Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?
    A. Training
    B. Development
    C. Vestibule
    D. Specialized courses
A

A. Training

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2
Q
  1. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
    A. Benchmark job technique
    B. Parametric technique
    C. Modular technique
    D. Non-modular technique
A

A. Benchmark job technique

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3
Q
  1. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
    A. Functional organization
    B. Territorial organization
    C. Process organization
    D. Product organization
A

A. Functional organization

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4
Q
  1. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
    A. Functional organization
    B. Territorial organization
    C. Process organization
    D. Product organization
A

D. Product organization

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5
Q
  1. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
    A. Functional organization
    B. Matrix organization
    C. Process organization
    D. Product organization
A

B. Matrix Organization

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6
Q
  1. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
    A. Functional organization
    B. Matrix organization
    C. Process organization
    D. Product organization
A

B. Matrix organization

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7
Q
  1. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
    A. Rapid reaction organization
    B. Adaptation to changing environment
    C. State-of-the-art technology
    D. Better utilization of resources
A

A. Rapid reaction organization

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8
Q
  1. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
    A. Dual accountability of personnel
    B. Conflicts between project and functional managers
    C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
    D. Inefficient use of specialist
A

D. Inefficient use of specialist

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9
Q
  1. Which one is an advantage of a projectized organization?
    A. Efficient use of technical personnel
    B. Good project schedule and cost control
    C. Single point for customer contact
    D. Rapid reaction time possible
A

A. Efficient use of technical personnel

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10
Q
  1. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
    A. Uncertain technical direction
    B. Inefficient use of specialist
    C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
    D. Slower work flow
A

D. Slower work flow

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11
Q
  1. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
    A. Efficient use of technical personnel
    B. Rapid reaction time possible
    C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
    D. Good technology transfer between projects
A

B. Rapid reaction time possible

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12
Q
  1. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
    A. Weak customer interface
    B. Weak project authority
    C. Inefficient use of specialist
    D. Slower work flow
A

C. Inefficient use of specialist

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13
Q
  1. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget?
    A. Functional organization
    B. Matrix organization
    C. Projectized organization
    D. Project coordinated organization
A

B. Matrix organization

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14
Q
  1. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
    A. Finance and accounting
    B. Customer relation
    C. Location
    D. Technology
A

C. Location

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15
Q
  1. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
    A. Overhead cost
    B. Type of technology used
    C. Location of the project
    D. Level of uncertainty in projects
A

C. Location of the project

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16
Q
  1. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to reach a compromise solution.
    A. Leadership
    B. Tradeoff analysis skill
    C. Authority
    D. Decision-making skill
A

B. Tradeoff analysis skill

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17
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
    A. Functional manager
    B. Project manager
    C. Chief engineer
    D. Department supervisor
A

B. Project Manager

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18
Q
  1. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively?
    A. Area manager
    B. Sales manager
    C. Functional manager
    D. Project manager
A

C. Functional Manager

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19
Q
  1. What is the major activity of the project support office?
    A. Administrative support for projects
    B. Support for tools and techniques
    C. Overall project management support
    D. Project management via the internet
A

A. Administrative support for projects

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20
Q
  1. What is the major activity of the project office?
    A. Administrative support for projects
    B. Support for tools and techniques
    C. Overall project management support
    D. Project management via internet
A

C. Overall project management support

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21
Q
  1. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
    A. Linear responsibility chart
    B. Gantt chart
    C. Life cycle model
    D. Project design chart
A

A. Linear responsibility chart

22
Q
  1. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element?
    A. Linear responsibility chart
    B. Matrix responsibility chart
    C. Responsibility interface matrix
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

23
Q
  1. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
    A. Forecasting
    B. Critical path method
    C. Program evaluation review technique
    D. Simulation
A

B. Critical path method

24
Q
  1. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
    A. Forecasting
    B. Critical path method
    C. Program evaluation review technique
    D. Simulation
A

C. Program evaluation review technique

25
75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as **CPM**. What does **CPM** stands for? A. Critical plan method B. Critical path method C. Critical project method D. Coordinated plan method
B. Critical path method
26
76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as **PERT**. What does **PERT** stands for? A. Project evaluation review technique B. Program evaluation review technique C. Path evaluation review technique D. Program execution review technique
B. Program evaluation review technique
27
79. In what year was **PERT** developed? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960
B. 1958
28
77. What is the benefit of **using PERT/CPM** network as integral component of project management? A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project. B. They illustrate the inter-dependencies of all tasks C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dates as well as the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date D. All of the above
D. All of the above
28
78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960
A. 1957
29
80. In **Morris life cycle model**, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
B. 4
29
81. What is the **first stage** in the life cycle of a project using Morris model? A. Planning and design B. Feasibility C. Production D. Turnover and startup
B. Feasibility
30
82. Risk management is: A. Risk avoidance B. Controlling risk C. To gain opportunities D. All of the above
B. Controlling risk
31
83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to **absorb the risk** in the project? A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule B. Use a different technology C. Use a different supplier D. Buying insurance
A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
32
86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive **evaluation of risk, costs and benefits** of alternative projects or policies? A. Risk management B. Risk-benefit analysis C. Benefit management D. Uncertainty analysis
B. Risk-benefit analysis
32
84. Buying insurance is a form of: A. Risk elimination B. Risk reduction C. Risk sharing D. Risk absorption
C. Risk sharing
33
85. What refers to any technique used either to **minimize the probability** of an accident or to **mitigate its consequences**? A. Reliability management B. Risk management C. Quality assurance management D. Project assurance management
B. Risk management
34
87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate **without the need to get an approval from his or her manager**? A. Responsibility B. Leadership C. Authority D. Tradeoff skill
C. Authority
35
88. What is **defined as a course of action** aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives? A. Goal B. Strategy C. Program D. Plan
B. Strategy
35
89. When there is a **degradation of service** provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge: A. Lacks leadership skill B. Has inadequate control C. Has poor organization D. Has no proper planning
B. Has inadequate control
36
91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the **SMEAC**. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for? A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
36
90. What **principal element of uncertainty** refers to a measure of the **relevance of available information** to the problem at hand? A. Statistical confidence B. Tolerance C. Incompleteness of the data D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem
B. Tolerance
37
92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for **administration**, which is the appropriate question will the manager ask? A. What do we need to get it done? B. What are we aiming to do? C. How are we going to do it? D. What is the operation environment?
A. What do we need to get it done?
37
94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the **next step**? A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance B. Develop a budget C. Develop a schedule D. Develop the technological concept
A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
38
93. In project management, what is usually the **first step** underlying in the process of performing a project? A. Select appropriate performance measures B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance C. Identify a need for a product or service D. Develop a technological concept
C. Identify a need for a product or service
39
95. What is usually **the last step** in the process of performing a project? A. Select appropriate performance measures B. Implement a plan C. Monitor and control the project D. Evaluate project success
C. Monitor and control the project
40
96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to complete than expected”. A. Three B. Four C. Two D. Two and a half
A. Three
41
97. In the **typical functional organization** hierarchy, the **chief engineer** is under the __________. A. Finance manager B. Manufacturing manager C. General manager D. Marketing manager
C. General manager
42
98. What is a diagram of the organization’s official **positions** and formal lines of authority called? A. Organization chart B. Authority chart C. Policy chart D. Control chart
A. Organization chart
43
99. What is defined as the process of **identifying and choosing alternative** courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations? A. Sampling theory B. Alternative-analysis C. Problem-solving D. Decision-making
D. Decision-making
44
100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the **technical know-how with the ability to organize and coordinate** workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money? A. Engineering management B. Engineering technology C. Technical manager D. General management
A. Engineering management