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Part 107 > Part 107 Study Flashcards > Flashcards

Part 107 Study Flashcards

1
Q

A small unmanned aircraft must weigh less than ______ pounds.

A

55 lbs.

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2
Q

In an in-flight emergency, is a remote PIC able to dieviate from an FAA rule?

A

YES

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3
Q

Are you subject to any regulations if you are flying a drone recreationally?

A

Yes, Part 48: “Registration and Marking Requirements for sUAS”

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4
Q

If you deviate from a FAA Rule during an emergency, what action must you take following?

A

Nothing unless requested by the FAA.

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5
Q

If you fly above 400 feet AGL, do you need to report this violation?

A

Only if requested by the FAA.

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6
Q

How old must you be to apply for the Part 107?

A

16 years old.

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7
Q

How often must you recertify or retrain for the PART 107 after obtaining your initial license?

A

Every 24 months.

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8
Q

How many sUAS may a PIC control at a time?

A

One

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9
Q

Under what circumstances, and when must your report any sUAS accident to the FAA?

A

Within 10 days after a serious injury, loss of consciousness, or property damage >$500 to repair or replace.

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10
Q

Upon request by the FAA or National Transportation Safety Board, what must the PIC provide?

A

The Remote Pilot Certificate with sUAS rating and any other document, record, or repot.

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11
Q

When must a sUAS be registered?

A

When it weighs between .55 and 55 lbs.

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12
Q

What is the difference between a Standard Remote ID and a Remote ID broadcast Module?

A

Standard = produced with built in ID broadcast capabilities

Remote ID Module = is added to the drone and is limited to VLOS operations.

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13
Q

The Certificate of Aircraft Registration must include:

A

The serial # of the remote ID broadcast module, or the serial # of the sUAS must be provided to the FAA prior to operations.

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14
Q

If there is a remote ID broadcast failure:

A

PIC must land as soon as practicable.

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15
Q

Can you ever fly without remote ID capability?

A

Yes, only with the Administrators authorization and for aeronautical research or to show compliance.

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16
Q

Will ADS-B qualify for remote ID?

A

No

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17
Q

If flying during civil twilight and night, what must be equipped?

A

anti-collision lights that are visible for at least 3 SM.

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18
Q

Define civil twighlight

A

Period of time before sunrise and after sunset when the sun is not more than 6 degrees below the horizon; or 30 minutes before sunrise, and after sunset.

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19
Q

When can binoculars be used during flight?

A

Only momentarily to enhance situational awareness.

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20
Q

What is the maximum speed of a sUAS?

A

87 knots or 100 mph

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21
Q

How high can a sUAS be flown?

A

Not higher than 400 feet (AGL), or not more than 400 feet above a structure’s highest limit.

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22
Q

What is the minimum visibility requirement?

A

3 statue miles

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23
Q

What is the minimum distance the sUAS must be from clouds?

A

500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally.

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24
Q

What is Category 1 when performing operations over people

A
  1. Weigh 0.55 pounds or less, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft at the time of takeoff and throughout the duration of each operation.
  2. Contain no exposed rotating parts that would cause lacerations.
  3. No remote pilot in command may operate a small unmanned aircraft in sustained flight over open-air assemblies unless the operation is compliant with Remote ID.
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25
Q

What is Category 2 when performing operations over people

A
  1. No remote PIC may operate a sUAS in sustained flight over open-air assemblies unless the operation is compliant with Remote ID.
  2. The sUAS must have airworthiness certificate and be operated in accordance with the approved flight manual.
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26
Q

What is Category 3 when performing operations over people

A
  1. The operation is within or over a closed- or restricted-access site and all people on site are on notice that a small UAS may fly over them.
    OR: The small unmanned aircraft does not maintain sustained flight over any person unless that person is participating directly in the operation or located under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that can provide reasonable protection from a falling small unmanned aircraft.
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27
Q

What is Category 4 when performing operations over people

A
  1. Must have airworthiness certificate under part 21
  2. No remote PIC may operate a sUAS in sustained flight over open-air assemblies unless the operation is compliant with Remote ID.
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28
Q

How long do you have to wait after consuming alcohol to fly?

