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Fire Driver Test > Part 2 > Flashcards

Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

To effectively judge the ability of a vehicle to pass through areas of restricted horizontal and vertical openings, you must know

A

Vehicle dimension

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2
Q

While participating in the diminishing clearance exercise, you must stop the apparatus with the front bumper within _____ inches of the finishing line

A

6

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3
Q

The purpose of the diminishing clearance driving skill is to measure a driver’s ability to

A

Steer apparatus in a straight line

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4
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle are responding along the same route, units should travel at least ______ feet apart

A

300-500 feet

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5
Q

While responding to an emergency where all lanes of traffic are blocked in the same direction, you may:

A

Move the apparatus into the opposing lane of traffic and proceed through the intersection at a reduced rate of speed

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6
Q

Studies have shown that an emergency vehicle traveling faster than ______ mph can possibly outrun the effective range of its audible warning device

A

50

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7
Q

Which is correct for safe operation and driving of aerial apparatus?

A

Be aware of the route’s general road and traffic conditions

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8
Q

These use of warning devices:

A

Negates some traffic laws

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9
Q

Many traffic accidents involving apparatus are caused by the operator

A

Being unaware of the vehicle potential for disaster

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10
Q

While responding to a call and you encounter a school bus with flashing lights, you must stop, then proceed

A

Only after a proper signal is given by the bus driver or police officer

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11
Q

During an evasive maneuver, you should

A

Always leave a way out

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12
Q

When faved with a situation requiring evasive tactics, you should attempt to pass the overtaken vehicle on

A

The left side

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13
Q

When left idling because of cold weather or floodlight operations, diesel engines should be set at:

A

High idle.

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14
Q

The purpose of an inverter on an apparatus is to transform

A

DC current into AC

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15
Q

NFPA 1901 establishes minimum requirement for forcible entry that specifically includes

A

Pickhead axes

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16
Q

The NFPA 1901 Standard requires all newer aerial apparatus to be equipped with a(an):

A

Two-way communication system

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17
Q

Which statement regarding vehicle-mounted generators is true?

A

They usually have a larger capacity than portable unit

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18
Q

Which statement regarding transmission - driven generators is true

A

They may provide 25,000 kilowatts or more

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19
Q

A disadvantage of having inverters is

A

Limited mobility from the vehicle

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20
Q

An advantage of having inverters is

A

Low or non-existent noise during operations

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21
Q

Which salvage, overhaul and loss control equipment are specifically required to be carried on an aerial by NFPA 1901?

A

Multiple salvage covers and two scoop shovels

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22
Q

While conducting a pump capacity test, if the net pump pressure is correct but the nozzle flow (gpm) is too high, the:

A

Discharge gate must be closed further, decreasing throttle

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23
Q

The 50 percent annual pump test on a quint apparatus is conducted at a net pump pressure of

A

250 psi for 10 min

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24
Q

During an annual pump test, an apparatus should deliver ____ of its rated capacity at 150 psi pump pressure for 20 mins

A

100%

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25
Q

Which condition should be between 0’F and 100’F during a service pump test?

A

Atmospheric temperature

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26
Q

A ______ gauge is designed to read both positive and negative pressure

A

Compound

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27
Q

Pumps on aerial apparatus should be hydrostatically tested at ______ psi for ______ minutes

A

510 psi, ten mins

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28
Q

Which valve determines whether the pump is operating in series or pressure mode?

A

Transfer valve

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29
Q

You should switch form pressure to volume mode when

A

More than half the rated capacity of the pump will be needed

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30
Q

An auxiliary cooling device

A

Cools engine water when the apparatus pump is engaged

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31
Q

The device that controls pressure surges by changing engine speed to compensate for changes in flow is a

A

Pressure governor

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32
Q

Switch from pressure to volume operation when

A

More than half of the rated capacity of the pump will be required

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33
Q

In a _____ hydrant, a small drain valve opens as the hydrant is closed

A

Dry - barrel

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34
Q

Excessive engine temperatures during pumping operations can be controlled by using the

