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Part A > Part A > Flashcards

Part A Flashcards

0
Q

What vertical separation must be maintained from terrain or obstacles in Dragonair aircraft?

A
  • 1,000ft up to 5,000ft elevation; or
  • 2,000ft for obstacles or terrain higher than 5,000ft

8.1.1.1 P9

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1
Q

If a discrepancy is noted between Airbus and Dragonair documents, which is the overriding authority?

A

The Dragonair documents shall be the overriding authority

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2
Q

When on a well defined track between two separate NAVAIDS, vertical separation from terrain and obstacles must be maintained within:

A
  • 10nm laterally; and
  • 10nm past reporting or checkpoints

8.1.1.1 P9

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3
Q

When not on a route defined between two separate NAVAIDs, vertical separation must be maintained for terrain or obstacles within:

A
  • 20nm laterally; and
  • 20nm beyond reporting or checkpoints

8.1.1.1 P9

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4
Q

What document must be reviewed before flying on routes with high terrain or special procedures?

A

Enroute Diversion Guide

8.1.1.1 P9

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5
Q

When may MOCA suffice for the LSALT?

A

When flying along a published route or track where MOCA provides separation within the width of the airway.

8.1.1.1 P9

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6
Q

When would a MEA suffice for LSALT?

A

When flying along that published route.

8.1.1.1 P9

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7
Q

When flying off route, what must be referenced to establish the LSALT?

A

The Grid MORA

8.1.1.1 P9

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8
Q

How is the MEA calculated?

A

It provides 1,000ft of additional separation above the highest grid MORA on the route.

Check in part C

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9
Q

When using MOCA, MEA or grid MORA, what overriding consideration must the commander make?

A

The commander must be satisfied with the accuracy of navigation in relation to the track being followed.

8.1.1.1 P9

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10
Q

May the minimum altitudes published on a STAR be used?

A

Yes (With the assumption that you are flying accurately on the STAR)

8.1.1.1 P9

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11
Q

25nm MSA’s provide 1,000ft of separation from terrain and obstacles but they do not guarantee what?

A

Navaid reception

8.1.1.1 P9

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12
Q

MSA’s are approved for use as the LSALT provided which three points are complied with:

A
  • The navaid on which the MSA is based is tuned, identified and continuous reception is maintained
  • The commander is satisfied that the aircraft is within 25nm of the specified aid
  • For GPS approaches, the commander must be satisfied that the aircraft is within 25nm of the MSA reference point
    8. 1.1.1 P9
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13
Q

Lower than MSA/MORA etc separation standards are authorised under which four conditions?

A

1) When carrying out a published and approved approach procedure
2) When IFR under positive radar control
3) When IFR but in VMC and 1,000ft on top of cloud or in sight of land or water; or
4) When VFR

8.1.1.1 P9/10

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14
Q

Within 25nm of the departure or arrival airfield under radar control, what vertical and lateral separation must be maintained?

A

1,000ft and 5nm either side of track or intended track must be maintained.

  • Crews must be ready to assume responsibility in the event of a com failure
    8. 1.1.1 P10
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15
Q

In the case of a pressurisation failure, crews must be aware of and level off above the prevailing safe altitude. What must be set on the altimeters in the case of an emergency descent?

A

QNH

8.1.1.1 P11

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16
Q

Following an engine failure in the cruise what are the three strategies that can be used?

A
  • Standard Strategy (0.78/300kt @ MCT)
  • Obstacle Strategy (G/D @ MCT)
  • Fixed Speed Strategy (320/VMO @ MCT); all followed by
  • Descent to landing (IDLE/M0.78/300/250kt)
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17
Q

What is the approximate increase in fuel consumption when OEI?

A

33%

PER-OEI-GEN-05 P7

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18
Q

In the presence of mountain waves, what is the minimum vertical separation required from the mountain in question?

A

5000ft above mountains up to 5,000ft elevation;
and the height of the mountain for any terrain above 5,000ft

8.1.1.1 P12

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19
Q

In marked areas of turbulence, what is the recommended separation from the tropopause?

A

5,000ft above or below the tropopause

8.1.1.1 P12

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20
Q

When must the safe altitude be increased to allow for wind effect?

