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Pharmacology Boards > Part 1 Pharm 1-Liners > Flashcards

Part 1 Pharm 1-Liners Flashcards

1
Q

Relates the amount of drug in the body to the plasma concentration

A

Volume of distribution (VD)

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2
Q

Plasma concentration of a drug at a given time

A

Cp

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3
Q

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its plasma concentration

A

Clearance (CL)

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4
Q

The elimination of drug that occurs before it reaches the systemic circulation

A

First pass effect

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5
Q

The fraction of unchanged drug that reaches systemic circulation after administration

A

Bioavailability (F)

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6
Q

When the rate of drug input equals the rate of drug elimination

A

Steady state

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7
Q

Different steps of Phase I

A

Oxidation; reduction; hydrolysis

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8
Q

Barbiturates; phenytoin; carbamazepine; and rifampin all do this

A

Induce CYP450

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9
Q

Cimetidine; ketoconazole; isoniazid; and grapefruit all do this

A

Inhibit CYP450

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10
Q

Name 3 Phase II conjugation reactions

A

Glucuronidation; acetylation; glutathione conjugation; glycine conjugation; sulfation; methylation; water conjugation

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11
Q

Constant percentage of drug metabolized per unit time

A

First order kinetics

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12
Q

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time

A

Zero order kinetics

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13
Q

Target plasma concentration times (volume of distribution divided by bioavailability)

A

Loading dose (Cp*(Vd/F))

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14
Q

Concentration in the plasma times (clearance divided by bioavailability)

A

Maintenance dose (Cp*(CL/F))

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15
Q

Strength of interaction between drug and its receptor

A

Affinity

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16
Q

Selectivity of a drug for its receptor

A

Specificity

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17
Q

Amount of drug necessary to elicit a biologic effect compared with another drug

A

Potency

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18
Q

Ability of drug to produce the maximal biologic effect

A

Efficacy

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19
Q

Ability of a drug to produce maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Full agonist

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20
Q

Ability to produce less than maximal response after binding to the receptor

A

Partial agonist

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21
Q

Ability to bind reversibly to the same site as the drug and without activating the effector system

A

Competitive antagonist

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22
Q

Ability to bind irreversibly to the active site or bind to a site distinctly separate from the agonist binding site

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

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23
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes intracellular receptors

A

Steroid and hormones

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24
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes transmembrane receptors that have intrinsic enzymatic activity

A

Insulin; EGF; TGFbeta; PDGF; ANP

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25
Q

Mechanism of action (MOA) utilizes ligand gated ion channels

A

Acetylcholine; nicotine

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26
Q

Dose which produces therapeutic response in 50% of the poopulation

A

ED50

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27
Q

Dose which is toxic in 50% of the population

A

TD50

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28
Q

Dose which is lethal to 50% of the population

A

LD50

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29
Q

Window between therapeutic effect and toxic effect

A

Therapeutic index

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30
Q

Drugs that have a high margin of safety is indicated by

A

High therapeutic index

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31
Q

Drugs that have a narrow margin of safety is indicated by

A

Low therapeutic index

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32
Q

Antidote used for lead poisoning (without encephalopathy)

A

Dimercaprol; Edetate calcium disodium; or succimer

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33
Q

Antidote used for cyanide poisoning

A

Nitrites; sodium thiosulfate; hydroxocobalamin (cyanokit)

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34
Q

Antidote used for anticholinergic poisoning

A

Physostigmine

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35
Q

Antidote used for organophosphate/anticholinesterase poisoning

A

Atropine; pralidoxime (2-PAM)

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36
Q

Antidote used for iron salt toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

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37
Q

Antidote used for acetaminophen (APAP) toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

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38
Q

Antidote for severe lead poisoning (with encephalopathy)

A

Dimercaprol AND CaEDTA (edetate calcium disodium)

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39
Q

Antidote for arsenic; mercury; and gold poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

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40
Q

Antidote used in Wilson’s disease (copper poisoning)

A

Penicillamine

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41
Q

Antidote used for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine Sulfate

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42
Q

Antidote used for warfarin toxicity

A

Vitamin K and Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

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43
Q

Antidote for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA); streptokinase

A

Aminocaproic acid

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44
Q

Antidote used for methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity

A

Ethanol

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45
Q

Antidote used for opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone (IV); naltrexone (PO)

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46
Q

Antidote used for benzodiazepine toxicity

A

Flumazenil

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47
Q

Antidote used for tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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48
Q

Antidote used for carbon monoxide poisoning

A

100% O2 and hyperbaric O2

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49
Q

Antidote used for digitalis toxicity

A

Digibind (also need to d/c digoxin; normalize K+; and lidocaine if pt; Is arrhythmic)

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50
Q

Antidote used for beta agonist toxicity (eg; Metaproterenol)

A

Esmolol

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51
Q

Antidote for methotrexate toxicity

A

Leucovorin

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52
Q

Antidote for beta-blocker overdose and hypoglycemia

A

Glucagon

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53
Q

Antidote useful for some drug induced Torsade de pointes

A

Magnesium sulfate

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54
Q

Antidote for hyperkalemia

A

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

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55
Q

Method to reduce salicylate intoxication

A

Alkalinize urine; dialysis

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56
Q

Constant proportion of cell population killed rather than a constant number

A

Log-kill hypothesis

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57
Q

Treatment with cancer chemotherapy at high doses every 3-4 weeks; too toxic to be used continuously

A

Pulse therapy

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58
Q

Toxic effect of anticancer drug can be lessened by rescue agents

A

Rescue therapy

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59
Q

Drug used concurrently with toxic anticancer agents to reduce renal precipitation of urates

A

Allopurinol

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60
Q

Pyrimidine analog that causes “Thiamine-less death” given with leucovorin rescue

A

5-flouracil (5-FU)

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61
Q

Drug used in cancer therapy causes Cushing-like symptoms

A

Prednisone

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62
Q

Side effect of Mitomycin

A

SEVERE myelosuppression

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63
Q

MOA of cisplatin

A

Alkylating agent

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64
Q

Common toxicities of cisplatin

A

Nephro and ototoxicity

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65
Q

Analog of hypoxanthine; needs HGPRTase for activation

A

6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)

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66
Q

Interaction with this drug requires dose reduction of 6-MP

A

Allopurinol

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67
Q

May protect against doxorubicin cardio-toxicity by chelating iron

A

Dexrazoxane

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68
Q

Blows DNA (breaks DNA strands); limiting SE is pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