A

Auxiliary cooler

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35
Q

The purpose of the _______ is to provide circulating feed from several mains

A

Grid system

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36
Q

Dry barrel hydrants should be opened completely because

A

The drain valve would be completely closed

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37
Q

In a water distribution grid, the _______ supplies individual hydrant and users

A

Distributor

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38
Q

_____ is corrosion or mineral deposits on the interior surface of the piping and components of a water distribution system
A. Encrustation
B. Sedimentation
C. Filtration
D. Hydrolyzation

A

A. Encrustation

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39
Q

Master streams requires a greater volume of water and are generally supplied by multiple hoselines with a Siamese or larger diameter hoseline, you must add ______ (psi) to your calculation for pressure loss

A

25 psi

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40
Q

The drafting sites that should be given preference are those

A

Accessible from a paved surface

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41
Q

In an auxiliary cooling system, heat is transferred from the engine coolant to the:

A

Pump discharge water

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42
Q

When making an intake connection at a hydrant, the intake hose should:

A

Have a slight curve

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43
Q

Using the condensed Q method, the friction loss in 500 feet of 3 inch fire hose flowing 300 gpm is

A

45 psi
P.287

44
Q

When a pumper is supplying four lines of 2 1/2’ hose, each equipped with a250 gpm fog nozzle at 100 psi, and each 300 feet long, the pump discharge pressure required is approximately

A

138 psi

P.215, 227 ex.7.8

45
Q

A fire hydrant with an orange bonnet and cap will flow ______ gpm

A

500-999

46
Q

The water level of a reservoir is 150 feet above a fire hydrant. What is the static reading at the hydrant?

A

65.1 psi

47
Q

The pressure remaining once water has begun flowing is _____ pressure

A

Residual

48
Q

Natural static water supply sources include

A. lakes.
B. Cisterns
C. Swimming pools
D. Private water tanks

A

A. Lakes

49
Q

Which best describes a wet-barrel hydrant?

A

Always contains water

50
Q

Which best describes a DRY hydrant

A

Opened valve allows water to fill barrel

51
Q

When pumping from a tank and attack lines are being used intermittently, the pump operator can ensure that the pump does not overheat by:

A

Setting the circulator valve to tank position

52
Q

Available flow from hydrants is estimated by determining the percent drop between the static and _______ pressure or by the first digit method

A

Residual

53
Q

The part of the total pressure not used to overcome friction or gravity while forcing water through fire hose, pipe, fittings, and adapters is

A

Residual pressure

54
Q

A hydrant with the largest capacity will be one that is connected to a

A

Primary feeder

55
Q

A fire hydrant with a GREEN bonnet and cap will flow _________ gpm.

A

1,000 - 1499 gpm

56
Q

An apparatus equipped with a 1,000 gallon tank that is supplying two preconnected handlines, one flowing 150 gpm and another flowing 100 gpm, will supply the lines for only _____ minutes

A

Four

57
Q

____ pressure is the difference between the pump discharge pressure and the incoming pressure from the hydrant

A

Net pump discharge

58
Q

The operation in which each impeller of multi-stage centrifugal pump discharge into a common outlet is

A

Parallel pumping

59
Q

The main feature of a relief valve is to

A

Release excessive pressure within the pump

60
Q

The amount of work that a pump must do to produce a fire stream is the _____ pressure

A

Pump discharge

61
Q

In drafting operations, pumping ability decreases when

A

Atmospheric pressure decreases

62
Q

Prior to changing fron tank water to an extended source

A

Make sure all air is bled from the intake

63
Q

The transition from the water tank to an external water supply:

A

Must be made without disrupting the fire attack

64
Q

In-line relay valves allow for

A

Late-arriving pumpers to hook up without interrupting operations

65
Q

In a relay pumping operation, which should be positioned nearest the water source?

