Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Patient was aware that physician was drunk yet he allowed the doctor to inject him:

A

res ipsa loquitor

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2
Q

Patient Mr. Lee promised to pay Dr. B one million pesos if he us cured of his cancer. The professional fee to be collected by B refers to:

A

contingent fee

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3
Q

HIV patient takes experimental drugs despite unknown side effects:

A

assumption of risk

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4
Q

There is direct physical connection between the wrongful act of the Physician and the injury suffered by the patient:

A

Doctrine of proximate cause

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5
Q

Principle applied when the medical fee is not specified:

A

“Asumpsit on quanthum merit”

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6
Q

Article 365 which deals with imprudence and negligence is a provision of:

A

Revised penal code

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7
Q

To which forum can an administrative complaint be filed against doctors?

A

Professional Regulation Comission

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8
Q

Reprimand is a sanction imposed against a doctor when he is guilty of what liability:

A

Administrative liability

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9
Q

If the license of a physician is suspended indefinitely, after how long can he apply for reinstatement?

A

2 years

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10
Q

What is the degree of proof/evidence needed to convict physician of a crime?

A

Guilt beyond reasonable doubt

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11
Q

The study of licensure laws, regulatory laws and physician-patient relationship, is known in medical school curriculum as:

A

Medical Jurisprudence

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12
Q

Which of the following does not affect a termination of physician-patient relationship?

A

withdrawal of physician without patient consent

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13
Q

A physician should never examine or treat hospitalized patient of another physician without the latter’s knowledge and consent except when:

A

in case of emergency, the attending physician is not readily available

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14
Q

A physician accused of criminal abortion was acquitted because:

A

the product of conception could not be produced in court

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15
Q

Mr. A brought his 3 yrs old son to a hospital. Dr. B, the admitting physician admitted the pediatric case to the medicine ward because the pediatric ward is full. During the night, the patient child was seen in the floor with a fractured skull resulting from a fall. It was found out that the bed was without railings. Mr. A wanted to sue Dr. B and the hospital. The doctrine applicable in this case would be:

A

Forseeability

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16
Q

Mr. A brought his 3 yrs old son to a hospital. Dr. B, the admitting physician admitted the pediatric case to the medicine ward because the pediatric ward is full. During the night, the patient child was seen in the floor with a fractured skull resulting from a fall. It was found out that the bed was without railings. Mr. A wanted to sue Dr. B and the hospital.
Suppose before admission Mr. A was informed of the absence of railings to protect the child from fall:

A

assumption of risk

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17
Q

Mr. A brought his 3 yrs old son to a hospital. Dr. B, the admitting physician admitted the pediatric case to the medicine ward because the pediatric ward is full. During the night, the patient child was seen in the floor with a fractured skull resulting from a fall. It was found out that the bed was without railings. Mr. A wanted to sue Dr. B and the hospital. Suppose Mr. A has already previously and repeatedly complained of the absence of railings to Dr. B but no attention was given to the complaint, which doctrine could be applicable?

A

continuing negligence

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18
Q

Suppose one day after an intramuscular injection a part of the needle was discovered protruding from the buttocks of the patient, what is the doctrine applicable?

A

res ipsa loquitor

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19
Q

Originally there were railings on the bed of the patient. Mr A, the father removed the railings so that he himself can sleep on the bed. His child fell with a broken skull. What is the doctrine applicable:

A

contributory negligence

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20
Q

Patient leaves the hospital against advice:

A

Contributory Negligence

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21
Q

Common defense of the hospital are regards consultants liability to his private patients:

A

Independent Contractor

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22
Q

The reporting of treatment of serious physical injuries by a physician is:

A

Mandatory

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23
Q

Under the doctrine the hospital owner may be liable for the mistakes of the residents:

A

Vicarious liability

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24
Q

Which of the following laws is enforced by the state:

A

Substantive law

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25
Q

A terminally ill patient is given an overdose of sedatives without his knowledge. What crime if any is committed by the doctor:

A

Murder

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26
Q

The bone which is most informative regarding the sex of the owner of the skeleton being examined is the:

A

Pelvis

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27
Q

The willful deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person:

A

Euthanasia

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28
Q

The cause of death resulting from lack of skill, lack of foresight, and reckless imprudence is called:

A

Negligence

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29
Q

When a body is the subject matter of a criminal investigation, it may be exhumed:

A

Anytime

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30
Q

Any change for the position of the cadaver will not change the location of this type of cadaveric lividity:

A

Diffusion

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31
Q

Exhumation is also known as:

A

disinterment

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32
Q

Deep burial sites will make decomposition :

A

slower

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33
Q

When blood accumulates in the most dependent portions of the dead body, it is called

A

post-mortem lividity

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34
Q

A missing person is presumed dead if he is not heard from for:

A

4 years

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35
Q

Musketry, electrocution, and hanging are examples of

A

judicial death

36
Q

If the physician performs euthanasia without the patients knowledge, he is guilty of:

A

murder

37
Q

If a 3-day old unidentified child was intentionally killed with cruelty, and during a calamity, the offender may be changed with:

A

murder

38
Q

Cadaveric rigidity is also known as

A

Rigor mortis

39
Q

Cadaveric rigidity is also known as

A

Rigor mortis

40
Q

The convict is put to death by a volley of fire from a firing squad in:

A

Muskety

41
Q

An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a natural cause):

A

48 hrs.

