Part 1 (Chapter 1): Origins of Behavioural Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

Define:

corpus callosum

A

A large bundle of nerve fibres that connects corresponding parts of one side of the brain to the other.

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2
Q

Describe:

split-brain operation

A

Brain surgery that is occasionally performed to treat a form of epilepsy; the surgeon cuts the corpus callosum, which connects the two hemispheres of the brain.

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3
Q

Define:

generalisation

A

Generalisation is a type of scientific explanation; a general conclusion based on many observations of similar phenomena.

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4
Q

Define:

reductionism

A

Reduction is a type of scientific explanation; a phenomenon is described in terms of more elementary processes that underlie it.

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5
Q

Define:

reflex

A

A reflex is an automatic, stereotyped movement produced as the direct result of a stimulus.

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6
Q

Define:

model

A

A model is a mathematical or physical analogy for a physiological process; for example, computers have been used as models for various functions of the brain.

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7
Q

Describe:

the doctrine of specific nerve energies

A

Müller’s conclusion that because all nerve fibres carry the same type of message, sensory information must be specified by the particular nerve fibres that are active.

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8
Q

Define:

experimental ablation

A

Experimental ablation is the research method in which the function of a part of the brain is inferred by observing the behaviours an animal can no longer perform after that part is damaged.

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9
Q

Define:

functionalism

A

Functionalism is the principal that the best way to understand a biological phenomenon (a behaviour or a physiological structure) is to try to understand its useful functions for the organism.

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10
Q

Define:

natural selection

A

Natural selection is the process by which inherited traits that confer a selective advantage (increase an animal’s likelihood to live and reproduce) become more prevalent in the population.

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11
Q

Define:

evolution

A

Evolution is a gradual change in the structure and physiology of plant and animal species - generally producing more complex organisms - as a result of natural selection.

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12
Q

Define:

mutation

A

Mutation is a change in the genetic information in the chromosomes of sperm or eggs, which can be passed on to an organism’s offspring; providing genetic variability.

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13
Q

Describe:

selective advantage

A

Selective advantage is a characteristic of an organism that permits it to produce more than the average number of offspring of its species.

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14
Q

Define:

neoteny

A

Neoteny is the slowing of the process of maturation, allowing more time for growth; an important factor int he development of large brains.

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15
Q

Define:

behavioural neuroscientist

A

A behavioural neuroscientist (also called a physiological psychologist), is a scientist who studies the physiology of behaviour, primarily by performing physiological and behavioural experiments with laboratory animals.

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16
Q

The human mind is a _____ performed by the brain. It is governed by the same rules regarding _____ phenomena such as laws of ____ and _____. Supporting evidence consists of studies of the human _______ _____, such as ___-_____ operations.

A

The human mind is a function performed by the brain. It is governed by the same rules regarding natural phenomena such as laws of matter and energy. Supporting evidence consists of studies of the human nervous system, such as split-brain operations.

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17
Q

What percentage of the total human body weight does the brain make up?

A

2.3%

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18
Q

During the prenatal period of cell division, what is the approximate weight of a newborns brain and how many neurons is it comprised of?

A

350g, 100bn neurons.

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19
Q

At what stage of life does the human brain reach its adult weight, and how much does it weigh?

A

Adolescence, 1,400g, about four times heavier than a newborns.

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20
Q

When did the first hominids leave Africa?

A

1.7 million years ago.

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21
Q

What was the name of the first hominids to leave Africa and scatter across Europe and Asia/?

A

Homo erectus, meaning ‘upright man’.

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22
Q

What brand of homo erectus inhabited Western Europe 30-120,000 years ago?

A

Homo neanderthalis.

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23
Q

When and where did homo sapiens evolve?

A

East Africa around 100,000 yrs ago.

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24
Q

What type of cell division is used to make sperm cells?

A

Meiotic cell division.

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25
Q

What type of cell division is used to make egg cells?

A

Meiotic cell division.

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26
Q

The fathers body cells has __ pairs of chromosomes.

A

The fathers body cells has 23 pairs of chromosomes.