A

8 hours; and a BAC level of less than .04

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29
Q

After marijuana conviction, how long must a person wait to apply for a remote pilot certificate?

A

1 year after the date of the act.

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30
Q

What is needed to fly if the operation cannot be conducted within the regulatory structure of Part 107

A

A Certificate of Waiver (CoW)

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31
Q

Who and where do you apply for a Certificate of Waiver?

A

the FAA at faadronezone.faa.gov

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32
Q

What are the two categories of airspace?

A

Regulated (A, B, C, D, E) and Unregulated (G)

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33
Q

What is your reference to determine the type of airspace, ATC facilities, and traffic you can expect; and when is it issued?

A

The Chart Supplement - Every 56 days

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34
Q

What aeronautical map is most used by manned pilots?

A

the Sectional Aeronautical Chart (SAC) and the Terminal Area Chart (TAC)

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35
Q

What is the scale of the TAC and the SAC

A

TAC = 1:250,000

SAC = 1:500,000

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36
Q

What is a NOTAM? And where do you find them?

A

Notices to Air Missions - providing the most current info available and can be found by visiting faa.gov or 1800wxbrief.com

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37
Q

How often are NOTAMs issued?

A

Every 28 days

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38
Q

What are the types of NOTAMs

A
  1. NOTAMs (D) = transmitted with hourly weather reports
  2. FDC NOTAMs = Flight Data Center which contain regulatory information, including temporary flight restrictions (TFR).
  3. Pointer NOTAMs = highlight or point to another NOTAM
  4. Special Activity Airspace (SAA)
  5. Military
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39
Q

Public Figures are protected by ____________________.

A

Temporary Flight Restrictions

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40
Q

What do you need to fly in controlled airspace?

A

Prior authorization from the ATC.

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41
Q

Most controlled airspace begins at either ______ ft or _______ ft AGL.

A

700 ft or 1,200 ft

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42
Q

Define Class A Airspace

A

18,000 feet MSL and up.
Not depicted in VFR charts

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43
Q

Define Class B Airspace

A
  1. Around primary airports
  2. Outlined in Blue
  3. Floor and ceiling are denoted with one number over another with SFC.
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44
Q

Define Class C Airspace

A
  1. Two circles, both centered on the primary airport
  2. Inner shelf extends from surface to 4,000 ft and has 5NM radius
  3. Upper shelf from 1,200 ft to 4,000 ft and has 10NM radius
  4. Solid magenta lines
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45
Q

Define Class D Airspace

A
  1. Extends from surface to 2,500 ft AGL.
  2. 4 NM in radius
  3. Blue dashed line and number showing the airspace ceiling.
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46
Q

Define Class E Airspace

A
  1. Magenta shading
  2. All airspace from 14,500 ft to 17,999 ft.
  3. Starts at 700 ft AGL
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47
Q

Define Class G Airspace

A
  1. no ATC control
  2. surface to base of overlying controlled airspace (normally 700 or 1200 ft)
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48
Q

Define military training routes

A

MTRs are for the purpose of low altitude high speed training.
Generally below 10,000 ft MSL

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49
Q

What are IR and VR routes?

A

Military Training Routes (MTRs) and will be identified as follows:
1. At or below 1,500 ft by four digit numbers; VR1351
2. one or more segments above 1,500 ft will have three digit numbers; IR345

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50
Q

What advisory service is used with the control tower is closed?

A

LAA - Local Airport Advisory

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51
Q

What is the typical outer limits of Class C airspace?

A

20 NM

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52
Q

What is required when operating in a MOA?

A

No clearance is necessary but pilots should exercise extreme caution

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53
Q

Under what condition, if any, can a PIC fly through a restricted area?

A

With the controlling agency’s authorization.

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54
Q

Where can you find information about operating in a MOA along your route?

A

Sectional Chart

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55
Q

What is the differences between a Sectional Chart and a Chart Supplement?