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69
Q

MOPP regimen used in Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

A

Mechlorethamine+ oncovorin (vincristine)+ procarbazine; and prednisone

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70
Q

Regimen used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

CHOP (cyclophosphamide; oncovin(vincristine); doxorubicin and prednisone); rituximab (rituxan)

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71
Q

Regimen used for breast cancer

A

CMF (cyclophosphamide; methotrexate; and fluorouracil) and tamoxifen if ER+

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72
Q

Alkylating agent; vesicant that causes tissue damage with extravasation

A

Mechlorethamine

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73
Q

Anticancer drug also used in RA; produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

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74
Q

Prevention of cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Hydration and mercaptoethanesulfonate (MESNA)

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75
Q

Microtubule inhibitor that causes peripheral neuropathy; foot drop (eg; ataxia); and “pins and needles” sensation

A

Vincristine

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76
Q

Binds tubulin and prevents the disassembly of microtubules during the M phase of the cell cycle inducing mitotic arrest

A

Paclitaxel (taxol)

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77
Q

Toxicities include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity; leading to a severe interaction with aminoglycosides

A

Cisplatin

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78
Q

Agent similar to cisplatin; less nephrotoxic; but greater myelosuppression

A

Carboplatin

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79
Q

Converts asparagine to aspartate and ammonia; denies cancer cells of essential AA (asparagine)

A

L-asparaginase

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80
Q

Used for hairy cell leukemia; it stimulates NK cells

A

Interferon alpha

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81
Q

Anti-androgen used for prostate cancer

A

Flutamide (Eulexin)

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82
Q

Anti-estrogen used for estrogen receptor + breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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83
Q

Some cell cycle specific anti-cancer drugs

A

Bleomycin; vinca alkaloids; antimetabolites (eg;; 5-FU; 6-MP; methotrexate; etoposide)

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84
Q

Some cell cycle non-specific drugs

A

Alkylating agents (eg;; mechlorethamine; cyclophosphamide); antibiotics (doxorubicin; daunorubicin); cisplatin; nitrosourea

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85
Q

Anti-emetics used in association with anti-cancer drugs that are 5-HT3 (serotonin receptor subtype ) antagonist

A

Odansetron; granisetron; dolasetron; palonosetron

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86
Q

Nitrosoureas with high lipophilicity; used for brain tumors

A

Carmustine (BCNU) and lomustine (CCNU)

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87
Q

Alkylating agent that produces disulfiram-like reaction with ethanol

A

Procarbazine

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88
Q

Somatostatin (SRIF) analog used for acromegaly; carcinoid; glucagonoma and other GH producing pituitary tumors

A

Octreotide

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89
Q

Somatotropin (GH) analog used in GH deficiency (dwarfism)

A

Somatrem

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90
Q

GHRH analog used as diagnostic agent

A

Sermorelin

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91
Q

GnRH agonist used for infertility or different types of CA depending on pulsatile or steady usage respectively

A

Leuprolide

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92
Q

GnRH antagonist with more immediate effects; used for infertility

A

Ganirelix

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93
Q

Hormone inhibiting prolactin release

A

Dopamine

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94
Q

ACTH analog used for diagnosis of patients with corticosteroid abnormality

A

Cosyntropin

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95
Q

Synthetic analog of ADH hormone used for diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

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96
Q

Agent of choice for the treatment of hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine (T4)

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97
Q

An isomer of T3 which may be used in myxedema coma

A

Liothyronine (T3)

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98
Q

Anti-thyroid drugs

A

Thioamides (methimazole; propylthiouracil); potassium iodide; radioactive iodine (131I)

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99
Q

Thioamide agents used in hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU)

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100
Q

Thioamide less likely to cross placenta; inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in high doses; and indicated for pregnant women in 1st trimester

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

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101
Q

Propylthiouracil (PTU) mechanism of action

A

Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

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102
Q

Can be effective for short term therapy of thyroid storm; but after several weeks of therapy causes an exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

A

Iodide salts (potassium iodide)

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103
Q

Permanently cures thyrotoxicosis; patients will need thyroid replacement therapy thereafter; Contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Radioactive iodine

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104
Q

Used for the symptomatic treatment of thyrotoxicosis by blocking cardiac adverse effects

A

Beta-blockers such as propranolol and esmolol

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105
Q

3 zones of adrenal cortex and their products

A

Glomerulosa (mineralocorticoids); fasciculata (glucocorticoid=GC); and reticularis (adrenal androgens)

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106
Q

Pneumonic for 3 zones of adrenal cortex

A

GFR

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107
Q

Used for Addison’s disease; Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH); inflammation; allergies; and asthma (as a local inhalation)

A

Glucocorticoids

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108
Q

Short acting GC’s

A

Cortisone and hydrocortisone (equivalent to cortisol)

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109
Q

Intermediate acting GC’s

A

Prednisone; methylprednisolone; prednisolone; oaramethasone; fluprednisone and triamcinolone

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110
Q

Long acting GC’s

A

Betamethasone; dexamethasone; and paramethasone

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111
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Fludrocortisone and deoxycorticosterone

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112
Q

Some side effects of corticosteroids

A

Hyperglycemia; Osteopenia; impaired wound healing; inc; risk of infection; inc; appetite; HTN; edema; PUD; euphoria; psychosis

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113
Q

Period of time of therapy after which GC therapy will need to be tapered

A

5-7 days

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114
Q

Used for Cushing’s syndrome (increased corticosteroid) and sometimes for adrenal function test

A

Metyrapone

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115
Q

Inhibits conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone therefore inhibiting corticosteroid synthesis

A

Aminoglutethimide

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116
Q

Antifungal agent used for inhibition of all gonadal and adrenal steroids

A

Ketoconazole

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117
Q

Antiprogestin used as potent antagonist of GC receptor

A

Mifepristone

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118
Q

Diuretic used to antagonize aldosterone receptors

A

Spironolactone

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119
Q

Common SE of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia and hyperkalemia

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120
Q

Slightly increased risk of breast cancer; endometrial cancer; heart disease (questionable); has beneficial effects on bone loss

A

Estrogen

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121
Q

Antiestrogen drugs used for fertility and breast cancer respectively

A

Clomiphene and tamoxifen

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122
Q

Common SE of tamoxifen and raloxifene

A

Hot flashes

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123
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used for prevention of osteoporosis and currently being tested for treatment of breast cancer (Stars study)

A

Raloxifene

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124
Q

Non-steroidal estrogen agonist causes clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina in daughters of women who used it during pregnancy

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

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125
Q

Estrogen mostly used in oral contraceptives (OC)

