Part A Flashcards

1
Q

What is a CLEAR briefing

A

Crew name
Location
Event
Actions taken
Recommendation

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2
Q

What is a NITS briefing

A

Nature of the emergency,
Intentions of the captain
time remaining
Special instructions

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3
Q

go around action limit for airspeed

A

vref-5 to vapp +15

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4
Q

What does speed stable mean

A

no less than VRef and no greater than VApp +10kts

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5
Q

aircraft must be wings level by (15 degrees or less) - offset instrument approach

A

200ft

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6
Q

aircraft must be wings level by (15 degrees or less) - circling

A

300ft

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7
Q

aircraft must be wings level by (15 degrees or less) - visual

A

500ft

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8
Q

approach path limit for non precision

A

5 degrees +_

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9
Q

approach path limit for ILS / LOC

A

1/2 scale of LOC and GS

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10
Q

appropriate thrust must be set by … for all approaches

A

500ft

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11
Q

the aircraft must be speed stable during an approach by

A

500ft for all approaches

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12
Q

aircraft must be in final landing configuration by (circling approach)

A

500ft

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13
Q

aircraft must be in final landing configuration by (straight in)

A

1000ft

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14
Q

senior to flight deck is how many chimes of the seatbelt sign

A

5

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15
Q

can the midpoint RVR be used for landing in LVP’s

A

yes, if the TDZ RVR is not reported

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16
Q

criteria for LVP’s

A

the cloud ceiling is below 200 ft / the RVR is below 800m

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17
Q

min visual reference for catIIIa

A

three consecutive lights

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18
Q

visual reference for catIII aproach

A

three consecutive lights like the centreline lights

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19
Q

lowest minima for catiii

A

50 feet

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20
Q

lowest DH for cati

A

200ft

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21
Q

lowest DH for cat ii

A

100ft

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22
Q

what visual segment should be visible from the flight crew compartment on takeoff

A

90m (6 15m spaced HI RCLL)

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23
Q

what is min Vis for an FO takeoff

A

400m or above

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24
Q

separation for arrival behind heavy departure

A

2 minutes (3 if a380)

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25
Q

departure separation following a380 arrival on displaced runway

A

3 mins

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26
Q

separation from heavy on intersection departure (heavy full length)

A

3 mins (as supposed to 2)

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27
Q

separation behind a380 on an intersection

A

4 minutes (as supposed to 3)

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28
Q

separation behind heavy for 737

A

2 minutes

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29
Q

separation behind departing A380

A

3 minutes

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30
Q

behind 737 on arrival separation

A

None

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31
Q

timing behind 757

A

n/a or 4 mins uk

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32
Q

b737 weight class

A

icao medium uk departures meduk arrivals low med

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33
Q

how high to fly above storm clouds

A

5000ft if they have to be overflown 20miles ideally / or 10 miles laterally if no radar

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34
Q

when shall the commander declare a mayday for fuel

A

when the calculated usable fuel on landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome, where a safe, landing can be performed is less than the final reserve fuel

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35
Q

RVSM Levals and meaning

A

f290 to f410 / 1000ft down from 2000ft

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36
Q

NAT HLA reporting point time limit

A

3 minutes or more

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37
Q

in general NAT HLA clearance must be requested no later than …… minutes before the entry point

A

40

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38
Q

maximum vertical deviation for all Baro vnav approach is

A
  • 75 feet on passing FAF AND +_ 75 when below 1000ft ARTE or half scale is shown
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39
Q

RNP lateral limits

A

50% of RNP

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40
Q

RNAV lateral limit

A

RNAV lateral limit is 100% of the RNP

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41
Q

is the 737 installed with SBAS

A

No. raim checks required a 8.3.2.1.6

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42
Q

limits for PBN approach vertical and lat

A

vertical path angle 0.2 degrees inbound course 3 degrees

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43
Q

tracks on FMC for PBN

A

+_3 degrees

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44
Q

RNP VS RNAV

A

RNP requires aircraft nav integrity monitoring PBN that does not require this is called RNAV

45
Q

what is the purpose of PBN

A

to allow an aircraft to operate without radar control below MSA, with complex terrain , or where no reference can be made to ground based nav aids

46
Q

what is PBN

A

a recognised method of area navigation using ac based or space based nav aids with reduced or no reference to ground based nav beacons. all phases of flight

47
Q

minimum ground time for 738

A

45 minutes

48
Q

what is a regulation on fueling and PRMs

A

whilst PRM passengers are boarding from an ambulift it is not permitted to board other pastures through the opposing doors whilst the aircraft is being refuelled

49
Q

what is a regulation on fueling and PRMs

A

whilst PRM passengers are boarding from an ambulift it is not permitted to board other pastures through the opposing doors whilst the aircraft is being refuelled

50
Q

WCHC

A

wheelchair passenger who needs to be carried out of aircraft

51
Q

WCHS

A

wheelchair passenger who needs assistance downstairs

52
Q

WCHR?

A

wheelchair passenger who can walk out of the aircraft

53
Q

jet2 company policy minimum fuel uplift

A

1000 litres

54
Q

planning minima / type of approach - NPA / RNP-Apch (LNAV)

A

NPA MDH/RVR plus 200ft / 1000m cloud ceiling must be above revised MDH

55
Q

planning minima / type of approach RNP - APCH (Baro-VNAV)

A

NPA MDH/RVR (cloud ceiling must be at or above MDH)

56
Q

planning minima alternate field / type of approach - cat i

A

NPA MDH/ RVR (cloud ceiling must be at or above MDH)

57
Q

planning minima alternate field / type of approach - catii cat iii

A

cat I RVR

58
Q

mass and centre of gravity part A

A

part a 8.1.8

59
Q

fuel tankering on contaminated runways

A

No!