A
  1. Sectional charts show airspace and facility symbology, and are published every six months. Sectional charts have a scale of 1:500,000
  2. Chart supplements provide more information about an airport than sectional charts, and are designed to be used with them. Chart supplements include information such as runway lengths, airport services, frequencies, telephone numbers, nav aid information, tower hours of operation, and general airport layout. Chart supplements are published every 56 days.
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56
Q

Meridians of ___________
and
Parallels of _____________

A

Meridians of longitude
and
Parallels of latitude

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57
Q

Where is the prime meridian?

A

Greenwich, England

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58
Q

Which is stated first when identifying a location by longitude and latitude?

A

Latitude is stated first

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59
Q

Which airspace is indicated by solid magenta; and solid blue lines?

A

Solid Magenta = Class C
Solid Blue = Class

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60
Q

What is a shaded magenta area on a Sectional Chart?

A

Class E airspace with floor at 700 ft AGL.

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61
Q

What is a shaded blue area on a Sectional Chart?

A

Class E airspace with floor at 1200 ft AGL that abuts class G.

62
Q

What does a blue number in a blue dashed box mean on a sectional chart?

A

Ceiling of class D airspace in hundreds of feet (a minus indicates up to, but not including that level).

63
Q

What should remote pilots do when flying near an airport without a control tower?

A

Monitor CTAF

64
Q

What is the recommended entry position for manned aircraft into an airport traffic pattern?

A

45 degrees to the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

65
Q

If a plan is landing on runway 27, which direction are they landing into?

A

runway 27 = 270 degrees which is facing East.

66
Q

What airport sign has a red background with white inscription?

A

Mandatory Instruction

67
Q

What airport sign is black with yellow inscription and yellow border?

A

Location Sign - used to identify a taxiway or runway location or boundary of the runway.

68
Q

What airport sign has a yellow background with black inscription (no arrows)?

A

Direction Sign - identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway leading to an intersection.

69
Q

What airport sign has a yellow background with black inscription (with arrows)?

A

Destination Sign: info on located areas such as runways, terminals, cargo

70
Q

What airport sign has a black background with white inscription?

A

Runway distance remaining

71
Q

Hold position signs in airports are denoted by what colors?

A

White inscriptions with red background.

72
Q

How far away should you fly from skeletal structures supported by guy wires?

A

2,000 feet as they can extend up to 1,500 feet horizontally from the structure.

73
Q

What happens if you’re flying a sUAS and collide with a bird?

A

File a report with the FAA using the wildlife strike report.

74
Q

What type of surface area is most likely to cause downdrafts?

A

Water, trees, vegetation as they tend to absorb and retain heat.

75
Q

What type of surface area is most likely to cause updrafts?

A

Plowed ground, rocks, sand, barren land and pavement (urban areas).

76
Q

What is a temperature inversion?

A

When hotter air is trapped above cooler air.

77
Q

When should pilots expect stable flying conditions?

A

during a temperature inversion.

78
Q

What is a thermal?

A

Thermals are created by the uneven heating of Earth’s surface from solar radiation, and are an example of convection, specifically atmospheric convection.

79
Q

What is a wind sheer and at what altitude can it occur?

A

It is a sudden rapid change in wind speed over a small area. They can occur at any altitude.

80
Q

What is a knot and how is it converted to MPH?

A

knot = nautical miles per hour

1 knot = 1.15mph

81
Q

What is a weather front?

A

The division line when an air mass that has different properties than its source region moves over a dissimilar air mass.

82
Q

What is a weather ridge vs a trough?

A

A ridge is an elongated area of high pressure; a trough is an elongated area of low pressure.

83
Q

All weather fronts line in ______?

A

Troughs

84
Q

Cold fronts are often accompanied by ________ weather ahead of the front.

A

Poor

85
Q

`Warm fronts move _____ as fast as cold fronts and have more _______ impact on weather.