A

Within 20nm of terrain that exceeds 2,000ft Elevation

8.1.1.1 P12

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21
Q

When must altimeter corrections be applied to the MSA?

A

Whenever the surface temperature is lower than ISA-15*C

8.1.1.1 P12

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22
Q

When the surface temperature is below ISA-15C but above ISA-31C, what correction should be applied to the MSA?

A

10%

8.1.1.1 P12

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23
Q

Are cold weather corrections applicable to MRA, MORA, and MOCA?

A

Yes

8.1.1.1 P12

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24
Q

When cold weather corrections have been applied, which type of approach mode is prohibited?

A

FINAL APP mode is prohibited.
- NAV-FPA or TRK-FPA must be used

8.1.1.2 p13

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25
Q

For an RNAV GNSS approach at or below ISA-15*, if the surface OAT is above the limit on the chart what temperature corrections should be applied to:

  • LNAV/VNAV DA:
  • LNAV MDA:
A

NONE

8.1.1.2 p13

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26
Q

If the surface OAT is below the temperature limit on on an RNAV GNSS approach chart, may the approach still be flown?

A

Yes, but only to the temperature corrected LNAV MDA

8.1.1.2 p13

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27
Q

What is the meaning of a Category A airport?

A

Flight crew may operate there unrestricted

8.1.2.1 p14

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28
Q

What is the validity of category B airport certification?

A

13 Months

8.1.2.1 p14

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29
Q

Prior to operating to a category B airport, what must the crew member sign?

A

The Aerodrome Competency Certificate

8.1.2.2 p15

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30
Q

What is the validity of category C airport certification?

A

12 Months

8.1.2.2 p15

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31
Q

What does PE mean when considering recency for airport category certification?

A

Physical Entry - Operation to the airport as operating crew and listed on the GenDec

8.1.2.2 p15

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32
Q

In flight, what is the minimum RFF category required for landing?

A

The commander may land at an aerodrome regardless of its RFF category if in is judgement after giving due consideration to all prevailing circumstances to do so would be safer than to continue.

8.1.2.3 p17

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33
Q

PALS provides additional lighting guidance from how many metres before and how many metres into the runway?

A

300m before; and
900m into the runway

8.1.2.4 p17

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34
Q

May a commander plan to operate to a port without an instrument approach aid?

A

Not without authorisation from the AGMF

8.1.3.1

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35
Q

Minimum RVR’s are specified in metres. Some states publish a minimum visibility, what units are used to measure visibility?

A

Kilometres

8.1.3.1

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36
Q

When is the only time that factoring of visibility may be used to obtain an equivalent RVR?

A

At the preflight planning stage - minima for destination airport

8.1.3.1

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37
Q

What is the minimum circle to land altitude and visibility required for Dragonair operations?

A

1,000ft AAL and 4,600m or the chart minima if higher!

8.1.3.1

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38
Q

PANS-OPS circling minima provides what separation above the highest obstacle?

A

394ft

8.1.3.1

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39
Q

What is the sea level category D circling area distance?

A
  1. 02nm from each threshold

8. 1.3.1

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40
Q

What is the 1,000ft category D circling area distance?

A
  1. 28nm measured from each threshold

8. 1.3.1

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41
Q

What is the size of the FAA TERPS circling area?

A
  1. 3nm from each threshold

8. 1.3.1

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42
Q

What separation from the highest obstacle does FAA TERPS circling minima provide?

A

300ft

8.1.3.1

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43
Q

What is the size of the Japan TERPS circling area?

A
  1. 5nm from each threshold

8. 1.3.1

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44
Q

ICAO standard LLZ course protection extends to 35* within what distance?

A

17nm

8.1.3.1

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45
Q

ICAO standard LLZ course protection extends to 10* within what distance?

A

25nm

8.1.3.1

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46
Q

Above what conditions is the Glidepath area no longer protected?

A

800ft ceiling and two statute miles visibility

8.1.3.1

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47
Q

What is the meaning of an ADEQUATE AIRPORT?

A
  • Satisfactory for the performance and runway requirements of the aircraft
  • The airport will be available and equipped with ATS, sufficient lighting, communications, weather reporting; and
  • At least one serviceable NAVAID or RNAV(GNSS) approach; and
  • Has adequate emergency services

8.1.4.1

48
Q

What is the meaning of a SUITABLE AIRPORT?