A

Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol

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126
Q

Anti-progesterone used as abortifacient

A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

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127
Q

Constant low dose of estrogen and increasing dose of progestin for 21 days (last 5 days are sugar pills or iron prep)

A

Combination oral contraceptives (OC)

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128
Q

Oral contraceptive available in a transdermal patch

A

Ortho-Evra

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129
Q

Converted to more active form DHT by 5 alpha-reductase

A

Testosterone

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130
Q

5 alpha-reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and male pattern baldness

A

Finasteride (Proscar and Propecia respectively)

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131
Q

Anabolic steroid that has potential for abuse

A

Nandrolone and stanozolol

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132
Q

Anti-androgen used for hirsutism in females

A

Cyproterone acetate

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133
Q

Alpha cells in the pancreas

A

Produce glucagon

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134
Q

Beta cells in the pancreas

A

Produce insulin

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135
Q

Beta cells are found

A

Islets of Langerhans

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136
Q

Delta cells in the pancreas

A

Produce Somatostatin

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137
Q

Product of proinsulin cleavage used to assess insulin production

A

C-peptide

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138
Q

Endogenous insulin

A

Normal C-peptide

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139
Q

Very rapid acting insulin; having fastest onset and shortest duration of action

A

Lispro (Humalog)/Apidra (glulisine)

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140
Q

Rapid acting; crystalline zinc insulin used to reverse acute hyperglycemia

A

Regular (Humulin R)

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141
Q

Long acting insulin

A

Ultralente (humulin U)

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142
Q

Ultra long acting insulin; has over a day duration of action

A

Glargine (Lantus)

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143
Q

Major side effect of insulin

A

Hypoglycemia

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144
Q

Important in synthesis of glucose to glycogen in the liver

A

GLUT 2

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145
Q

Important in muscle and adipose tissue for glucose transport across muscles and TG storage by lipoprotein lipase activation

A

GLUT 4

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146
Q

Examples of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (AGI)

A

Acarbose; miglitol

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147
Q

MOA of AGI’s

A

Act on intestine; delay absorption of glucose

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148
Q

SE of AGI’s

A

Flatulence (do not use beano to tx); diarrhea; abdominal cramps

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149
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor associated with elevation of LFT’s

A

Acarbose

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150
Q

Amino acid derivative for treatment of Type II diabetes

A

Nateglinide

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151
Q

MOA of nateglinide

A

Stimulates rapid and transient release of of insulin through closure of the ATP-sensitive K+ channel

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152
Q

Biguanide

A

Metformin

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153
Q

Drugs available in combination with metformin

A

Acroplus Met progutazone and metformin; Janumet and Janumet XR Sitagliptin and Metformin; Glyburide; glipizide; and rosiglitazone

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154
Q

MOA of metformin

A

Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption; increase insulin sensitivity

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155
Q

Most important potential SE of metformin

A

Lactic acidosis

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156
Q

Meglitinide

A

Repaglinide

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157
Q

MOA of repaglinide

A

Insulin release from pancreas; faster and shorter acting than sulfonylurea

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158
Q

First generation sulfonylurea

A

Chlorpropamide; tolbutamide; tolazamide; etc;

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159
Q

Second generation sulfonylurea

A

Glyburide; glipizide; glimepiride; etc;

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160
Q

MOA of both generations

A

Insulin release from pancreas by modifying K+ channels

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161
Q

Common SE of sulfonylureas; repaglinide; and nateglinide

A

Hypoglycemia

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162
Q

Sulfonylurea NOT recommended for elderly because of very long half life

A

Chlorpropamide

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163
Q

Thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone; Rosiglitazone; Troglitazone (withdrawn/d from market)

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164
Q

Reason troglitazone was withdrawn from market

A

Hepatic toxicity

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165
Q

MOA of thiazolindinediones

A

Stimulate PPAR-gamma receptor to regulate CHO and lipid metabolism

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166
Q

SE of Thiazolindinediones

A

Edema; mild anemia; interaction with drugs that undergo CytP450 3A4 metabolism; if used over one year; bladder Cancer; with CHF; may cause new or worsening CHF

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167
Q

Hyperglycemic agent that increases cAMP and results in glycogenolysis; gluconeogenesis; reverses hypoglycemia; also used to reverse severe beta-blocker overdose and smooth muscle relaxation

A

Glucagon

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168
Q

Available bisphosphonates

A

Alendronate; etidronate; risedronate; pamidronate; tiludronate; and zoledronic acid

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169
Q

MOA of Bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast bone resorption

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170
Q

Uses of bisphosphonates

A

Osteoporosis; Paget’s disease; and osteolytic bone lesions; and hypercalcemia from malignancy

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171
Q

Major SE of bisphosphonates

A

Chemical esophagitis

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172
Q

Bisphosphonates that cannot be used on continuous basis because it caused osteomalacia

A

Etidronate

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173
Q

Used for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis in women

A

Calcium reguators Bisphosphonates: alendronate; risedronate; ibandronate; Estrogen (HRT-Hormone replacement therapy)

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174
Q

Increase bone density; also being tested for breast CA tx;

A

Raloxifene (SERM-selective estrogen receptor modulator)

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175
Q

Used intranasally and decreases bone resorption

A

Calcitonin (salmon prep)

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176
Q

Used especially in postmenopausal women; dosage should be 1500 mg

A

Calcium

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177
Q

Vitamin given with calcium to ensure proper absorption

A

Vitamin D

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178
Q

Disease caused by excess ergot alkaloids

A

St; Anthony’s Fire

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179
Q

A class of endogenous substances that include histamine; serotonin; prostaglandins; and vasoactive peptides that work in autocrine or paracrine manner

A

Autacoids

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180
Q

Syndrome of hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin usually caused by gastrinoma; it is associated with severe peptic ulceration and diarrhea

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

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181
Q

Drug that causes contraction of the uterus

A

Oxytocin

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182
Q

Distribution of histamine receptors H1; H2; and H3

A

Smooth muscle and mast cells; stomach; heart; and mast cells; nerve endings; CNS respectively

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183
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is highly sedating

A

Diphendydramine

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184
Q

1st generation antihistamine that is least sedating

A

Chlorpheniramine

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185
Q

2nd generation antihistamines

A

Fexofenadine; loratadine; and cetirizine

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186
Q

Generation of antihistamine that has the most CNS effects

A

First generation due to being more lipid-soluble

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187
Q

Major indication for H1 receptor antagonist

A

Use in IgE mediated allergic reaction (allergic rhinitis; urticaria)