A

1/2 as fast

more impact

86
Q

Warm fronts are often preceded by:

A

Lowered ceilings
Increased precipitation
Reduced visibilities

87
Q

Stable air mass characteristics:

A

stratus clouds
calm air
steady precipitation
poor visibility

88
Q

Unstable air mass characteristics:

A

cumulus clouds
turbulence
showery precipitation
good visibility

89
Q

Frontal passage is indicated by what 3 things:

A
  1. Change in temperature
  2. Decrease in pressure followed by an increase as the front passes; and
  3. A shift in the wind direction.
90
Q

What ALWAYS changes when flying across a front?

A

wind direction

91
Q

What weather is common with cold fronts?

A

Thunderstorms

92
Q

What weather provides the best flying conditions?

A

Cool and dry

93
Q

Define atmospheric stability

A

the resistance of the atmosphere to vertical motion

94
Q

Would temperature inversion be associated with stable air or unstable air?

A

Stable

95
Q

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

A

Actual lapse rate

96
Q

Three conditions needing for the formation of a thunderstorm:

A
  1. Sufficient water vapor
  2. Unstable Lapse Rate
  3. An initial lifting force
97
Q

What is a lapse rate?

A

the rate at which temperature decreases with height in a given layer of air.

98
Q

Three stages of a thunderstorm

A
  1. Cumulus
  2. Mature
  3. Dissipating
99
Q

What is Virga

A

precipitation that evaporates before it reaches the ground.

100
Q

What types of thunderstorms produce the most intense hazard to sUAS?

A

Squall line thunderstorms

101
Q

What are the two conditions for structural icing to occur?

A

Visible water (rain or clouds)
Temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the sUAS must be 32 degrees or colder.

102
Q

Which environment is most likely going to have structural icing with the highest accumulation rate?

A

Freezing rain

103
Q

What environment is most conducive to frost formation?

A

Dewpoint of surface is below freezing, dewpoint above surface is above freezing.

104
Q

What is essential to fog formation?

A

small temperature/dew point spread.

105
Q

Define dew point

A

the temperature the air needs to be cooled to (at constant pressure) in order to achieve a relative humidity (RH) of 100%. At this point the air cannot hold more water in the gas form.

106
Q

What is the situation that is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

A

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

107
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A

Also known as sea fog; it develops when warm moist air moves over colder ground or water. (air mass moving over land in winter)

108
Q

Which types of fog depend on wind?

A

Advection and upslope fog

109
Q

Low level turbulance can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

A

Steam fog

110
Q

What temperature and atmospheric pressures are considered a “Standard Day”?

A

15 C and 29.2Hg

OR
59 F and 1013.2 mb

111
Q

What changes to the following will decrease sUAS performance:
1. Atmospheric pressure
2. Altitude
3. Temp
4. Humidity

A
  1. Atm Pressure: decreases
  2. Altitude Increases
  3. Temp Increases
  4. Humidity Increases
112
Q

What is the website used for obtaining weather information

A

1800wxbrief.com

113
Q

What are the two weather reporting formats:

A

TAF: Terminal Aerodrome Forcasts

METAR: Meteorological Aerodrome Report

114
Q

What is the difference between TAF and METAR?

A

a TAF (Terminal Aerodrome Forecast) is a forecast of future weather conditions, while a METAR (Meteorological Aerodrome Report) provides real-time information about current weather

115
Q

What is the primary surface weather observing system of the US?

A

ASOS: Automated Surface Observing System

116
Q

Name the parts of a METAR report, in order:

A

Type of report
Station Identifier
Date and time
Modifier
Wind
Visibility
Weather
Sky conditions
Temp and dew point
Altimeter
Zulu Time
Remarks

117
Q

Translate the following METAR:

METAR KGGG 1617Z Auto 14021G26KT 3/4SM +TSRA BR BKN008 OVC012CB 18/17 A2970 RMK PRESFR

A

METAR for Gregg County Airport for 16th day of month at 1753 Zulu time Automated source. Winds are 140degrees at 21 knots with gusts to 26. Visibility is 3/4 SM. Thunderstorms with heavy rain and mist. Ceiling broken at 800ft. Overcast at 1,200 ft with cumulonimbus clouds. Temp is 18 C and dew point is 17 C. Barometric pressure is 19.70 and falling rapidly.