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27
Q

The process of sperm production:

We begin with __ pair of chromosomes. These chromosomes _______ themselves. The cell divides to create __ cells, each with __ ________ chromosomes. Each cell divides again to create __ sperm cells, each with __ chromosomes, ____ the normal number.

A

The process of sperm production:

We begin with one pair of chromosomes. These chromosomes duplicate themselves. The cell divides to create two cells, each with 23 duplicated chromosomes. Each cell divides again to create four sperm cells, each with 23 chromosomes, half the normal number.

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28
Q

The process of egg production:

The mothers body has __ pairs of chromosomes. We begin with __ pair of chromosomes. The chromosomes ______ themselves. The cell divides to create __ cells, each with __ chromosomes. ___ of these cells ____.

A

The process of egg production:

The mothers body has 23 pairs of chromosomes. We begin with one pair of chromosomes. The chromosomes duplicate themselves. The cell divides to create two cells, each with 23 chromosomes. One of these cells dies.

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29
Q

The process of genetic transmission is known as _______.

The _______ egg divides to create __ new cells. The cell without the sperm ____. The _____ and the ___ combine to form a _____ with __ pairs of ___________. The _____ grows via _____ cell division.

The ______ has __ pairs of _______, which then _______ themselves. The cell divides to create __ new cells, each with __ _____ of ___________.

_____ division occurs over and over again until an ____ organism is created.

A

The process of genetic transmission is known as fertilisation.

The fertilised egg divides to create two new cells. The cell without the sperm dies. The sperm and the egg combine to form a zygote with 23 pairs of chromosomes. The zygote grows via mitotic cell division.

The zygote has 23 pairs of chromosomes, which then duplicate themselves. The cell divides to create two new cells, each with 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Mitotic division occurs over and over again until an adult organism is created.

30
Q

Who and when deciphered the DNA code?

A

Watson and Crick in 1962.

31
Q

Genes direct the _______ of ______.

A

Genes direct the synthesis of protein.

32
Q

How many PAIRS of chromosomes do humans have?

A

23

33
Q

What is an allele?

A

A collection of genes controlling a trait, sitting at duplicate sites of the chromosome.

34
Q

Name the four bases that form the double helix molecule?

A

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine.

35
Q

Who was Mendel and when was he alive?

A

An Austrian Monk who studied cross-breeding traits in plants. (1822-1884)

36
Q

The first cross-breeding experiment by Mendel:

One parent had two ______ brown seed genes:
__ __

The other had two ______ white seed genes:
__ __

Therefore, all offspring had __ brown seed gene and __ white seed gene:

B_ w_
B_ w_
B_ w_
B_ w_

A

The first cross-breeding experiment by Mendel:

One parent had two dominant brown seed genes:
B1 B2

The other had two recessive white seed genes:
w1 w2

Therefore, all offspring had one brown seed gene and one white seed gene:

B1 w1
B2 w1
B1 w2
B2 w2

37
Q

The second cross-breeding experiment by Mendel:

Each parent had __ brown seed gene and __ white seed gene.

Therefore,

__% of their offspring had two ____ seed genes:
_1 _2,

__% had a brown and white seed gene:
[B1 w2] [B2 w1]

Because the ____ seed it dominant, __% had ____ seeds.

B1 w1 + B2 w2 =

[__ __] [__ __] [__ __] [__ __]

A

The second cross-breeding experiment by Mendel:

Each parent had one brown seed gene and one white seed gene.

Therefore,

25% of their offspring had two brown seed genes:
B1 B2,

50% had a brown and white seed gene:
B1 w2, B2 w1.

Because the brown seed it dominant, 75% had brown seeds.

B1 w1 + B2 w2 =

[B1 B2] [B1 w2] [B2 w1] [w1 w2]

38
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The genetic makeup of alleles.

39
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

The observable trait from a combination of alleles.

40
Q

Whether a dominant or recessive trait is displayed, depends upon the makeup of the _____. A dominant allele is called ________, whilst a recessive allele is called ________.

A

Whether a dominant or recessive trait is displayed, depends upon the makeup of the alleles. A dominant allele is called heterozygous, whilst a recessive allele is called homozygous.

