcium regulated protein in the control of smooth muscle contractility
False
135
Neurotransmitters often evoke smooth muscle contraction by stimulating a rise in inositol trisphosphate (IP3)
True
136
Catecholamine neurotransmitter example
Noradrenaline
137
Thin filaments
Actin
138
thick filaments
Myosin
139
Where are calcium release channels located in skeletal muscle
Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
140
Where are nicotinic receptors on skeletal muscle located
Sarcolemma
141
During contraction, which of the following remains constant in length?
I band
142
The major adrenoceptor in ventricular muscle whose activation increases cardiac contractility
β1
143
The adrenoceptor in liver cells whose activation leads to glycogenolysis
α1 and β2
144
An adrenoceptor whose activation leads to vascular smooth muscle contraction
α1
145
an adrenoceptor whose activation leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation
β2
146
a presynaptic adrenoceptor whose activation leads to decreased neurotransmitter release
α2
147
A doubling of the intracellular Na+ ion concentration will ... membrane ion transport by Na+ /K+ ATPase proteins.
Stimulate
148
A change of extracellular K+ ion concentration to 2.0 mM will ... membrane ion transport by Na+ /K+ ATPase proteins.
Decrease
149
A selective inhibitor of Na+ /K+ ATPase proteins is
Digoxin
150
The Na+/K+ ATPase protein is
primary active ion transporter
151
The depolarization phase (from point A-C) of an action potential is mediated by ionic current flow through
voltage-gated Na+ channels
152
The initial (local) depolarization (immediately after point A) is mediated by
ligand-gated ion channels
153
From region C to D the process primarily responsible is ionic current flow through
voltage-gated K+ channels
154
Membrane potential at point E is more negative than point A due to
open K+ channels
155
Local anaesthetics act directly on
voltage-gated Na+ channels
156
Ionotropic receptors
are ligand gated ion channels
157
Metabotropic receptors
are coupled downstream to G proteins
158
Sympathetic nerves constrict blood vessels
by releasing noradrenaline that binds to α1 receptors
159
Synaptic transmission at sympathetic autonomic ganglia is blocked by
a nicotinic antagonist
160
Electrical coupling between adjacent cardiac myocytes is blocked by
a rise of intracellular [H+]
161
Contraction in fast twitch skeletal muscle is caused by
an action potential propagating in the transverse tubules
162
Skeletal muscle relaxation is mediated by
pumping of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
163
Myocardial contraction is
reduced by verapamil
164
Contraction of vascular smooth muscle can typically be caused by
IP3 dependent release of sarcoplasmic reticular Ca2+
165
Contraction of skeletal muscle fibres is triggered by activation of sarcolemmal
nicotinic receptors
166
Beta adrenergic receptors are coupled to the G-protein
Gs
167
Beta adrenergic receptors modulate the concentration of the second messenger
cyclic AMP
168
Cyclic AMP levels can be decreased by the enzyme
phosphodiesterase
169
Cyclic AMP activates
Protein kinase A
170
Methylxanthines inhibit
phosphodiesterase
171
The extracellular free concentration of Ca2+
1 mM
172
The extracellular concentration of Na+
140 mM
173
The intracellular concentration of Na+
15 mM
174
The intracellular free concentration of Ca2+ is lower than extracellular free Ca2+ concentration by approximately
10,000 fold
175
The intracellular concentration of K+ is
140 mM
176
The primary barrier to ion diffusion across membranes is
the hydrophobic core
177
The resting membrane potential is due to a flow of ions mainly through
K+ channels
178
The Na+/K+ pump obtains energy from
ATP
179
Acetylcholine is removed from the neuromuscular junction mainly by
hydrolysis
180
At the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs are
agonists
181
At the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, common non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs are
competitive antagonists
182
Non-depolarizing neuromuscular block can be reversed by
neostigmine
183
The catecholamine neurotransmitters are synthesized from the amino acid
Tyrosine
184
Activation of alpha1 adrenergic receptors would acutely
Increase blood pressure
185
Airway smooth muscle can be relaxed by inhalation of a (an)
beta agonist
186
Catecholamine neurotransmitters are removed from the synapse by
Reuptake
187
Amphetamines act by
displacing catecholamines from secretory vesicles
188
In cardiac muscle during a ventricular action potential the rapid depolarization is mediated by
Na+ influx
189
In cardiac muscle during a ventricular action potential the plateau phase is mediated mainly by
Ca2+ influx
190
During excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac cells, membrane depolarization is transduced into Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum by
Ca2+ induced Ca2+ release
191
A stimulant at the autonomic ganglia
Nicotine
192
A blocker of acetycholine uptake into vesicles
vesamicol
193
A competitive antagonist of alpha1 adrenoceptors
prazosin
194
Smooth muscle cells are electrically connected by gap junctions
True
195
Smooth muscle cells have a well-defined t-tubule system
False
196
Sarcomeres are poorly developed in smooth muscles
True
197
Troponin C binds calcium and initiates cross bridge cycling
False
198
Smooth muscle cells in blood vessels are usually innervated by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
False