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Part 107 Remote Pilot Exam > Part 107 Exam > Flashcards

Part 107 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum age to get a remote pilot license

A

16

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2
Q

Must report an accident to FAA within ___ calendar days of operation that results in serious injury or property damage over $____

A

10, $500

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3
Q

Must pass recurrent test every ___ months

A

24

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4
Q

A small UA weighs

A

less than 55 lbs

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5
Q

You have ___ days to notify FAA of change of address

A

30

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6
Q

Commercial aircraft registration costs $___ and is good for ___ years

A

$5, 3

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7
Q

If UA weighs 55 lbs or more it must be registered using the FAA’s __________

A

paper-based registration process

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8
Q

Minimum age to register a UAS

A

13

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9
Q

Max groundspeed of UAS

A

87 knots or 100 mph

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10
Q

Minimum visibility for flying UA

A

3 statute miles

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11
Q

UA must be at least ___ft below clouds and at least ____ft horizontally from clouds

A

500 below, 2000 horizontal

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12
Q

Max height of UA

A

400’ AGL

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13
Q

If UA is flown within a ___ft radius of a structure, the max height is ___ft above the structures uppermost limit

A

400’ radius, 400’ above structure

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14
Q

Evening civil twilight is

A

the period of sunset until 30 min after sunset

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15
Q

Morning civil twilight is

A

the period of 30 min prior to sunrise until sunrise

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16
Q

If you’re flying in one of the two 30-min civil twilight periods your aircraft must be equipped with anti-collision lights capable of being visible for at least ___ miles in all directions.

A

3 miles

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17
Q

Blood alcohol level needs to be less than ___% to fly a UAV

A

0.04%

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18
Q

At least __ hours need to pass between drinking alcohol and piloting a UA or taking part as a crew member

A

8 hrs

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19
Q

It takes __ hrs for 1 mixed drink to go through the body

A

3 hrs

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20
Q

If there is any doubt regarding the effects of medication contact _________

A

Aviation Medical Examiner (AME)

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21
Q

Look here to get more info on the effects of over the counter meds on flying

A

Aeromedical Factors chapter of the Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

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22
Q

Rule #1 in any sUAS flight emergency

A

Maintain control of your aircraft

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23
Q

[-25] means Class D airspace from the surface

A

up to but not including 2500’ MSL

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24
Q

When a Class D airport tower is not in operation, one of the following becomes
applicable

A

a) Class E surface area rules or; b) a combination of Class E rules to
700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface.

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25
Q

you only need authorization to fly in Class E airspace if it is

A

“within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E
airspace designated for an airport.” Class E Airspace at the surface is marked by a magenta-dotted circle or set of
lines. If it’s a Class E airport that’s surrounded by a closed off circle or circle
with small extensions, you need authorization. If it’s only an extension area, you
do not need to request authorization but should still exercise extreme caution.

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26
Q

When Class E airspace is marked with a fuzzy magenta line it starts at ____’ AGL and you [do OR do not] need authorization to fly vertically into this airspace

A

700’, DO NOT

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27
Q

If you’re looking at a section of the chart without any of the colored airspace circles it’s

A

Class G from the surface to 1200’ AGL and then becomes Class E.

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28
Q

Prohibited areas are marked with a __ and flying [is/isn’t] allowed

A

P, ISN’T

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29
Q

Restricted areas are marked with a __ and flying [is/isn’t] allowed

A

R-#, is allowed with specific permission

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30
Q

In a restricted area, you might find

A

unusual, often invisible, hazards

to aircraft like artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles

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31
Q

Warning areas are similar to restricted areas but marked with a

A

W

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32
Q

Military Operations Areas are marked with ___. To find out if it’s hot refer to ______.

A

MOA, border of the Sectional Chart and then contact controlling agency for more info

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33
Q

Alert areas are depicted with an ___ and may contain _____.

A

A-#, a high volume of pilot

training or an unusual type of aerial activity

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34
Q

A military training route (MTR) is used for

A

conducting
low-altitude, high-speed flight training at speeds in excess of 250 knots (that’s
almost 300 mph). On a Sectional Chart, MTRs are identified as either IFR (IR) or
VFR (VR), followed by a number.

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35
Q

MTRs with 4 numbers denote routes flown at

A

1500’ AGL and below

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36
Q

MTRs with 3 numbers denote routes flown

A

with at least 1 segment above 1500’ AGL

37
Q

A temporary flight restriction (TFR) is a restriction due to

A

the movement of government VIPs, special events, natural disasters, or other
unusual events

38
Q

A Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) describes

A

airspace information that is time-critical
and either of a temporary nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit
publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications

39
Q

Visual reporting checkpoints are shown on the chart as a _____ and indicates

A

small magenta flag, higher volume of manned aircraft traffic

40
Q

On a sectional chart all of the altitudes are denoted in ___ unless they are in parentheses

A

MSL

41
Q

Isogonic lines indicate the magnetic variation which is defined as the

A

difference between true vs magnetic north

42
Q

A maximum elevation figure (MEF) is the

A

minimum altitude you can fly in a given quadrangle and still be able to clear all obstacles in that quadrangle including terrain and obstructions.

43
Q

A Victor Airway is a straight line segment that’s used to depict

A

low altitude civilian air traffic

44
Q

Victor airways start at a base of ___’ AGL and go up to ____’ MSL.

A

1200’ AGL to 18,000’ MSL. Designated Class E airspace.