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188
Q

Antihistamine that is indicated for allergies; motion sickness; and insomnia

A

Diphenhydramine

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189
Q

H1 antagonist used in motion sickness

A

Dimenhydrinate and other 1st generation

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190
Q

Most common side effect of 1st generation antihistamines

A

Sedation; anticholinergic

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191
Q

H2 blocker that causes the most interactions with other drugs

A

Cimetidine

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192
Q

Clinical use for H2 blockers

A

Acid reflux disease; duodenal ulcer and peptic ulcer disease

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193
Q

Receptors for serotonin (5HT-1) are located

A

Mostly in the brain; and they mediate synaptic inhibition via increased K+ conductance

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194
Q

5HT-1D/1B agonist used for migraine headaches

A

Sumatriptan; naratriptan; and rizatriptan

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195
Q

Triptan available in parenteral and nasal formulation

A

Sumatriptan

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196
Q

H1 blocker that is also a serotonin antagonist

A

Cyproheptadine

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197
Q

5HT2 antagonist mediate synaptic excitation in the CNS and smooth muscle contraction

A

Ketanserin; cyproheptadine; and ergot alkaloids (partial agonist of alpha and serotonin receptors)

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198
Q

Agents for reduction of postpartum bleeding

A

Oxytocin and ergonovine

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199
Q

Agents used in treatment of carcinoid tumor

A

Cyproheptadine

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200
Q

5HT-3 antagonist used in chemotherapeutic induced

emesis

A

Ondansetron; granisetron; dolasetron and palonosetron

201
Q

5ht-3 antagonist that has been MOST associated with QRS and QTc prolongation and should not be used in patients with heart disease

A

Dolasetron

202
Q

Drug used in ergot alkaloids overdose; ischemia and gangrene

A

Nitroprusside

203
Q

Reason ergot alkaloids are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Uterine contractions

204
Q

SE of ergot alkaloids

A

Hallucinations resembling psychosis

205
Q

Ergot alkaloid used as an illicit drug

A

LSD

206
Q

Dopamine agonist used in hyperprolactinemia

A

Bromocriptine

207
Q

Peptide causing increased capillary permeability and edema

A

Bradykinin and histamine

208
Q

Mediator of tissue pain; edema; inactivated by ACE; and may be a contributing factor to the development of angioedema

A

Bradykinin

209
Q

Drug causing depletion of substance P (vasodilator)

A

Capsaicin

210
Q

Prostaglandins that cause abortions

A

Prostaglandin E1 (misoprostol); PGE2; and PGF2alpha

211
Q

Difference between COX 1 and COX 2

A

COX 1 is constitutive while COX 2 may be induced during inflammation; although COX 2 is constitutive in some tissues

212
Q

Drug that selectively inhibits COX 2

A

Celecoxib

213
Q

Inhibitor of lipoxygenase

A

Zileuton

214
Q

Major SE of zileuton

A

Liver toxicity

215
Q

Inhibitor of leukotrienes (LTD4) receptors and used in asthma

A

Zafirlukast and montelukast

216
Q

Used in pediatrics to maintain patency of ductus arteriosis

A

PGE1 (Alprostadil)

217
Q

Approved for use in severe pulmonary HTN

A

PGI2 (epoprostenol)

218
Q

Prostaglandin used as 2nd line treatment of erectile dysfunction

A

PGE1 (Alprostadil)

219
Q

Irreversible; nonselective COX inhibitor

A

Aspirin (or other salicylates)

220
Q

Class of drugs that reversibly inhibit COX

A

NSAIDS

221
Q

Primary endogenous substrate for Nitric Oxidase Synthase

A

Arginine

222
Q

MOA and effect of nitric oxide

A

Stimulates cGMP which leads to vascular smooth muscle relaxation

223
Q

Long acting beta 2 agonist used in asthma

A

Salmeterol

224
Q

Muscarinic antagonist used in COPD

A

Ipratropium; tiotropium

225
Q

MOA action of cromolyn

A

Blocks opening of Cl channels to prevent mast cell degranulation

226
Q

Enzyme which theophylline inhibits

A

Phosphodiesterase

227
Q

Methylxanthine derivative used as a remedy for intermittent claudication

A

Pentoxifylline

228
Q

Antidote for severe CV toxicity of theophylline

A

Beta blockers

229
Q

MOA of corticosteroids

A

Induce lipocortins to 1; inhibit phospholipase A2; 2; repress COX-2 gene and enzyme expression; 3; repress cytokines that activate COX-2

230
Q

SE of long term (>5 days) corticosteroid therapy and remedy

A

Adrenal suppression and weaning slowly; respectively

231
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV

232
Q

MOA of penicillin

A

Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting transpeptidase and block peptidoglycan cross-linkage

233
Q

Drug used for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

234
Q

Vancomycin MOA

A

Binds D-Ala-D-Ala on murein monomers and prevent polymerization of the murein monomers

235
Q

Type of resistance found with vancomycin

A

Point mutation

236
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis in exposed patients

A

Rifampin

237
Q

Technique used to diagnose perianal itching; and the drug used to treat it

A

Scotch tape technique

and mebendazole

238
Q

Two toxicities of aminoglycosides

A

nephro and ototoxicity

239
Q

Drug of choice for Legionnaires’ disease

A

Azithromycin (or macrolides)

240
Q

MOA of sulfonamides

A

Inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

241
Q

Penicillins active against penicillinase secreting bacteria

A

Methicillin; nafcillin; and dicloxacillin

242
Q

Cheap wide spectrum antibiotic DOC of otitis media

A

Amoxicillin

243
Q

Class of antibiotics that have 10% cross sensitivity with penicillins

A

Cephalosporins

244
Q

PCN active against pseudomonas

A

Carbenicillin; piperacillin and ticarcillin

245
Q

Antibiotic causing red-man syndrome; and prevention

A

Vancomycin; can be prevented by infusion

at a slow rate and antihistamines

246
Q

Drug causes teeth discoloration

A

Tetracycline

247
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracycline

A

Decreases protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosome and prevent binding of tRNA to A site

248
Q

Drug that causes gray baby syndrome and aplastic anemia

A

Chloramphenicol

249
Q

Drug notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clindamycin

250
Q

Drug of choice for tx of pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

251
Q

Treatment of resistant pseudomembranous colitis

A

ORAL vancomycin

252
Q

Anemia caused by trimethoprim

A

Megaloblastic anemia

253
Q

Reason fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in children and pregnancy

A

Cartilage damage

254
Q

DOC for giardia; bacterial vaginosis; pseudomembranous colitis; and trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