42
Q

An unembalmed body should be buried not later than: (if the person died as a result of a communicable disease):

A

12 hrs

43
Q

If one performed lawful act, and he did it with due care, and death occurred without intending to cause it, the death is

A

accidental

44
Q

Instantenous rigor is also known as

A

cadaveric spasm

45
Q

It is the prominence of the superficial veins with reddish discoloration due to the process of decomposition which develops on both flanks of the
abdomen.

A

Marbolization

46
Q

The following manner of death should be autopsied, EXCEPT

A

death occurring in natural manner

47
Q

A common law-husband who kills his common law wife with whom he has a 2 days old child can be prosecuted for

A

homicide

48
Q

Presidential Decree 169 mandates all doctors to report all cases involving:

A

less serious and serious physical

49
Q

When the color of the contusion changes to green, the contusion’s estimated age is

A

4-5 days

50
Q

Fracture produced by a tangential or glancing approach of bullet

A

gutter fracture

51
Q

This is a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the barrel which can accommodate five or six cartridge:

A

automatic pistol

52
Q

Tattooing is also known as

A

stippling

53
Q

Factors which make the wound of entrance bigger than the caliber, except

A

contraction of the elastic tissues of the skin

54
Q

“Pugilistic” position of a boxer is associated with

A

burns

55
Q

The average time required for death in drowning is

A

2-5 minutes

56
Q

This is quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left ventricle of the heart:

A

Gettler’s test

57
Q

The test which determines the whether semen is of human origin or not:

A

biological test of farnum

58
Q

It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as the crime charged.

A

confession

59
Q

The presence of weapon which is highly grasped by the hand of a victim of a shooting incident is an example of

A

cadaveric spasm

60
Q

Cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to develop is known as

A

immediate cause of death

61
Q

The principle used in the Magnus test for determining somatic death is

A

no change in color of the finger

62
Q

When the body surface of corpse is pressed it leaves a flattened area due to

A

loss of elasticity of the skin

63
Q

Cutis Galina or Washer woman’s hands and feet on the corpse signifies that:

A

the body has been in water for sometime

64
Q

Permission to disinter remains of persons who died of dangerous communicable diseases maybe granted after a burial period of

A

5 yrs

65
Q

This is a medical evidence made known or addressed to the senses of the court no limited to the sense of vision, but is intended to the sense of
hearing, taste, smell and touch

A

autoptic or real evidence

66
Q

The most prominent sign of death is

A

progressive fall of the body temperature

67
Q

The nature of liability against Dr. a would be:

A

civil

68
Q

The venue with which to file the case in case Mr. Ty demands P1 million pesos as payment would be:

A

Regional Trial Court

69
Q

The cost of the procedure to re-attach of Mr. Ty that was incided would be in nature of:

A

actual damages

70
Q

Mr. Ty suffered sleepless nights and wounded feelings as well as besmirched reputation.

A

actual damage

71
Q

Dr. A uttered vexing words against Dr. B defaming his personality and dignity. Dr. A maybe guilty of:

A

Libel

72
Q

When a surgeon operates on a patient without consent, this constitutes an assault and even without proof of injury resulting, the plaintiff may recover
what type of damage?

A

Nominal

73
Q

When is patient’s consent necessary?

A

During an appendectomy, the surgeon discovers and abnormal ovary and desiced to remove it.

74
Q

A physician may perform a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure without the consent of the patient or his relatives.

A

in an acute emergency when there in no time to discuss the situation in order to seek consent

75
Q

A physician may apply a procedure even it is against the wishes of the patient if

A

the procedure is required by law

76
Q

The following are provisions of Penal Law wherein a physician may be hold criminally liable. Which provision specifically mention the physician as the wrong-doer?

A. defamation
B. criminal negligence and imprudence
C. violation of the Dangerous Drug Act
D. refusal to render treatment in emergency cases

A

refusal to render treatment in emergency cases

77
Q

The testimony of an expert witness is NOT needed to prove a negligent act when which doctrine is applicable?

A

res ipsa loquitor

78
Q

Instances when a physician may NOT be held liable for abandonment.

A

failure to visit the patient sufficiently after believing that the patient needed no further treatment

79
Q

A physician cannot be held liable for the ill effect of his management procedure if

A

he can show that he applied his knowledge and skill with diligence and care

80
Q

A physician who gives an overdose of a drug may be charged for

A

gross negligence

81
Q

One of the grounds for the suspension or revocation of the certificate of registration of a physician on account of a criminal act is

A

violation of the Code of ethics

82
Q

The mistress of a married physician sought redress from the Board of Medicine when the physician left her for another woman. Which statement is VALID?

A. she can charge the physician for immorality C. she has no right to complain
B. she can accuse him for adultery. D. she can charge him of abandonment

A

she can charge the physician for immorality

83
Q

The skin is whitened, macerated and wrinkled in:

A

washerwoman’s skin

84
Q

The spinning motion of the bullet, its rough surface, and the imagination of the skin, all produce the:

A

Contusion collar

85
Q

Virginity is a requirement in this crime:

A

qualified seduction

86
Q

The laceration involving more than half of the hymenal height but does not reach the hymenal based is called:

A

Deep

87
Q

Stippling is caused by:

A

gunpowder residue