45
Q

Airport runways are labelled with numbers

A

1 through 36, corresponding to runways compass alignment

46
Q

Runway 9 indicates ___ degrees magnetic and points ___

A

90, East

47
Q

In an ideal flight pattern aircrafts are taking off and landing into a ____

A

headwind

48
Q

A manned aircraft pilot should arrive at the proper traffic pattern altitude prior to
entering the traffic pattern. That altitude varies from airport to airport and is
available in the

A

chart supplement

49
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is to enter ___° at
the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

A

45

50
Q

If you happen to be operating a fixed-wing unmanned aircraft and are
approaching another, similar-sized fixed-wing unmanned aircraft, both pilots
should alter course to the _____

A

right

51
Q

According to the FAA, to properly scan for other aircraft in the sky, you should
systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. Imagine
quickly scanning from ____ to _____ in intervals of no more than ___° to make sure
you can efficiently cover the entire sky.

A

left to right, 10 degrees

52
Q

If the color of an airport icon is blue it [does/doesn’t] have a control tower

A

DOES

53
Q

At sea level, standard air temperature is __ºC (__ºF), and standard air pressure
is ___” Hg, or inches of mercury (__ millibars).

A

15C, 59F, 29.92”Hg, 1013 mb

54
Q

Density altitude is

A

the altitude at which your aircraft “feels” like it’s flying

55
Q

Higher density altitude means

A

thinner air, reduced performance

56
Q

Density altitude increases at

A

higher elevations, lower atmospheric pressures,

higher temperatures, and higher humidity

57
Q

Anywhere there is uneven heating of the Earth’s surface, you’ll find

A

convective

currents

58
Q

Updrafts are

likely to occur over areas like

A

pavement or sand

59
Q

Downdrafts often occur

over

A

water or expansive areas of vegetation like a group of trees.

60
Q

Wind shear is

A

a sudden, drastic change in wind speed and/or direction over a
relatively small area.

61
Q

Wind shear can occur at

A

all altitudes, in all directions, and
it’s typically characterized by directional wind changes of 180° and speed
changes of 50 knots or more.

62
Q

Always be alert to the possibility of wind shear, particularly when flying in and
around

A

thunderstorms, areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones,
and clear air turbulence.

63
Q

The dew point, given in degrees, is the temperature at which

A

the air can hold no

more moisture, so it’s at 100% humidity.

64
Q

As moist, unstable air rises, clouds

often form at the altitude where

A

temperature and dew point reach the same
value. At this point, the air is completely saturated, and moisture begins to
condense out of the air in the form of fog, dew, frost, clouds, rain, hail, or snow.

65
Q

Typically, when the temperature and the dew point converge, you will have

A

fog

66
Q

Thunderstorms are produced by

A

Thunderstorms are produced by

67
Q

Thunderstorms form when there is

A

1) high humidity — sufficient water vapor or moisture ; 2) unstable conditions —
an unstable lapse rate (the lapse rate describes the rate of change of the
temperature as the air increases in altitude); and 3) lifting force — an initial
upward boost to start the process (heat).

68
Q

A squall line is

A

nonfrontal, narrow band of thunderstorms usually ahead of a

cold front

69
Q

If you see lenticular clouds, expect

A

turbulence

70
Q

To pilots, the most dangerous type of cloud is a

A

cumulonimbus, or

thunderstorm, cloud

71
Q

In aviation, a ceiling is the lowest layer of clouds reported as being

A

broken or

overcast, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration like fog or haze.

72
Q

Unstable air tends to display the following characteristics

A

cumuliform clouds,

turbulent air, good visibility, and showery precipitation

73
Q

Stable air tends to display the following characteristics

A

stratiform clouds,
smooth air, fair-to-poor visibility in haze and smoke, and continuous
precipitation

74
Q

The FAA recommendation is to fly at least ____ feet horizontally from skeletal
structures like radio and television towers to be clear of guy wires.

A

2,000

75
Q

When a series of judgmental errors leads to a human factors-related accident,
this is sometimes referred to as the

A

error chain

76
Q

Aeronautical Decision-Making (ADM) is a systematic mental approach to

A

consistently determine the best course of action in a given situation

77
Q

To prevent the final “link” in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider

A

Risk Management.

78
Q

Crew Resource Management (CRM) is

A

the effective use of all available
resources—human, hardware, software and information—prior to and during
flight to ensure the successful outcome of the operation.

79
Q

The Common

Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) is

A

a frequency
designated for pilots to communicate with each other directly, air-to-air, while
operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower.

80
Q

UNICOM is the

A

nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which
may provide airport information at public use airports where there’s no tower or
FSS.

81
Q

When there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, a manned
aircraft pilot will use the ____ for self-announce procedures

A

MULTICOM frequency 122.9

82
Q

The Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is

A

a continuous broadcast of

recorded aeronautical information in busier airports.

83
Q

The FAA uses Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) for all operations. The term
“___” may also be used to denote UTC.

A

Zulu

84
Q

If you’re operating a fixed-wing sUAS, the ____ will control the “yaw” of that
aircraft.

A

rudder

85
Q

When a fixed-wing UA is in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, lift equals
____ and thrust equals ____.

A

weight, drag

86
Q

Load factor =

A

Total Load Supported by
the Aircraft’s Wings divided by the Actual Weight of the Aircraft and its
Contents

87
Q

When your Center of Gravity is out-of-line, it becomes more difficult to recover
from a ____ and overall more difficult to control your sUAS.

A

stall

88
Q

A ____ occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned airplane’s wing
(propellor) is disrupted, and the lift degenerates rapidly, which can ultimately
cause your aircraft to fall.

A

stall

89
Q

When the ______ is exceeded, the smooth airflow over the UAs wing will be disrupted, and the lift degenerates rapidly which can ultimately cause the aircraft to fail

A

critical angle of attack

Part 107 Remote Pilot Exam (1 decks)

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