255
Q

Treatment for TB patients (think RIPE)

A

Rifampin; Isoniazid; Pyrazinamide; and Ethambutol

256
Q

Metronidazole SE if given with alcohol

A

Disulfiram-like reaction

257
Q

Common side effect of Rifampin

A

Orange urine discoloration

258
Q

MOA of nystatin

A

Bind ergosterol in fungal cell membrane

259
Q

Neurotoxicity with isoniazid (INH) prevented by

A

Administration of Vit; B6 (pyridoxine)

260
Q

Toxicity of amphotericin

A

Nephrotoxicity

261
Q

SE seen only in men with administration of ketoconazole

A

Gynecomastia

262
Q

Topical DOC in impetigo

A

Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)

263
Q

DOC for influenza A and B

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

264
Q

DOC for RSV

A

Ribavirin

265
Q

DOC for CMV retinitis

A

Ganciclovir

266
Q

SE for ganciclovir

A

Myelosuppression

267
Q

Anti-viral agents associated with Stephen Johnson syndrome

A

Nevirapine; amprenavir

268
Q

HIV antiviral class known to have severe drug interactions by causing inhibition of metabolism

A

Protease inhibitors

269
Q

Antivirals that are teratogens

A

Delavirdine; efavirenz; and ribavirin

270
Q

Antivirals associated with neutropenia

A

Ganciclovir; zidovudine; saquinavir; and interferon

271
Q

HIV med used to reduce transmission during birth

A

AZT (zidovudine)

272
Q

Drug used for African sleeping sickness

A

Suramin

273
Q

Drug used in Chagas disease

A

Nifurtimox

274
Q

Cephalosporins able to cross the BBB

A

Cefixime (2nd) and 3rd generation

275
Q

DOC for N; gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

276
Q

Cephalosporin causes kernicterus in neonates

A

Ceftriaxone or cefuroxime

277
Q

SE of INH

A

Peripheral neuritis and hepatitis

278
Q

Aminoglycoside that is least ototoxic

A

Streptomycin

279
Q

Drug used in exoerythrocytic cycle of malaria

A

Primaquine

280
Q

Oral antibiotic of choice for moderate inflammatory acne

A

Minocycline

281
Q

Drug of choice for leprosy

A

Dapsone

282
Q

DOC for herpes and its MOA

A

Acyclovir; activates thymidine kinase

283
Q

Anti-bacterials that cause hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients

A

Sulfonamides

284
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides (erythromycin; clarithromycin)

A

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to domain V of 23S rRNA of 50S ribosome subunit

285
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis

A

Nitrofurantoin; trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole; fosfomycin

286
Q

Antibacterials for optimal treatment of acute pyelonephritis

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin; levofloxacin); trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

287
Q

Lactam that can be used in PCN allergic patients

A

Aztreonam

288
Q

SE of imipenem

A

Seizures

289
Q

Anti-viral with a dose limiting toxicity of pancreatitis

A

Didanosine

290
Q

Common side effect of hypnotic agents

A

Sedation

291
Q

Occurs when sedative hypnotics are used chronically or at high doses

A

Tolerance

292
Q

The most common type of drug interaction of sedative hypnotics with other depressant medications

A

Additive CNS depression

293
Q

Major effect of benzodiazepines on sleep at high doses

A

REM is decreased

294
Q

Neurologic SE of benzodiazepines

A

Anterograde amnesia

295
Q

Reason benzos are used cautiously in pregnancy

A

Ability to cross the placenta

296
Q

Main route of metabolism for benzodiazepines

A

Hepatic

297
Q

Benzodiazepine that undergo extrahepatic conjugation (which are useful in older or hepatically impaired)

A

Lorazepam; oxazepam; and temazepam

298
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines

A

increase the FREQUENCY of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel opening

299
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose (antagonist that reverses the CNS effects)

A

Flumazenil

300
Q

Benzodiazepine with useful relaxant effects in skeletal muscle spasticity of central origin

A

Diazepam

301
Q

Benzodiazepine that has efficacy against absence seizures and in anxiety states; such as agoraphobia

A

Clonazepam

302
Q

Benzodiazepines that are the most effective in the treatment of panic disorder

A

Alprazolam and Clonazepam

303
Q

Benzodiazepine that is used for anesthesia

A

Midazolam

304
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

305
Q

Longer acting benzodiazepines used in the management of withdrawal states of alcohol and other drugs

A

Chlordiazepoxide and Diazepam

306
Q

Agents having active metabolites; long half lives; and a high incidence of adverse effects

A

Diazepam; Flurazepam; chlordiazepoxide; and clorazepate

307
Q

Barbiturates may precipitate this hematologic condition

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

308
Q

Barbiturates decrease the effectiveness of many other drugs via this pharmacokinetics property

A

Liver enzyme INDUCTION

309
Q

Barbiturates MOA

A

Increase the DURATION of GABA-mediated chloride ion channels

310
Q

Barbiturate used for the induction of anesthesia

A

Thiopental

311
Q

Important drug interaction with chloral hydrate

A

May displace coumadin from plasma proteins

312
Q

Site of action for zaleplon and zolpidem

A

Benzodiazepine receptor BZ1 (although are not considered benzodiazepines)

313
Q

Good hypnotic activity with less CNS SE than most benzodiazepines

A

Zolpidem; zaleplon

314
Q

Agent that is a partial agonist for the 5-HT1A receptor

A

Buspirone

315
Q

Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder; NOT effective in acute anxiety

A

Buspirone

316
Q

Agent that is metabolized to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase and microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

A

Ethanol

317
Q

Agent with zero-order kinetics

A

Ethanol; theophylline; tolbutamide; warfarin; aspirin; phenytoin

318
Q

Rate limiting step of alcohol metabolism

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

319
Q

System that increases in activity with chronic exposure and may contribute to tolerance

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system MEOS

320
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes acetaldehyde to acetate

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

321
Q

Agents that inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

Disulfiram; metronidazole; certain sulfonylureas and cephalosporins

322
Q

Agent used in the treatment of alcoholism; if alcohol is consumed concurrently; acetaldehyde builds up and results in nausea; headache; flushing; and hypotension

A

Disulfiram

323
Q

The most common neurologic abnormality in chronic alcoholics

A

Peripheral neuropathy (also excessive alcohol use is associated with HTN; anemia; and MI)

324
Q

Agent that is teratogen and causes a fetal syndrome

A

Alcohol

325
Q

Agent that competes for alcohol dehydrogenase in the case of methanol overdose

A

Ethanol

326
Q

Drug that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and is used in ethylene glycol exposure