41
Q

In the case of one parent with _________ blue eyes (bb) having offspring with a parent with ________ brown eyes (BB), there are four possible genetic outcomes:

bb + BB =
[__] [__] [__] [__]

There is a __% chance of offspring having _____ eyes, and __% chance of offspring carrying the _____ eyed gene.

A

In the case of one parent with homozygous blue eyes (bb) having offspring with a parent with heterozygous brown eyes (BB), there are four possible genetic outcomes:

bb + BB =
[bB] [bB] [bB] [bB]

There is a 100% chance of offspring having brown eyes, and 50% chance of offspring carrying the blue eyed gene.

42
Q

In the case of one parent with _________ blue eyes (bb) having offspring with a parent with ________ brown eyes (Bb) carrying the blue eyed gene, there are four possible genetic outcomes:

bb + Bb =
[__] [__] [__] [__]

There is a __% chance of offspring having blue eyes, and __% chance of offspring having brown eyes.

A

In the case of one parent with homozygous blue eyes (bb) having offspring with a parent with heterozygous brown eyes (Bb) carrying the blue eyed gene, there are four possible genetic outcomes:

bb + Bb =
[bB] [bb] [bB] [bb]

There is a 50% chance of offspring having blue eyes, and 50% chance of offspring having brown eyes.

43
Q

Humans have __ pairs of chromosomes.

A

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.

44
Q

Gender is determined by ______ ________.

A

Gender is determined by genetic material.

45
Q

Females have all paired chromosomes: __

A

Females have all paired chromosomes: XX

46
Q

Males have one set of chromosomes which are not paired: __

A

Males have one set of chromosomes which are not paired: XY

47
Q

The _ chromosome is the smallest chromosome in humans. Whilst most chromosomes have about ____ genes, the _ chromosome has less than ____.

A

The Y chromosome is the smallest chromosome in humans. Whilst most chromosomes have about 1,500 genes, the Y chromosome has less than 200.

48
Q

Gender determination via fertilisation in humans:

```
The female (_ _) produces __ egg(s) via _____ cell division, with each egg carrying the _ chromosome.
) (
~~~

A

Gender determination via fertilisation in humans:

```
The female (XX) produces two eggs via meiotic cell division, with each egg carrying the X chromosome.
X) (X
~~~

49
Q

Gender determination via fertilisation in humans:

The male (_ _) produces sperm vie \_\_\_\_\_\_ cell division, with \_\_% of sperm carrying the homozygous _ chromosome, whilst the other \_\_% carries the heterozygous _ chromosome. 
(_) (_)
A

Gender determination via fertilisation in humans:

The male (XY) produces sperm vie meiotic cell division, with 50% of sperm carrying the homozygous X chromosome, whilst the other 50% carries the heterozygous Y chromosome. 
(X) (Y)
50
Q

Gender determination via fertilisation in humans:

When the sperm and egg meet, there are four possible outcomes:

__ + __ =
[__] [__] [__] [__]

Therefore, there is a __% chance the child will be female and __% chance the child will be male.

A

Gender determination via fertilisation in humans:

When the sperm and egg meet, there are four possible outcomes:

XX + XY =
[XX] [XY] [XX] [XY]

Therefore, there is a 50% chance the child will be female and 50% chance the child will be male.

51
Q

Sex linked traits can be observed in the coat colour of cats. A ____ single-colour tabby has only one _ chromosome, whereas the ____ double-colour tabby has two _ chromosomes.

A

Sex linked traits can be observed in the coat colour of cats. A male single-colour tabby has only one X chromosome, whereas the female double-colour tabby has two X chromosomes.

52
Q

Haemophilia is more prevalent in _____ than _____, as the gene for haemophilia is carried on the _ but not the _ chromosome.

A

Haemophilia is more prevalent in males than females, as the gene for haemophilia is carried on the X but not the Y chromosome.

53
Q

Can human females be heterozygous or homozygous?

A

Both!

54
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a _____ gene metabolic disorder, whereby the body cannot properly break down ________, an _____ _____ common in food. The buildup in the bloodstream reaches toxic levels, resulting in _____ _____ and _____ ______. A reduction in _________ in diet relieves symptoms.

