Part 107 Practice Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

A

Class D Airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A person may not use a Remote ID broadcast module that:

A

Fails the self-test when powered on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Latitude means?

A

Lines parallel to the equator running east-west across the earth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Longitude means?

A

Lines parallel to the prime meridian running north-south down the earth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What information is provided in an ATIS broadcast?

A

Surface conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When operating during civil twilight or at night, your anti-collision lights must be visible for

A

3 statute miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For which categories of operation is sustained flight over open air assemblies restricted to sUAS that meet Remote ID requirements?

A

1, 2, and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How should a remote pilot behave when entering a military operations area (MOA)?

A

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you know how when an airport control tower operates on a part time basis?

A

A star after the radio channel number on a sectional chart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the shape of Class C Airspace?

A

5 mile radius core from surface to 4000 AGL and a 10 mile radius shelf from 1200 AGL to 4000 AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A magenta segmented (dashed) circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class of airspace?

A

Class E surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the antidote thought a pilot should use to counter an anti-authoritarian attitude?

A

Follow the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does a thick vignette (faded) magenta border region indicate?

A

Class E Airspace beginning at 700 ft AGL with Class G uncontrolled airspace beneath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who is responsible for collision avoidance in an alert area?

A

All pilots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of what?

A

Heat exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does a magenta dashed line on a sectional chart mean?

A

Class E airspace beginning at the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as what?

A

Squall line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Solid Blue Lines on a sectional chart depict which class of airspace?

A

Class B. (Big and Busy and Blue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The numbers 12 and 30 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately in what direction?

A

120 and 300 degrees magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Continuous updraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1,200 ft AGL to, but not including

A

18,000 ft MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do dashed blue lines on a sectional chart represent?

A

Class D airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is density altitude?

A

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When are the four forces acting on an airplane in equilibrium?

A

During unaccelerated flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does this TAF (Terminal Area Forecast) entry mean: 1306/1412 17014KT ?

A

From 0600 on the 13th to 1200 on the 14th there will be wind blowing from 170 degrees true at 14 knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

According to 14 CFR Part 107, how may a remote PIC operate an sUAS in controlled airspace?

A

The Remote PIC must have prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

All operations within Class C airspace must be in what?

A

Compliance with ATC clearances and instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does ADM stand for and what are the two parts of it?

A

Aeronautical Decision Making. Hazard and risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Risk management as part of ADM relies on what to reduce risks?

A

Situational Awareness, Problem Recognition and good judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

An sUAS without remote ID equipped with an after market Remote ID broadcast module is what?

A

Limited to VLOS (Visual Line of Sight) operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If an airport is located outside a thick vignette magenta border, what does it mean?

A

The airport is in Class E airspace that begins at 1,200 ft AGL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas?

A

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does this TAF (Terminal Area Forecast) entry mean: 0522/0524 20013G20KT ?

A

On the 5th between 2200 and 2400, wind from 200 degrees true will blow at 13 knots gusting to 20 knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How far should a pilot keep their craft from overhead wires?

A

2000 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust and weight when the airplane is in straight and level flight?

A

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

36
Q

What is V in the phonetic alphabet?

37
Q

How would a remote PIC check NOTAMS?

A

By obtaining a briefing via 1800WXBrief.com

38
Q

In which type of airspace are sUAS flights prohibited?

39
Q

For Category 3 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft must not cause injury equivalent to or greater than the impact of:

A

25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy

40
Q

Where can the pilot of an sUAS go to check the active times associated with a Military Operations Area found on a Sectional Chart?

A

The table found in the margin of the Sectional Chart.

41
Q

When must a remote PIC inform the FAA of a change in address?

A

Within 30 days.

42
Q

How can you tell the elevation of an airport?

A

Read the second line of the text for the airport and the italicized number is the elevation.

43
Q

What are the conditions for the formation of a cumulonimbus cloud?

A

A lifting action and moist air.

44
Q

Where do you find the most comprehensive information on a given airport?

A

The Chart Supplements U.S.

45
Q

What should a remote PIC do before operating in Class D airspace?

A

Request an airspace authorization online.

