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0 DIT Q&A > Part 1-5 > Flashcards

Part 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are B-cells located in the lymph node?

A

Follicle of cortex

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2
Q

Where are T-cells located in the lymph node?

A

Paracortex

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3
Q

Where are plasma cells located in the lymph node?

A

medullary CORD

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4
Q

Where are macrophages located in the lymph node?

A

medullary SINUS

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5
Q

The protein derived from WHAT GENE is used as a transcription factor for the development and function of regulatory T-cells?

A

FOXP3

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6
Q

On what chromosome is FOXP3 gene located

A

X

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7
Q

FOXP3 codes for what protein?

A

Forkhead Box Protein P3

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8
Q

Female homologue for: corpus spongiosum

A

vestibular bulbs

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9
Q

Female homologue for: Cowper’s glands (bulbourethral glands)

A

Greater vestibular glands (Bartholin)

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10
Q

Female homologue for: Prostate

A

Urethral and paraurethral glands (Skene)

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11
Q

Female homologue for: Glans penis

A

Glans clitoris

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12
Q

Female homologue for: Ventral penile shaft

A

Labia minora

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13
Q

Female homologue for: Scrotum

A

Labia majora

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14
Q

What important intracellular proteins are common both to the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic pathway?

A

Caspases (end pathway)

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15
Q

Intracellular INTRINSIC apoptotic pathway proteins?

A

Bax (pro-apoptotic)
Bcl-2 (anti-apoptotic

Bax backs up apoptosis
Bcl BCLocks apoptosis

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16
Q

Intracellular EXTRINSIC apoptotic pathway proteins?

Extracellular apoptotic pathway proteins?

A

CD95 (FAS-R)

Perforin (from killer t-cell)
Granzyme B (from killer t-cell)
Fas-ligand (attaches to CD95)

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17
Q

What ratio indicates fetal lung maturity?

A

Lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio

>2:1

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18
Q

What is the proper name for the main component of pulmonary surfactant?

A

Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine

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19
Q

What amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?

A

Glycine
Aspartate
Glutamine

GAG

20
Q

Drug on market for 5 years, excellent efficacy. Patient complains of S/E 1 month into treatment. Pharm company asks you to monitor course while on drug. What Phase?

A

Phase 1: Assess the safety of the drug on normal patients
Phase 2: Determines if drugs work on diseased patients
Phase 3: Head-to-head trial with another drug
Phase 4: Post-marketing surveillance trial

21
Q

Nutrient deficiency associated with spooning of the nails?

A

IRON

22
Q

Equation for determining drugs clearance?

A

Rate of elimination / Plasma drug concentration

Clearance (CL) = (0.7 x Vd) / (half-life)

23
Q

Obligate intracellular bacteria:

A

Rickettsia and Chlamydia

R & C - Really Cold, stay inside bacteria

24
Q

Why can’t obligate intracellular bacteria replicate extracellularly?

A

Unable to make ATP

25
Q

Patient with progressive difficulty swallowing liquids and solid food. Barium swallow reveals LES stenosis. What is this?

A

Achalasia

Bird’s beak appearance on x-ray

26
Q

Most common causes of disease characterized by progressive difficulty of swallowing liquids and solid food that reveals LES stenosis on Barium swallow?

A 
Idiopathic
Chagas disease (trypansoma cruzi destroy ganglia)
Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis
27
Q

In lower extremties: what are clinical differences between PVD/PAD and DVT?

A 
PVD/PAD: 
atherosclerosis
claudication
decreased/absent peripheral pulses
cool extremities
skin becomes pale/shiny/hairless
DVT:
blood clot in peripheral vein
leg is not cool
increased calf circumference
Moses sign
Homan sign
28
Q

What is Moses sign?

A

calf tenderness with compression

29
Q

What is Homan sign

A

calf pain with dorsiflexion of ankle

30
Q

What are the two equations for Cardiac Output?

A

CO = SV x HR

CO = rate of O2 consumption / (arterial O2 - venous O2)

31
Q

For what coag factors is vit K necessary?

A

X, IX, VII, II, protein S and C

1(0)972 diSCo

32
Q

How does aspirin prevent platelet aggregation and MI?

A

Permanent inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2

–> Less TXA2 –> less thrombosis

33
Q

Which two arachidonic acids affect platelet aggregation

A

TXA2 - thromboxane A2 (STIMULATES aggregation)

PGI-2 - prostacyclin (INHIBITS aggregation)

34
Q

What medications act on microtubules?

A 
GriseoFUlvin (anti-FUngal)
Vincristine and Vinblastine (cancer)
Placlitaxel (cancer)
Colchicine (gout)
Mebendazole (anti-helminthic)
35
Q

What syndrome demonstrates a defect in microtubule polymerization?

A

Chediak-Higashi

immunodeficiency – macrophages’ microtubules are not able to function properly –> no phagocytosis

results in:
recurrent pyogenic infections, peripheral neuropathy, partial albinism

36
Q

Thiazolidinedione increase expression of one type of GLUT receptors where?

A

adipose tissue

one mechanism of anti-diabetic action

37
Q

What GLUT receptors are found in skeletal muscle and fat?

A

GLUT 4

insulin-dependent GLUT 4 receptors

38
Q

What is compartment syndrome and how is it treated?

A

Increased pressure within fascial compartment causing vascular compromise.

Fasciotomy.

39
Q

What cell is responsible for allergy symptoms such as watery eyes and runny nose?

What drug inhibits these cells?

A

Mast cells

Cromolyn sodium. Prevents mast cell degranulation

40
Q

What white blood cells descend from myeloblast or granulocyte lineage?

A

Basophil, Neutrophil, Eosinophil

41
Q

GI ligament: separates the greater and less sacs

A

Gastrohepatic and gastrosplenic

42
Q

GI ligament: May be cut during surgery to access lesser sac

A

Gastrohepatic

43
Q

2 ligaments that connect the spleen to other structures

A

Splenorenal

Gastrosplenic

44
Q

GI ligament: contains portal triad

A

hepatoduodenal

45
Q

GI ligament: connects liver to anterior abdominal wall

A

falciform

0 DIT Q&A (1 decks)

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