Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor) should remain in contact on the skin for at least:

A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 5 minutes

A

C. 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of adding 0.025% - 0.050% sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood cultures?

A. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement
B. Promotes formation of a blood clot
C. Enhances growth of anaerobes
D. Functions as a preservative

A

A. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen:

A. MacConkey agar and thioglycolate media
B. TCBS and alkaline peptone water
C. Blood agar and selenite F broth
D. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar

A

B. TCBS and alkaline peptone water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blood agar plates are ideally prepared with 5% RBCs obtained from:

A. Sheep
B. Horses
C. Humans
D. Dogs

A

A. Sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:

A. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Yersinia intermedia
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile

A

D. Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Prereduced and Vitamin K1 supplemented blood agar plates are recommended isolation media for:

A. Mycobacterium marinum and M. avium
B. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.
C. Proteus spp.
D. Enterococcus spp.

A

B. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp.?

A. Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells
B. Plate onto blood and chocolate agr
C. Inoculate into thioglycolate broth
D. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 24 hours

A

A. Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?

A. Acetoin
B. Nitrite
C. Acetic acid
D. H2S

A

A. Acetoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
At which pH does the methyl red (MR) test become positive?
A. 7.0	
B. 6.5	
C. 6.0	
D. 4.5
A

D. 4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A positive Simmons citrate test is seen as:

A. Blue color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35 oC
B. Red color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 35 oC
C. Yellow color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35 oC
D. Green color in the medium after 18-hour incubation at 35 oC

A

A. Blue color in the medium after 24-hour incubation at 35 oC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?

A. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
B. MR
C. Bromcresol purple
D. Cytochrome oxidase

A

A. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?

A. Enterobacter, Escherichia and Salmonella
B. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
C. Morganella, Providencia and Proteus
D. Proteus, Escherichia and Shigella

A

C. Morganella, Providencia and Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An isolate of E.coli recovered from the stoll of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for what sugar before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?

A. Sorbitol
B. Mannitol
C. Raffinose
D. Sucrose

A

A. Sorbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which genera of Enterobacteriacea are usually nonmotile at 36oC?

A. Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia
B. Escherichia, Edwardsiella and Enterobacter
C.
Proteus, Providencia and Salmonella
D. Serratia, Morganella and Hafnia
A

A. Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?

A. Urease
B. Sucrose
C. Citrate
D. Indole

A

D. Indole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea, and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the bast media for recovery and identification of this organism.

A. MacConkey Agar
B. Blood Agar
C. TCBS Agar
D. Xylose lysine desoxycholate agar

A

C. TCBS Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What atmosphric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective agar at 35-37 oC and 42 oC?

A. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2
B. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2
C. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
D. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2

A

A. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2

18
Q
A mixture of slender gram-negative rods and coccobacilli with rounded ends was recovered from blood cultures from a patient following root canal surgery. Given the following results after 48 hours, what is the most likely organism?
Catalase			0	
Oxidase			+
Lysine decarboxylase		0		
Indole		0
Urease			0	
X and V requirement	0
Ornithine decarboxylase		+
Growth on BAP	+, with pitting of agar
Carbohydrates			0
Growth on MacConkey 	0

A. Eikenella corrodens
B. Actinobacillus sp.
C. Cardiobacterium hominis
D. Proteus spp.

A

A. Eikenella corrodens

19
Q

Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?

a. Chocolate agar
b. Blood agar
c. MacConkey Agar
d. Bordet-Gengou agar

A

d. Bordet-Gengou agar

20
Q

Which media is recommended for the recovery of Brucella spp. from blood and bone marrow specimens?

A. Biphasic Castaneda bottles with Brucella broth
B. Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth
C. Bordet-Gengou agar plates and thioglycolate broth
D. Blood culture bottles with thioghlycolate broth

A

A. Biphasic Castaneda bottles with Brucella broth

21
Q

In addition to CO2 requirement and biochemical characteristics, Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?

A. Basic fuchsin and thionine
B. Methylene blue and crystal violet
C. Carbol fuchsin and iodine
D. Safranin and methylene blue

A

A. Basic fuchsin and thionine

22
Q

Which medium is best for recovery of Legionella pneumophila from clinical specimens?

A. Chocolate agar
B. Bordet-Gengou agar
C. New yeast extract agar
D. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar

A

D. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar

23
Q

The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

A

B. b

24
Q

Which Haemophilus sp. is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?

A. H. aphrophilus
B. H. haemolyticus
C. H. ducreyi
D. H. parahaemolyticus

A

C. H. ducreyi

25
Q

Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?

A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. intermedius
D. S. saprophyticus

A

B. S. epidermidis

26
Q

S. saprophyticus is best differentiated from S. epidermidis by susceptibility to:

A. 5 ug lysostaphin
B. 5 ug novobiocin
C. 10 units penicillin
D. 0.04 units of bacitracin

A

B. 5 ug novobiocin

27
Q

Bacitracin A disks (0.04 units) are used for the presumptive identification of which group of beta-hemolytic Streptococcus spp.?

A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group F

A

A. Group A

28
Q

The bile solubility test causes lysis of:

A. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate
B. Streptpcoccus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate
C. Group A streptococci in broth culture
D. Group B streptococci in broth culture

A

B. Streptpcoccus pneumoniae colonies

29
Q

Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?

A. Optochin disk test
B. Bacitracin disk test
C. CAMP test
D. Bile esculin test

A

A. Optochin disk test

30
Q

The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus bovis
C. Streptococcus equines
D. Grp D streptococci (enterococci)

A

D. Grp D streptococci (enterococci)

31
Q

The Quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus spp.?

A. S. pyogenes
B. S. agalactiae
C. S. sanguis
D. S. pneumonia

A

D. S. pneumonia

32
Q

The L-pyrolidonyl-B-naphtylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which streptococci?

A. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci
B. Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Non-Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)

A

A. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci

33
Q
Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification?
Bile esculin 	    +		
Bile solubility	    0
6.5% salt	            +		
SXT		            R
PYR	                    +	

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Group B streptococci

A

A. Enterococcus faecalis

34
Q

Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) media is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital specimens?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria lactamica
C. Neisseria sicca
D. Neisseria flavescens

A

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

35
Q

The superoxol test is used as a presumptive test for:

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Neisseria lactamica
D. Moraxella catarrhalis

A

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

36
Q
Culture on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification:
Glucose	+		
Fructose 0
Maltose 	+		
Lactose	+
Sucrose	0

A. N. gonorrhoeae
B. N. sicca
C. N. flavescens
D. N. lactamica

A

D. Neisseria lactamica

37
Q

Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?

A. Motility and beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate
B. Oxidase and alpha-hemolysis on blood agar plate
C. Lecithinase and glucose
D. Lecithinase and catalase

A

A. Motility and beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate

38
Q
Culture of a finger wound specimen from a meat packer produced short gram-positive bacilli on a blood agar plate with no hemolysis. Given the following test results at 48 hours, what is the most likely identification?
Catalase	0		
Motility (wet prep)	0
H2S (TSI)	+		
Gelatin stab	Bottle brush growth

A. Bacillus cereus
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Bacillus subtilis

A

C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

39
Q

A non-spore-forming, slender gram-positiverod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal cultures and grew well on tomato juice agar. The most likely identification is:

A. Lactobacillus spp.
B. Bacillus spp.
C. Neisseria spp.
D. Streptococcus spp.

A

A. Lactobacillus spp.

40
Q

A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?

A. Bacillus spp.
B. Nocardia spp.
C. Corynebacterium spp.
D. Listeria spp.

A

B. Nocardia spp.