A

An airport is ‘suitable’ if it is adequate for Dragonair operations AND the meteorological conditions meet the planning minima for the relevant time period taking into account the:

  • approach
  • runway
  • aircraft; and
  • crew capabilities

8.1.4.1

49
Q

What buffer applies to adverse weather for the destination?

A

No buffer is applicable.

8.1.4.2

50
Q

What time buffer is applicable to the alternate aerodrome?

A

+/- One hour

8.1.4.2

51
Q

Which minima applies at the takeoff alternate?

A

CAT I or NPA if a precision approach is not available

8.1.4.2

52
Q

Weather conditions at the destination must be forecast to be at or above what minima?

A

The landing minima

8.1.4.2

53
Q

At the preflight planning stage, when may PROB’S, TEMPO’s and INTER’s be ignored for the destination?

A

For the destination airport landing minima, forecast PROB/TEMPO/INTER visibilities may be ignored.

8.1.4.2

54
Q

At the planning stage, when is cloud ceiling limiting for destination minima?

A
  • If conducting a non-precision approach
  • It should be evaluated but is not limiting when a precision approach is available.

8.1.4.2

55
Q

At the preflight planning stage, where the destination approach is a non ILS approach, what is the minimum cloud ceiling?

A

The cloud ceiling must be above the appropriate DH/MDH (DA/MDA)

8.1.4.2

56
Q

For the purposes of preflight planning, when is an aircraft considered to have dispatched?

A

From the time the parking brake is released prior to commencing pushback or taxi.

8.1.4.1

57
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what limits apply to crosswind at the destination?

A

Crosswind must be within the aircraft and crew limits

8.1.4.2

58
Q

If the destination forecast including any PROB, TEMPO or INTER includes FZRA, +FZRA, FZDZ, +FZDZ, what requirements are imposed on the alternate?

A

Within a period one hour before and one hour after the time of intended use, the alternate forecast shall not have any intensity of FZRA or FZDZ including any PROB, TEMPO or INTER.

8.1.4.2

59
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what requirements are imposed if the destination forecast indicates periods of -FZRA or -FZDZ?

A

Arrival may be planned during periods of light freezing rain or drizzle

8.1.4.2

60
Q

At the preflight planning stage, if the destination forecast indicates that LVO minima will be required, what requirements are imposed?

A

A destination alternate which permits CAT I operations should be selected.

8.1.4.2

61
Q

What requirements are imposed at the preflight planning stage if the destination actual or forecast weather or any combination thereof indicate the weather at the time of intended landing will be below the published landing minima or a forecast is not available?

A
  • Two destination alternates must be selected
  • Wx must meet criteria for filing as a destination alternate
  • Fuel shall be planned to permit diversion to the most distant of the two selected alternates; and
  • All destination alternates must be listed on the CFP

8.1.4.2

62
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what additions must be applied to calculate the minima for filing as a alternate with one available approach to a single runway?

A
  • 400ft to published DA/MDA/DH/MDH; and
  • 1,500m (1SM) to the published visibility or RVR

8.1.4.2

63
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what additions must be applied to calculate the minima for filing as a alternate with two or more available approaches to separate suitable runways?

A
  • 200ft to the higher of the two least restrictive published DA/MDA; and
  • 800m (1/2SM) to the hither of the two least restrictive published visibilites or RVR’s

8.1.4.2

64
Q

What is the meaning of a ‘separate’ runway for preflight alternate planning purposes?

A
  • A separate landing surface located at the same airport.
  • May overlay or cross such that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway; and
  • Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate approach NAVAID
  • *A published RNAV(GNSS) approach shall satisfy this requirement

8.1.4.2

65
Q

What is the meaning of a ‘suitable’ runway?

A

A runway where a safe landing may be made taking into account the forecast weather conditions.

8.1.4.2

66
Q

Can LVO minima be used to calculate minima for filing as an alternate?

A

No

8.1.4.2

67
Q

Which cloud coverage abbreviations constitute a cloud ‘ceiling’?

A

BKN or OVC

8.1.4.2

68
Q

Crew calculated alternate weather minima must not be less than what?

A

Published state alternate weather minima

8.1.4.2

69
Q

May arrivals at an alternate airport be planned during periods of FZDZ?