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a single gene metabolic disorder, whereby the body cannot properly break down phenylalanine, an amino acid common in food. The buildup in the bloodstream reaches toxic levels, resulting in brain damage and mental retardation. A reduction in phenylalanine in diet relieves symptoms.

55
Q

Who, when and why conducted the ‘Maze Bright, Maze Dull’ experiment?

A

Tyron (1934) created an experiment that tested the proficiency of successive generations of rats in completing a maze.

56
Q

Procedure of the ‘Maze Bright, Maze Dull’ 1934 experiment:

He initiated the experiment by exposing a genetically _____ group of rats to the maze, labeling those who made the fewest errors “_____”, and those with the most errors “_____”.

Tryon then mated the “bright” males with “_____” females, and “dull” males with “_____” females. After their children matured, Tryon repeated the maze test with them, and again separated the “bright” and the “dull”, again breeding “bright” with “_____” and “dull” with “_____”.

Tryon continued this process for _____ generations, creating two distinct breeds of “bright” and “dull” rats. In order to demonstrate that ______ had little effect on the genetically selectively bred rats, and lessen the chance of error when making his conclusions, Tryon cross-fostered the rats—that is, he had a “_____” mother raise “_____” children, and vice versa.

The independent variables in his experiment were the _____ pairings, the choice of ______ and _____ for upbringing, and ______ of rats put through the maze. The dependent variable was the number of _____ made by the rats in __ trials of the maze.

A

He initiated the experiment by exposing a genetically diverse group of rats to the maze, labeling those who made the fewest errors “bright”, and those with the most errors “dull”.

Tryon then mated the “bright” males with “bright” females, and “dull” males with “dull” females. After their children matured, Tryon repeated the maze test with them, and again separated the “bright” and the “dull”, again breeding “bright” with “bright” and “dull” with “dull”.

Tryon continued this process for seven generations, creating two distinct breeds of “bright” and “dull” rats. In order to demonstrate that behavior had little effect on the genetically selectively bred rats, and lessen the chance of error when making his conclusions, Tryon cross-fostered the rats—that is, he had a “dull” mother raise “bright” children, and vice versa.

The independent variables in his experiment were the parental pairings, the choice of environment and parents for upbringing, and number of rats put through the maze. The dependent variable was the number of errors made by the rats in 19 trials of the maze.

57
Q

Results of the ‘Maze Bright, Maze Dull’ 1934 experiment:

While Tryon’s results showed that the “_____” rats made significantly fewer errors in the maze than the “_____” rats did, the question exists of what other _____, _____, _______, and ______ processes also influenced the results.

A common misconception of this experiment and other similar experiments is that the observed change in the performance in the maze directly correlates with _____ ______ ability. The superiority of the bright rats was confined to Tryon’s specific test; thus, it is not possible to claim that there is a difference in ______ capacity between the two groups of rats.

Genetic variation, such as better ______ vision, can make some rats “bright” and others “dull”, but does not determine their _________. Nonetheless, Tryon’s famous rat-maze experiment demonstrated that the difference between rat performances was _____ since their environments were ______ and ______.

A

Results of the ‘Maze Bright, Maze Dull’ 1934 experiment:

While Tryon’s results showed that the “bright” rats made significantly fewer errors in the maze than the “dull” rats did, the question exists of what other sensory, motor, motivational, and learning processes also influenced the results of the experiment.

A common misconception of this experiment and other similar experiments is that the observed change in the performance in the maze directly correlates with general learning ability. The superiority of the bright rats was confined to Tryon’s specific test; thus, it is not possible to claim that there is a difference in learning capacity between the two groups of rats.

Genetic variation, such as better peripheral vision, can make some rats “bright” and others “dull”, but does not determine their intelligence. Nonetheless, Tryon’s famous rat-maze experiment demonstrated that the difference between rat performances was genetic since their environments were controlled and identical.

58
Q

Fraternal twins are from:

A

two eggs individually fertilised.