60
Q

when do we use a predetermined point procedure?

A

when it is not possible to load the required alternate fuel and final reserve fuel due to the distance between the destination and the destination alternate

61
Q

when do you use a reduced contingency fuel procedure rcfp

A

when it is not possible to load the fuel so contingency can be reduced below five minute minimum level

62
Q

alternate fuel when 2 destination alternate aerodromes used

A

must be fuel for the greater number

63
Q

what is additional fuel?

A

so, in the event of engine failure or loss of pressurisation in critical part en route, the aircraft may descend as necessary hold for 15 minutes at 1500 feet in standard conditions and make an approach and landing. normally covered normal fuel planning or add 15 minutes holding fuel at 1500 feet above destination, if no alternate required

64
Q

what is final reserve fuel?

A

fuel to fly for 30 minutes at 1500 feet above the aerodrome elevation in standard conditions using mass on arrival at the destination alternate

65
Q

what amount is contingency fuel

A

3%/ 5% or 20 minutes of holding fuel based on the aircraft takeoff weight. or an amount to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1500 feet above the destination aero drome in standard conditions

66
Q

what is contingency fuel

A

The fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption. maybe used during any portion of the flight after pushback or engine start

67
Q

what is Taxi fuel

A

The fuel expected to be burnt from engine start to the holding point of the planned departure runway taking into account APU burn

68
Q

A weather alternate is used when

A

The weather of operation conditions at the destination indicate that a diversion cannot be ruled out

69
Q

A company alternate is used when a diversion is

A

unlikely

70
Q

determination of the quantities of fuel and oil carried part a section

A

part a 8.1.7

71
Q

RAIM application for GNSS

A

no RAIM outages within 15 minutes of the ETA

72
Q

can we only have an RNAV arrival

A

A non-GNSS based approach must be available at either the destination or the destination alternate on when a destination alternate is required. 8.1.5.1.5

73
Q

The operator shall only select the destination aerodrome when

A

The appropriate weather report for a period of one hour before to 1 hour after at the ETA at or above the RVR from 8.1.3: for a non-precision approach or circling the ceiling at or above MDH

74
Q

location of planning minima chart

A

part a 8.1.5

75
Q

NALS

A

no approach lighting system

76
Q

BALS

A

basic approach light system

77
Q

IALS

A

intermediate approach light system

78
Q

FALS

A

Full approach light system

79
Q

what is the minimum for a side step approach?

A

The circling minima for the approach flown

80
Q

for a sidestep approach the parallel runway must not be more than

A

1200ft to either side of the runway

81
Q

min met vis for circling and MDH

A

600ft MDH and 2400m met vis

82
Q

visual approach operation RVR min

A

800m

83
Q

visual reference for catiii

A

A segment of at least three consecutive lights

84
Q

visual reference for catii

A

A segment of at least three consecutive lights and one lateral element

85
Q

visual reference for cat1

A

any element of the approach or lighting system?

86
Q

if the reported RVR is less than the minima the approach must be

A

start 1000 foot above the aerodrome. or the FAF, if the DA or MDA is more than 1000 foot above the aero drome

87
Q

737 airplane cat

A

C. calculated from VMcg

88
Q

can’t convert met VIS to RVR for

A

1) when there is an RVR
2) take off min
3) RVR less than 800m

89
Q

“relevant” for RVR

A

part of the runway used during a high speed phase of landing down to speed of approximately 60 knots

90
Q

RVR min values for midpoint and stopend

A

125m - midpoint 75m - stopend

91
Q

part a 8.1.3

A

methods and responsibilities for the determination of aerodrome operating minima

92
Q

max distance for adequate aerodrome

A

395 or 400 nm for non and winglets respectively

93
Q

RFF Minimuns

A

7 for type / departure and destination can be 6 or 5 in event of temp downgrade. all alternate types can be 5

94
Q

fire cat term

A

RFFS

95
Q

two destination alternates will be planned when

A

The appropriate weather reports for the destination say that from one hour before to 1 hour after the ETA weather below minimums

no Mett information available

96
Q

each flight planned with one destination alternate unless isolated or

A

flight less than 6 hours AND

two SEPARATE runways that are available and useable (2000ft cloud ceiling / circling +500ft) 5km vis

97
Q

take off alternate requirements

A

OEI cruise speed one hour

320nm for 738

98
Q

part a 8.1.2

A

criteria and responsibilities for determining the adequacy of aerodromes to be used

99
Q

part a 8.1.1

A

minimum flight altitudes

temp correction E.T.C

100
Q

mora corridor width

A

5nm either side of track

101
Q

minimum temperature for VNAV

A

-10 degrees

or approach plate limit when shown

102
Q

defect definitions a/b/c

A

a- when a captain defects a defect b- defect that effects airworthiness and should be rectified at the first opportunityc- does not effect airworthiness

103
Q

can 737 dispatch with an inop FMC

A

No

104
Q

can jet2 737 dispatch from uk base with an inoperative airconditioning pack

A

No

105
Q

deferring defects with no eningeer

A

items with (m) actions may not be deferred by captains

items with (o) actions may be deferred by commanders in accordance with part A 8.1.11.3

106
Q

pink tech log pages

A

remove and give to handling agent before departure

107
Q

yellow tech log pages

A

line engineers to remove no less than daily

108
Q

blue tech log page

A

leave in tech log

8.1.11

109
Q

white tech log page

A

for line engineers at jet2 base