A

No. Arrivals should not be planned ruing periods of forecast moderate freezing drizzle.

8.1.4.2

70
Q

May arrivals be planned to an alternate aerodrome with a forecast indicating periods of -FZDZ?

A

Yes in the case of light freezing drizzle however alternate arrivals should not be planned into periods of moderate freezing drizzle.

8.1.4.2

71
Q

May arrivals at an alternate airport be planned during periods of FZRA?

A

No. Arrivals should not be planned ruing periods of forecast moderate freezing rain.

8.1.4.2

72
Q

May arrivals be planned to an alternate aerodrome with a forecast indicating periods of -FZRA?

A

Yes in the case of light freezing rain, however alternate arrivals should not be planned into periods of moderate freezing rain.

8.1.4.2

73
Q

When do forecast PROB’s, INTER’s or TEMPO’s apply to destination alternate weather minima?

A

They apply only if they indicate conditions below the landing minima

Not applicable to island reserve

8.1.4.2

74
Q

Where company published alternate weather minima are different for the same airport, which one shall be used?

A

Crew shall determine whether the appropriate runway will reasonably be available before selecting the lower of the related alternate minima.

8.1.4.2

75
Q

Beyond what flying time to the alternate does the Island Reserve fuel policy apply?

A

1 hour and 45 minutes from the destination

8.1.4.2

76
Q

What authorisations are required for use of Island Reserve fuel policy?

A
  • DOM; or
  • Line Operations department

8.1.4.2

77
Q

At the planning stage, which en-route alternates must meet the minima for filing as an alternate?

A

Any ERA that is nominated in support of OEI or DEPRESS mandatory fuel calculations.

8.1.4.2

78
Q

Unless conducting ETOPS, twin engined aircraft are to remain within 60 minutes of a what airport?

A

An ADEQUATE airport; i.e. forecast wx no applicable to the 60 min rule

8.1.4.2

CLARIFY THIS ANSWER

79
Q

To remain within 60 minutes of an adequate airport, what nominated distance must the A320 and A321 remain within?

A
  • A320: 424nm

- A321: 404nm

80
Q

At the preflight planning stage, with one alternate nominated, what are the destination visibility requirements?

A
  • Visibility must be above the landing minima
  • Ok to factor
  • LVO ok if alternate ≥ CAT 1

8.1.4.2

81
Q

At the preflight planning stage with one alternate filed, what are the destination cloud ceiling requirements?

A
  • If precision: Evaluate
  • LVO ok if ALTN ≥ CAT 1
  • NPA: ≥ Landing minima

8.1.4.2

82
Q

At the preflight planning stage with one alternate filed, what are the destination PROB/TEMPO/INTER visibility requirements?

A

None.

8.1.4.2

83
Q

At the preflight planning stage with one alternate selected, what are the destination PROB/TEMPO/INTER cloud ceiling requirements?

A
  • ILS: Not limiting
  • Non-ILS: ≥ Landing minima

8.1.4.2

84
Q

At the preflight planning stage with one alternate selected, what are the destination crosswind requirements?

A

Crosswind must be within the aircraft and crew limits

8.1.4.2

85
Q

At the preflight planning stage with two alternates nominated, what is the minimum destination weather allowed for dispatch?

A

With two alternates, destination weather is not limiting.

8.1.4.2

86
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the destination alternate visibility requirements?

A

Must be ≥ minima for filing as an alternate

8.1.4.2

87
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the destination alternate cloud ceiling requirements?

A

Must be ≥ minima for filing as an alternate

8.1.4.2

88
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the destination alternate PROB/TEMPO/INTER visibility requirements?

A

Must be ≥ landing minima

8.1.4.2

89
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the destination alternate PROB/TEMPO/INTER cloud ceiling requirements?

A

Must be ≥ landing minima

8.1.4.2

90
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the destination alternate crosswind requirements?

A

Must be within aircraft and crew limits

8.1.4.2

91
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the nominated OEI/Depress ERA visibility requirements?

A

At or above minima for filing as an alternate.

8.1.4.2

92
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what are the nominated OEI/Depress ERA cloud ceiling requirements?

A

At or above minima for filing as an alternate.

8.1.4.2

93
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the nominated OEI/Depress ERA PROB/TEMPO/INTER visibility requirements?