59
Q

Identical twins are from:

A

one egg split after fertilisation.

60
Q

Who conducted the Minnesota study of twins reared apart and when?

A

Bouchard, 1998)

61
Q

What were the results of Bouchards (1998) Minnesota study?

A

Identical twins are more similar than fraternal twins on all psychological dimensions.

62
Q

Who examined the heritability of IQ in 2003?

A

Turkheimer et al.

63
Q

What were the results of Turkheimer et al’s (2003) study of IQ heritability?

A

Heritability of IQ was near zero in impoverished twins and near 1 (maximum) in affluent twins.

64
Q

Darwin’s theory of _____ Selection:

Evolutionary change occurs as the heritable traits of ______ individuals are spread throughout the population, whereas, those traits of less ______ individuals are lost.

A

Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection:

Evolutionary change occurs as the heritable traits of successful individuals are spread throughout the population, whereas, those traits of less successful individuals are lost.

65
Q

Fisher (2003) said that _______ pressure to take on ______ offspring ______ the costs of mistakingly ______ one’s own.

A

Fisher (2003) said that evolutionary pressure to take on imposter offspring overrides the costs of mistakingly rejecting one’s own.

66
Q

According to ________ Rule (19__), genes should ______ in frequency when the combined weight of genetic ________ of the ______ to the ______, with the ________ benefit gained to the ____ _____ is ______ than the _______ ____ to the individual performing the act.

_ _ > _

r = the genetic relatedness of the recipient to the actor.

B = the additional reproductive benefit gained by the recipient of the altruistic act.

C = the reproductive cost to the individual performing the act.

A

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), genes should increase in frequency when the combined weight of genetic relatedness of the recipient to the actor, with the reproductive benefit gained to the gene pool is greater than the reproductive cost to the individual performing the act.

r B > C

r = the genetic relatedness of the recipient to the actor, often defined as the probability that a gene picked randomly from each at the same locus is identical by descent.

B = the additional reproductive benefit gained by the recipient of the altruistic act.

C = the reproductive cost to the individual performing the act.

67
Q

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), r =

The genetic _______ of the ______ to the _____, often defined as the probability that a gene picked randomly from each at the same locus is identical by descent.

A

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), r =

The genetic relatedness of the recipient to the actor, often defined as the probability that a gene picked randomly from each at the same locus is identical by descent.

68
Q

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), B =

The additional ________ benefit gained by the ______ of the altruistic act.

A

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), B =

The additional reproductive benefit gained by the recipient of the altruistic act.

69
Q

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), C =

The ________ _____ to the individual ________ the act.

A

According to Hamilton’s Rule (1964), C =

The reproductive cost to the individual performing the act.

70
Q

Example of Hamilton’s Rule:

The amount of genes common between human mother and daughter is __, whilst the amount common between uncle and nephew is __. Helping to raise four nephews would occur if it meant they were unable to raise one less daughter than they would normally.

(__ X 4 = __) - (__ X 1 = __) > 0

A

Example of Hamilton’s Rule:

The amount of genes common between human mother and daughter is 0.5, whilst the amount common between uncle and nephew is 0.25. Helping to raise four nephews would occur if it meant they were unable to raise one less daughter than they would normally.

(0.25 X 4 = 1) - (0.5 X 1 = 0.5) > 0

71
Q

Kin selection only works if you can ______ your own kin. Ground squirrels are less _______ and more _____ to ___ _____ reared apart than to ______ individuals reared apart.

Alarm calls in ground squirrels may alert others of the same species to danger, but they ___ ______ to the caller and expose it to _______ ____ of ______. Paul ______ studied the alarm calls of ground squirrels, observing that the calls occurred ____ frequently when the caller had ______ nearby.

A

Kin selection only works if you can recognise your own kin. Belding ground squirrels are less aggressive and more altruistic to half siblings reared apart than to unrelated individuals reared apart.

Alarm calls in ground squirrels may alert others of the same species to danger, but they draw attention to the caller and expose it to increased risk of predation. Paul Sherman studied the alarm calls of ground squirrels, observing that the calls occurred most frequently when the caller had relatives nearby.