A

Fomepizole

327
Q

Most frequent route of metabolism

A

Hepatic enzymes

328
Q

Mechanisms of action for Phenytoin; Carbamazepine; Lamotrigine

A

Sodium blockade

329
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines and barbiturates

A

GABA-related targets

330
Q

MOA for Ethosuximide

A

Calcium channels

331
Q

MOA for Valproic acid at high doses

A

Affect calcium; potassium; and sodium channels

332
Q

Drugs of choice for generalized tonic-clonic and partial seizures

A

Valproic acid; Phenytoin and Carbamazepine

333
Q

DOC for febrile seizures

A

Phenobarbital

334
Q

Drugs of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide and valproic acid

335
Q

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

336
Q

Drugs of choice for status epilepticus

A

IV diazepam (or lorazapam) followed by phenytoin

337
Q

Drugs that can be used for infantile spasms

A

Corticosteroids

338
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for bipolar affective disorder (BAD)

A

Valproic acid; carbamazepine; phenytoin and gabapentin

339
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

340
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for pain of neuropathic orgin

A

Gabapentin

341
Q

Anti-seizure agent that exhibits non-linear metabolism; highly protein bound; causes fetal hydantoin syndrome; and stimulates hepatic metabolism

A

Phenytoin

342
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia; nystagmus; diplopia and ataxia

343
Q

Anti-seizure agent that induces formation of liver drug-metabolism enzymes; is teratogen and can cause craniofacial anomalies and spina bifida

A

Carbamazepine

344
Q

Agent that inhibits hepatic metabolism; is hepatotoxic and teratogen that can cause neural tube defects and gastrointestinal distress

A

Valproic acid

345
Q

Laboratory value required to be monitored for patients on valproic acid

A

Serum ammonia and LFT’s

346
Q

SE for Lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

347
Q

SE for Felbamate

A

Aplastic anemia and acute hepatic failure

348
Q

Anti-seizure medication also used in the prevention of migraines

A

Valproic acid

349
Q

Carbamazepine may cause

A

Agranulocytosis

350
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used as alternative drugs for mood stabilization

A

Carbamazepine; gabapentin; lamotrigine; and valproic acid

351
Q

MOA of general anesthetics

A

Unclear; thought to increase the threshold for firing of CNS neurons

352
Q

Inhaled anesthetic with a low blood/gas partition coefficient

A

Nitrous oxide

353
Q

Inversely related to potency of anesthetics

A

Minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration (MAC)

354
Q

Inhaled anesthetics metabolized by liver enzymes which has a major role in the toxicity of these agents

A

Halothane and methoxyflurane

355
Q

Most inhaled anesthetics SE

A

Decrease arterial blood pressure

356
Q

Inhaled anesthetics are myocardial depressants

A

Enflurane and halothane

357
Q

Inhaled anesthetic causes peripheral vasodilation

A

Isoflurane

358
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that may sensitize the myocardium to arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines and has produced hepatitis

A

Halothane

359
Q

Inhaled anesthetics; less likely to lower blood pressure than other agents; and has the smallest effect on respiration

A

Nitrous oxide

360
Q

Fluoride released by metabolism of this inhaled anesthetic may cause renal insufficiency

A

Methoxyflurane

361
Q

Prolonged exposure to this inhaled anesthetic may lead to megaloblastic anemia

A

Nitrous oxide

362
Q

Pungent inhaled anesthetic which leads to high incidence of coughing and vasospasm

A

Desflurane

363
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia that may be caused by use of halogenated anesthetics

A

Dantrolene

364
Q

IV barbiturate used as a pre-op anesthetic

A

Thiopental

365
Q

Benzodiazepine used adjunctively in anesthesia

A

Midazolam

366
Q

Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist; it accelerates recovery from benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

367
Q

This produces “dissociative anesthesia”; is a cardiovascular stimulant which may increases intracranial pressure; and hallucinations occur during recovery

A

Ketamine

368
Q

Opioid associated with awareness during surgery and post-operative recall; but still used for high-risk cardiovascular surgeries

A

Fentanyl

369
Q

State of analgesia and amnesia produced when fentanyl is used with droperidol and nitrous oxide

A

Neuroleptanesthesia

370
Q

Produces both rapid anesthesia and recovery; has antiemetic activity and commonly used for outpatient surgery; may cause marked hypotension

A

Propofol

371
Q

MOA of local anesthetics (LA’s)

A

Block voltage-dependent sodium channels

372
Q

This may enhance activity of local anesthetics

A

Hyperkalemia

373
Q

This may antagonize activity of local anesthetics

A

Hypercalcemia

374
Q

Almost all local anesthetics have this property and sometimes require the administration of vasoconstrictors (ex; Epinephrine) to prolong activity

A

Vasodilation

375
Q

Local anesthetic with vasoconstrictive property; favored for head; neck; and pharyngeal surgery

A

Cocaine

376
Q

Longer acting local anesthetics which are less dependent on vasoconstrictors

A

Tetracaine and bupivacaine

377
Q

These LA’s have surface activity

A

Cocaine and benzocaine

378
Q

Most important toxic effects of most local anesthetics

A

CNS toxicity

379
Q

Commonly abused LA which has cardiovascular toxicity including severe hypertension with cerebral hemorrhage; cardiac arrhythmias; and myocardial infarction

A

Cocaine

380
Q

LA causing methemoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine

381
Q

Structurally related to acetylcholine; used to produce muscle paralysis in order to facilitate surgery or artifical ventilation; Full doses lead to respiratory paralysis and require ventilation

A

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

382
Q

These drugs strongly potentiate and prolong effect of neuromuscular blockade (NMB)

A

Inhaled anesthetics; especially isoflurane; aminoglycosides; and antiarrhythmic

383
Q

These prevent the action of Ach at the skeletal muscle endplate to produce a “surmountable blockade;” effect is reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors (ex; neostigmine or pyridostigmine)

A

Nondepolarizing type antagonists

384
Q

Agent with long duration of action and is sost likely to cause histamine release

A

Tubocurarine

385
Q

Non-depolarizing antagonist has short duration

A

Mivacurium

386
Q

Agent can blocking muscarinic receptors

A

Pancuronium

387
Q

Agent undergoing Hofmann elimination (breaking down spontaneously)

A

Atracurium

388
Q

One depolarizing blocker that causes continuous depolarization and results in muscle relaxation and paralysis; causes muscle pain postoperatively and myoglobinuria may occur