A

At or above minima for filing as an alternate.

8.1.4.2

94
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the nominated OEI/Depress ERA PROB/TEMPO/INTER cloud ceiling requirements?

A

At or above minima for filing as an alternate.

8.1.4.2

95
Q

At the preflight planning stage what are the nominated OEI/Depress ERA crosswind requirements?

A

Must be within aircraft and crew limits.

8.1.4.2

96
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what are the non-nominated ERA crosswind requirements?

A

Must be at or above landing minima

8.1.4.2

97
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what are the non-nominated ERA cloud ceiling requirements?

A

Must be at or above landing minima

8.1.4.2

98
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what are the non-nominated ERA PROB/TEMPO/INTER visibility requirements?

A

Must be at or above landing minima.

8.1.4.2

99
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what are the non-nominated ERA PROB/TEMPO/INTER cloud ceiling requirements?

A

Must be at or above landing minima.

8.1.4.2

100
Q

At the preflight planning stage, what are the non-nominated ERA crosswind requirements?

A

Must be within the aircraft and crew limits.

8.1.4.2

101
Q

What minima shall be used to assess the adequacy of any airport after dispatch?

A

The landing minima including aircraft or crew crosswind limits.

8.1.4.3

102
Q

A flight may not continue to the intended destination or pass the PNR unless what?

A
  • The latest available information indicates that at the ETA a landing can be made at the destination; or
  • At least one alternate airport

8.1.5.1

103
Q

If the printer is U/S, what are the requirements for recording weather information?

A

It must be recorded on the CFP.

8.1.5.1

104
Q

What are the post-flight requirements for use of the ATIS auto-update function?

A

Auto-update must be cancelled before leaving the aircraft.

8.1.5.2

105
Q

Does digital receipt of weather information via ACARS satisfy the weather recording requirements?

A

No, a written or printed copy must be retained in the flight documents envelope.

8.1.5.2

106
Q

What four encountered weather phenomena should trigger a PIREP?

A
  • CAT
  • Windshear
  • Airframe Icing; and
  • Volcanic Ash

8.1.5.4

107
Q

Can a flight dispatch without a SIG WX chart?

A

Yes, for the avoidance of doubt a SIG WX chart is not a required document for despatch purposes.

8.1.5.5

108
Q

What five elements should be included in a hazardous weather PIREP?

A
  • Nature of weather encountered
  • Time
  • Location
  • Flight Level; and
  • Intensity

8.1.5.5; and also
FCOM PRO-SUP-91 Adverse Weather; and also
Operations Manual Part C - GEN chapter 5

109
Q

Who has final the final decision on selection of a diversion port during a Typhoon?

A

The commander. IOC will attempt to provide guidance on which port is preferred.

8.1.5.5

110
Q

What is the meaning of a RED lightning warning?

A

Lightning is forecast or detected within 1km around the airport.

8.1.5.5

111
Q

What is the meaning of an AMBER lightning warning?

A
  • Lightning is detected within 5km of the ARP, and
  • There is an intense radar echo within 15km of the ARP; or
  • Lightning is forecast to be within 5km of the ARP
112
Q

How long will an AMBER lightning warning be maintained after the conditions for issuing the warning cease?

A

4 minutes

8.1.5.5

113
Q

When will ATC advise arriving aircraft of a RED or AMBER lightning warning?

A

After being transferred to the ground frequency.

8.1.5.5

114
Q

What will happen to crew transport after the issue of a RED lightning warning?

A

It will continue except to remote stands where crews should remain on board the crew bus until the red warning is cancelled.

8.1.5.5

115
Q

May boarding from the PTB commence after the issue of a RED lightning warning?

A

Yes. Boarding / disembarkation will continue as normal.

8.1.5.5

116
Q

May boarding or disembarkation at outer bays continue after the issue of an AMBER lightning warning?

A

Yes, operations continue as normal during AMBER warnings.

8.1.5.5

117
Q

May boarding or disembarkation at outer bays continue after the issue of a RED lightning warning ?

A

No. Boarding or disembarkation will be suspended.

118
Q

May refueling continue after the issue of a RED lightning warning?

A

No. It will be suspended.

8.1.5.5

Part A (1 decks)

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