A

The largest capacity pumper

66
Q

A dual-pumping operation is

A

Placing one pumper at a hydrant and a second pumper connected intake to intake

67
Q

When used in a relay pumping operation, the attack pumper

A

Determines the amount of water flow needed for the operation

68
Q

Pump discharge pressure is equal to

A

NP + TPL

69
Q

The residual pressure reading at the intake gauge of a pumper in a relay pumping operation should stay above ____ psi

A

20 psi

70
Q

Relay operations are based on

A

Fire flow needs and distance

71
Q

A mothod of relay pumping is

A

Constant pressure

72
Q

Relay pumping always begins with the

A

Source/supply pumper

73
Q

Relay operations should be shut down from the ______ first

A

Fire scene

74
Q

When used in relay pumping operation, the relay pumper

A

Acts as the booster pump in the operation

75
Q

The difference between dual pumping and tandem pumping is

A

Dual pumping the pumpers are connected intake to intake

76
Q

When relay pumping, of the intake pressure drops below 20 psi

A

There is danger of a cavitation

77
Q

Discharge manifolds may be used in relay operations to

A

Support more than one attack pumper

78
Q

Fire fighting foam consist of approximately ______ percent of water

A

94-99.9% water

79
Q

An example of polar solvent is

A

Acetone

80
Q

When using an in-line eductor, the back pressure must not exceed ___ pressure

A

70 percent of the inlet

81
Q

The process that causes foam concentrate to move through an in-line foam eductor and into the water stream is the ____ principle

A

Venturi

82
Q

Which statement about foam is true?

A

It works by separating, cooling, or suppressing

83
Q

Using an in-line eductor, the foam that is being generated is of very poor quality. Which is a common reason for the failure?

A

Flow through the eductor exceeds its rated capacity

84
Q

The ______ is the most basic type of portable foam proportioner

A

In -line eductor

85
Q

The foam application technique that directs the foam stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pool or spill is the

A

Roll-on method

86
Q

Which statement must be observed when using foam?

A

Foam concentration is correct at the rated inlet pressure of the eductor

87
Q

If the foam concentrate inlet to the educator is too high

A

Foam may not be inducted

88
Q

The selection of a proportioner depends on

A

Requirements and available water pressure

89
Q

When a vertical surface is near the foam application technique that can be employed is the:

A

Bank-down method

90
Q

A limitation of Compressed Air Foam System (CAFS) is

A

Hose reaction can be erratic

91
Q

A foam proportioner is the

A

Device that injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water

92
Q

A common reason for eductor failure is

A

Improper cleaning and maintenance

93
Q

Monitoring the water flow and controlling the speed of a positive displacement foam concentrate pump controls:

A

Variable flow, variable rate direct injection systems

94
Q

An operational disadvantage of an around the pump foam system is

A

Cannot take advantage of incoming pressure

95
Q

A factor to be considered when determining the rate of application for fire fighting foam is the

A

Type of foam concentrate used

96
Q

Low-energy foam system use _______ to impart pressure on the foam solution

A

A fire pump

97
Q

When pumping to a standpipe system, a pump operator should always allow _____ friction loss for the standpipe system

A

25 psi

98
Q

When applying automatic sprinkler systems, pressure should be built up slowly to ______ psi at the fire department connection.

A

150psi

99
Q

The purpose of the check valve in a fire department connection is to prevent:

A

Water from a sprinkler system from flowing backwhen

100
Q

Positioning a pumper to supply a fire department connection, the driver must consider the:

A

Positioning requirements of other apparatus

101
Q

Approximately ____ psi should be added to the desired engine pressure for each floor above the standpipe connection

A

5 psi

102
Q

When using hose lines above ground level, the usual pressure calculation is to add ____ psi for each story of the building

A

5 psi

103
Q

In a hydraulic system, the medium used to transmit force is

A

Hydraulic fluid

104
Q

Hydraulic systems for aerial devices use relief valves to

A

Prevent damage due to over pressurization

105
Q

The ______ valve directs hydraulic fluid from one hydraulic circuit to another

A

Selector

106
Q

The flow of hydraulic fluid within an aerial hydraulic circuit is controlled by

A

Valves

107
Q
A

Fire Driver Test (2 decks)

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