A

Succinylcholine

389
Q

During Phase I these agents worsen the paralysis by succinylcholine; but during phase II they reverse the blockade produced by succinylcholine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

390
Q

Agents acting in the CNS or in the skeletal muscle; used to reduce abnormally elevated tone caused by neurologic or muscle end plate disease

A

Spasmolytic drugs

391
Q

Facilitates GABA presynaptic inhibition

A

Diazepam

392
Q

GABA agonist in the spinal cord

A

Baclofen

393
Q

Similar to clonidine and may cause hypotension

A

Tizanidine

394
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia by acting on the sarcoplasmic reticulum or skeletal muscle

A

Dantrolene

395
Q

Agent used for acute muscle spasm

A

Cyclobenzaprine

396
Q

Antipsychotics; reserpine at high doses; and MPTP (by-product of illicit meperidine analog) and is irreversible

A

Drug induced Parkinsonism

397
Q

Agent used in drug therapy of Parkinson’s instead of Dopamine which has low bioavailability and does not cross the BBB

A

L-dopa

398
Q

This is combined with L-dopa; inhibits DOPA decarboxylase (active only peripherally) which allows lower effective doses of L-dopa and allows for fewer SE’s (GI distress; postural hypotension; and dyskinesias)

A

Carbidopa

399
Q

Clinical response that may fluctuate in tx of Parkinson’s dx

A

“On-off-phenomenon”

400
Q

Anti-Parkinson’s drug which increases intraocular pressure and is contraindicated in closed angle glaucoma

A

Levodopa

401
Q

Ergot alkaloid that is a partial agonist at D2 receptors in the brain; used for patients who are refractory or cannot tolerate levodopa; causes erythromelalgia

A

Bromocriptine

402
Q

Non ergot agents used as first-line therapy in the initial management of Parkinson’s

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

403
Q

Enhances dopaminergic neurotransmission SE’s include CNS excitation; acute toxic psychosis and livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

404
Q

Inhibitor of MAO type B which metabolizes dopamine; used adjunct to levodopa or as sole agent in newly diagnosed pt’s

A

Selegiline

405
Q

Inhibitors of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT); used as adjuncts in Parkinson’s dx and cause acute hepatic failure (monitor LFT’s)

A

Entacapone and Tolcapone

406
Q

Agent decreases the excitatory actions of cholinergic neurons; May improve tremor and rigidity but have LITTLE effect on bradykinesia; Atropine-like side effects

A

Benztropine

407
Q

Agent effective in physiologic and essential tremor

A

Propranolol

408
Q

Agents used in Huntington’s Disease

A

Tetrabenazine (amine depleting drug); Haloperidol (antipsychotic)

409
Q

Agents used in Tourette’s dx

A

Haloperidol or pimozide

410
Q

Chelating agent used in Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

411
Q

Extrapyramidal dysfunction is more common with these agents; which block this subtype of dopamine receptor

A

Older antipsychotic agents; D2 receptors

412
Q

Side effects occuring in antipsychotics that block dopamine

A

EPS; hyperprolactinemia; amennorrhea; galactorrhea; neuroleptic malignant syndrome

413
Q

Antipsychotics that reduce positive symptoms only

A

Older antipsychotics

414
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotics that also improve some of the negative symptoms and help acute agitation

A

Olanzapine and aripiprazole

415
Q

Atypical antipsychotic causing high prolactin levels

A

Risperidone

416
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotic used for bipolar disorder; known to cause weight gain; and adversely affect diabetes

A

Olanzapine

417
Q

Agent more frequently associated with extrapyramidal side effects that can be treated with benzodiazepine; diphenhydramine or muscarinic blocker

A

Haloperidol

418
Q

Drug used in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

419
Q

Agents may exacerbate tardive dyskinesias (may be irreversible and there is no treatment)

A

Muscarinic blockers

420
Q

Antipsychotics having the strongest autonomic effects

A

Chlorpromazine or Thioridazine

421
Q

Antipsychotic having the weakest autonomic effects

A

Haloperidol

422
Q

Only phenothiazine not exerting antiemetic effects; can cause visual impairment due to retinal deposits; and high doses have been associated with ventricular arrhythmias

A

Thioridazine

423
Q

Agent with greater affinity to 5HT2A receptor; reserved for refractory schizophrenia; and can cause weight gain and agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

424
Q

Anti-psychotics shown not to cause tardive dyskinesia

A

Clozapine and quetiapine

425
Q

Anti-psychotics available in depot preparation

A

Fluphenazine and haloperidol

426
Q

Reduced seizure threshold

A

Low-potency typical antipsychotics and clozapine

427
Q

Orthostatic hypotension and QT prolongation

A

Low potency and risperidone

428
Q

Increased risk of developing cataracts

A

Quetiapine

429
Q

Major route of elimination for Lithium

A

Kidneys

430
Q

Patients being treated with lithium; who are dehydrated; or taking diuretics concurrently; could develop

A

Lithium toxicity; lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

431
Q

Drug increases the renal clearance hence decreases levels of lithium

A

Theophylline

432
Q

Lithium is associated with this congenital defect

A

Cardiac anomalies and is contraindicated in pregnancy or lactation

433
Q

DOC for bipolar affective disorder

A

Lithium

434
Q

SE of lithium

A

Tremor; sedation; ataxia; aphasia; thyroid enlargement; and reversible diabetes insipidus

435
Q

Example of three antidepressants that are indicated for obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Clomipramine; fluoxetine and fluvoxamine

436
Q

Neurotransmitters affected by the action of antidepressants

A

Norepinephrine and serotonin

437
Q

Usual time needed for full effect of antidepressant therapy

A

2 to 3 weeks

438
Q

Population group especially sensitive to side effects of antidepressants

A

Elderly patients

439
Q

All antidepressants have roughly the same efficacy in treating depression; agents are chosen based on these criterion

A

Side-effect profile and prior pt response

440
Q

Well-tolerated and are first-line antidepressants

A

SSRI’s; bupropion; and venlafaxine

441
Q

Most useful in patients with significant anxiety; phobic features; hypochondriasis; and resistant depression

A

Monamine oxidase inhibitors

442
Q

Condition will result from in combination of MAOI with tyramine containing foods (ex; wine; cheese; and pickled meats)

A

Hypertensive crisis

443
Q

MAOI should not be administered with SSRI’s or potent TCA’s due to development of this condition

A

Serotonin syndrome

444
Q

Sedation is a common side effect of these drugs; they lower seizure threshold; uses include BAD; acute panic attacks; phobias; enuresis; and chronic pain and their overdose can be deadly