118
Q

In a TAF, what are the abbreviations FM and TEMPO?

A

FM = when rapid and significant weather changes are expected within the hour.

TEMPO = for temporary fluctuations of weather, expected to last < 1 hour.

119
Q

Does ASOS or AWOS, or both, have the capability of reporting density altitude?

A

Only AWOS has the capability of reporting the density altitude.

120
Q

What is a SIGMET issued for:

A

Severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low level wind shear.

Any of the following:
1. Winds > 50 KT
2. Hail > 3/4 Inch
3. Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms.

121
Q

Give the descriptions for the following weather abbreviations:

DZ
BR
GR
FU
FZ
MI
SQ
FC
DR
PR

A

DZ - Drizzle
BR - Mist
GR - Hail
FU - Smoke
FZ - Freezing
MI - Shallow
SQ - Squalls
FC - Funnel cloud
DR - Low drifting
PR - Partial

122
Q

Give the descriptions for the following weather abbreviations:
BC
BL
FG
PO
UP
SA

A

BC - Patches
BL - Blowing
FG - Fog
PO - Dust/sand whirls
UP - Unknown precipitation
SA - Sand

123
Q

What is dead reckoning used for?

A

Calculating speed of sUAS

124
Q

What is pilotage used for?

A

navigation by reference of landmarks or checkpoints.

125
Q

When computing weight and balance, what is the “arm”?

A

the horizontal distance (in inches) from the datum line to a point on the sUAS

+ value = measured toward the rear, or aft

  • value = measured towards the front or fore
126
Q

When computing weight and balance, what is the “moment”?

A

the product of the weight of an object multiiplied by it’s arm and expressed in pound-inches.

127
Q

weight x arm = ?

A

moment

128
Q

At what bank angle will the load factor significantly increase?

A

45-50 degrees

129
Q

What bank angle produces a load factor of 2Gs?

A

60 degrees

130
Q

What is an airfoil?

A

a structure that produces a useful reaction to air movement

131
Q

What is a chord line?

A

a imaginary straight line from the leading edge of an airfoil to the trailing edge.

132
Q

What is relative wind?

A

the wind “felt” by an airfoil

133
Q

What is the angle of attack?

A

the angle between the chord line and the relative wind.

134
Q

At what angle will turbulence over the upper wing of an airfoil decrease lift drastically and potentially cause a stall?

A

18-20 degrees

135
Q

What is the critical angle of attack?

A

The angle at which a stall occurs? Typically 18-20 degrees

136
Q

What airspace has a shaded magenta border?
And what is the altitude this airspace starts?

A

Class E; 700 ft MSL

137
Q

What airspace has a dashed magenta line? And what is the altitude this airspace starts?

A

Class E; ground level

138
Q

All airspaces use (MSL or AGL) with the exception of what airspace?

A

MLS except class E airspace

139
Q

What is the average radius of Class C airspace? Inner & Outer Circle

A

Inner = 5NM, Outer = 10NM

140
Q

What is the average radius of Class D airspace?

A

4NM

141
Q

In class D airspace, what is the typical bottom floor of the airspace? What is the typical ceiling?

A

SFC to 2,500 MLS

142
Q

What does a blue dashed box with a number in it on the sectional chart mean?

A

That is the ceiling of the class D airspace

143
Q

What is the different types of Class E airspace?

A

Surface Class E - denoted by a dashed magenta line

Non-surface class E - Denoted by a shaded magenta line.

144
Q

What altitude does class E airspace start?

A

Surface Class E (dashed) = surface

Non-surface E (shaded) = 1,200 AGL

145
Q

If the temperate and due point are close (within 3 degrees C) what is a possible weather event?

A

Fog

146
Q

What is another name for advection fog?

A

Sea Fog

147
Q

What is another name for radiation fog?

A

Ground Fog

148
Q

What type of fog can have hazardous icing conditions?

A

Steam fog

149
Q
A
150
Q
A

Part 107 (1 decks)

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