46
Q

What do grey lines with VR or IR designators on a sectional chart mean?

A

The location of Standard Military Training Routes (MTRs)

47
Q

What do MTRs with 3 digits mean?

A

At least one leg of the route will be flown at an altitude above 1500 ft AGL.

48
Q

What shape is a lenticular cloud? How fast may the winds it contain be?

A

Lens shaped. 50 knots or more.

49
Q

Which category of operations over people requires that the sUAS will not cause injury equivalent to or greater than the imapct of 11 foot pounds of kinetic energy?

A

Category 2

50
Q

According to 14 CFR part 107, the remote PIC of an sUAS planning to operate within Class B airspace must:

A

Receive ATC authorization

51
Q

The effective use of all available resources prior to and during flight to ensure the success of the operation is called:

A

Crew Resource Management

52
Q

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless

A

The pilot has received prior authorization from the controlling agency

53
Q

What is the PIC responsibility regarding registration if the US is destroyed during operation?

A

The owner/operator must update their registration status at faa.gov/uas within 14 days of destruction.

54
Q

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:

A

090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic

55
Q

In a METAR, what do these numbers represent: 16/15?

A

The temperature in degrees celsius/ the dewpoint in degrees celsius.

56
Q

In what airspaces do you need to obtain airspace authorization before flying?

A

Class B, C, D, and Class E Surface

57
Q

What does a magenta airport icon mean?

A

Non-towered airport.

58
Q

What does a blue airport icon mean?

A

Towered airport.

59
Q

What are the 5 parts of a standard left hand traffic pattern?

A

Departure, left to crosswind, left to downwind, left to base, left to final approach.

60
Q

Can an sUAS that is registered in another country be registered in the U.S.?

A

An sUAS currently registered in another country cannot be registered in the US.

61
Q

What does midfield downwind mean in a traffic pattern?

A

The center of the airfield on the downwind leg.

62
Q

How many times are TAFs updated per day?

A

0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z

63
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the:

A

Chart Supplement

64
Q

An aircraft announces left downwind for runway one six. What heading is the aircraft on?

A

340 degrees. (Because the aircraft is running in the opposite direction of the runway, or 180 degrees away from the heading of the runway)

65
Q

Airspace at an airport with a part time control tower is classified as Class D Airspace only when:

A

The associated control tower is in operation.

66
Q

How is a nonstandard traffic pattern notated on a sectional chart?

A

RP for Right Pattern.

67
Q

How would high density altitude affect performance of an sUAS?

A

Decreased performance.

68
Q

You have accepted football tickets in exchange for drone taping the game. Is this under part 107?

69
Q

Which category of operations over people is allowed for operations conducted over a closed or restricted access site?

A

Category 3.

70
Q

What should remote pilots state initially when phoning for a preflight weather brief?

A

That they are remote pilots.

71
Q

What does dewpoint mean?

A

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

72
Q

What increases density altitude?

A

Increased temperature.

73
Q

What vertical limit of Class D airspace above the primary airport is normally:

A

2,500 feet AGL

74
Q

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on:

A

The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

75
Q

For category 2 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft:

A

Must not contain any exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin.

76
Q

The two in flight conditions necessary for structural icing to form are:

A

Visible moisture and freezing temperatures.

77
Q

What does TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provide?

A

Sequencing and Separation for participating VFR aircraft.

78
Q

A tower within Class E 700 ft AGL airspace is 356 ft tall. How high can you fly above the tower?

A

756 ft AGL

79
Q

What is the threshold for blood alcohol level when operating an sUAS?

A

Less than .04 percent.

80
Q

What information is provided in an ATIS broadcast?

A

Surface conditions.

81
Q

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

A

Towering cumulus clouds.

82
Q

What is the vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport?

A

4,000 ft AGL.

83
Q

What is the standard MULTICOM frequency?

84
Q

How can you tell if a runway on a sectional chart is greater than 8,069 feet in length?

A

The runway will have a boxy outline.

85
Q

How can you tell if a runway on a sectional chart is between 1,500 and 8,069 feet in length?

A

The runway will have a circular symbol around it.