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

445
Q

Three C’s associated with TCA toxicity

A

Coma; Convulsions; Cardiac problems (arrhythmias and wide QRS)

446
Q

Agents having higher sedation and antimuscarinic effects than other TCA’s

A

Tertiary amines

447
Q

TCA used in chronic pain; a hypnotic; and has marked antimuscarinic effects

A

Amitriptyline

448
Q

TCA used in chronic pain; enuresis; and OCD

A

Imipramine

449
Q

TCA with greatest sedation of this group; and marked antimuscarinic effects; used for sleep

A

Doxepin

450
Q

TCA used in obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD); most significant of TCA’s for risk of seizure; weight gain; and neuropsychiatric signs and symptoms

A

Clomipramine

451
Q

Secondary amines that have less sedation and more excitation effect

A

Nortriptyline; Desipramine

452
Q

Antidepressant associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Amoxapine

453
Q

Antidepressant associated with seizures and cardiotoxicity

A

Maprotiline

454
Q

Antidepressant having stimulant effects similar to SSRI’s and can increase blood pressure

A

Venlafaxine

455
Q

Antidepressant inhibiting norepinephrine; serotonin; and dopamine reuptake

A

Venlafaxine

456
Q

Antidepressant also used for sleep that causes priapism

A

Trazodone

457
Q

Antidepressant which is inhibitor of CYP450 enzymes and may be associated with hepatic failure

A

Nefazodone

458
Q

Unicyclic antidepressant least likely to affect sexual performance; used for management of nicotine withdrawal; SE’s include dizziness; dry mouth; aggravation of psychosis; and seizures

A

Bupropion

459
Q

Antidepressant with MOA as alpha 2 antagonist; has effects on both 5-HT and NE; blocks histamine receptors; and is sedating

A

Mirtazapine

460
Q

SE of mirtazapine

A

Liver toxicity; increased serum cholesterol

461
Q

Except for these agents all SSRI have significant inhibition of CytP450 enzymes

A

Citalopram and its metabolite escitalopram

462
Q

SSRI with long T1/2 and can be administered once weekly for maintenance; not acute tx

A

Fluoxetine

463
Q

SSRI indicated for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Fluoxetine (Sarafem)

464
Q

Some of SSRIs’ therapeutic effects beside depression

A

Panic attacks; social phobias; bulimia nervosa; and PMDD premenstrual dysphoric disorder); OCD

465
Q

SSRI’s less likely to cause a withdrawal syndrome

A

Fluoxetine

466
Q

Inhibit synaptic activity of primary afferents and spinal cord pain transmission neurons

A

Ascending pathways

467
Q

Activation of these receptors close Ca2+ ion channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release and pain transmission

A

Presynaptic mu; delta; and kappa receptors

468
Q

Activation of these receptors open K+ ion channels to cause membrane hyperpolarization

A

Postsynaptic Mu receptors

469
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except

A

Miosis; convulsions and constipation

470
Q

All opioids except this agent (which has a muscarinic blocking action) cause pupillary constriction

A

Meperidine

471
Q

SE of these drugs include dependence; withdrawal syndrome; sedation; euphoria; respiratory depression nausea and vomiting; constipation; biliary spasm; increased ureteral and bladder tone; and reduction in uterine tone

A

Opioid Analgesics

472
Q

Strong opioid agonists

A

Morphine; methadone; meperidine; and fentanyl

473
Q

Opioids used in anesthesia

A

Morphine and fentanyl

474
Q

Opioid used in the management of withdrawal states

A

Methadone

475
Q

Opioid available trans-dermally

A

Fentanyl

476
Q

Opioid that can be given PO; by epidural; and IV; which helps to relieve the dyspnea of pulmonary edema

A

Morphine

477
Q

Use of this opioid with MAOI can lead to hyperpyrexic coma; and with SSRI’s can lead to serotonin syndrome

A

Meperidine

478
Q

Moderate opioid agonists

A

Codeine; hydrocodone; and oxycodone

479
Q

Weak opioid agonist; poor analgesic; its overdose can cause severe toxicity including respiratory depression; circulatory collapse; pulmonary edema; and seizures

A

Propoxyphene

480
Q

Partial opioid agonist; considered a strong analgesic; has a long duration of action and is resistant to naloxone reversal

A

Buprenorphine

481
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV and had short DOA

A

Naloxone

482
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally in alcohol dependency programs

A

Naltrexone

483
Q

These agents are used as antitussive

A

Dextromethorphan; Codeine

484
Q

These agents are used as antidiarrheal

A

Diphenoxylate; Loperamide

485
Q

Inhalant anesthetics

A

NO; chloroform; and diethyl ether

486
Q

Toxic to the liver; kidney; lungs; bone marrow; peripheral nerves; and cause brain damage in animals; sudden death has occurred following inhalation

A

Fluorocarbons and Industrial solvents

487
Q

Cause dizziness; tachycardia; hypotension; and flushing

A

Organic nitrites

488
Q

Causes acne; premature closure of epiphyses; masculinization in females; hepatic dysfunction; MI; and increases in libido and aggression

A

Steroids

489
Q

Readily detected markers that may assist in diagnosis of the cause of a drug overdose include

A

Changes in heart rate; blood pressure; respiration; body temperature; sweating; bowel signs; and pupillary responses

490
Q

Most commonly abused in health care professionals

A

Heroin; morphine; oxycodone; meperidine and fentanyl

491
Q

This route is associated with rapid tolerance and psychologic dependence

A

IV administration

492
Q

Lacrimation; rhinorrhea; yawning; sweating; weakness; gooseflesh; nausea; and vomiting; tremor; muscle jerks; and hyperpnea are signs of this syndrome

A

Abstinence syndrome

493
Q

Treatment for opioid addiction

A

Methadone; followed by slow dose reduction

494
Q

This agent may cause more severe; rapid and intense symptoms (abstinence syndrome) to a recovering addict

A

Naloxone

495
Q

Sedative-Hypnotics action

A

Reduce inhibition; suppress anxiety; and produce relaxation

496
Q

Additive effects when Sedative-Hypnotics used in combination with these agents

A

CNS depressants

497
Q

Common mechanism by which overdose result in death

A

Depression of medullary and cardiovascular centers

498
Q

“Date rape drug”

A

Flunitrazepam (rohypnol)

499
Q

The most important sign of withdrawal syndrome

A

Excessive CNS stimulation (seizures)

Pharmacology Boards (3 decks)

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