Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A pneumothorax is termed secondary is a patient is over _ _ years old or has history of significant _ _ _ _ _ _ _ or _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ .

A

A pneumothorax is termed secondary is a patient is over 50 years old or has history of significant smoking or lung disease.
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2
Q

Patients with a primary pneumothorax below _ cm, in the absence of symptoms, can be managed with _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ . Pneumothoraxes over _ cm should be _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and if this is unsuccessful, a _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ inserted

A

Patients with a primary pneumothorax below 2cm, in the absence of symptoms, can be managed with outpatient follow up. Pneumothoraxes over 2cm should be aspirated and if this is unsuccessful, a chest drain inserted

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3
Q

Secondary pneumothorax between 1-2 cm can be _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ . A pneumothorax over _ cm should be managed with a _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ .

A

Secondary pneumothorax between 1-2 cm can be aspirated and observed. A pneumothorax over 2cm should be managed with a chest drain.
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4
Q

Avascular necrosis

A

Vascular supply to end of bone is disrupted - leading to sseous cell death

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5
Q

RF for avascular necrosis

A

Bone fractures
Joint Dislocations
Excess Alcohol Consumption
High-dose Steroids
bisphospnate use
Radiation therapy
chemotherapy

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6
Q

Management

A

Conservative: rest+physio

Medical: NSAID

Surgery:
Core Compression surgery
Arthroplatsy (older, immobile patients)

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7
Q

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is defined as evidence of kidney damage (eg urinary abnormality such as _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ or _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ or abnormal structure of the kidney) or estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < _ _ ml/min for at least _ months.

A

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is defined as evidence of kidney damage (eg urinary abnormality such as haematuria or proteinuria or abnormal structure of the kidney) or estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) < 60 ml/min for at least 3 months

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8
Q

End stage renal disease (ESRD) is defined as eGFR < _ _ ml/min/1.72 m2, or need for _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ or dialysis

A

End stage renal disease (ESRD) is defined as eGFR < 15 ml/min/1.72 m2, or need for renal replacement therapy or dialysis.

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9
Q

Hypertension control can slow the progression towards ESRD, and _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ and _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ are indicated first line because for their effects on the RAA system.

A

Hypertension control can slow the progression towards ESRD, and angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are indicated first line because for their effects on the RAA system

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10
Q

Anaemia of CKD usually appears when GFR < 45 ml/min. The major cause is the lack of endogenous _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ secretion by the damaged kidneys

A

Anaemia of CKD usually appears when GFR < 45 ml/min. The major cause is the lack of endogenous erythropoietin secretion by the damaged kidneys

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11
Q

What next test in
skin photosensitivity + small joint polyathritis + renal vasculitis + Creatinine abnormal + haematuria + proteinuria

A

Lupus nephritis - Renal biopsy

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12
Q

Mysophobia

A

Fear of germs

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13
Q

Acromegaly test

A

igf-1

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14
Q

DVT Investigations

A
  1. D-dimer
  2. Doppler USS
  3. Wells score
  4. CT VENOGRAM

-high risk of DVT no contraindication - anticoagulate

  • +ve doppler - anticoagulate regardless of risk
  • -ve doppler but high probablilly -» repeat doppler in one week
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15
Q

Management of DVT

A

Anticoagulation

  1. LMWH
    subcut injection no monitoring needed
  2. Unfractionated Heparin (monitoring +IV + given where quick reversal may be needed)
  3. DOAC
    (oral +no monitoring)

Urgent endovascular catheter-directed thrombolysis (alteplase) within 2 weeks of symotom onset

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16
Q

Long term management of DVT

A

Provoked - 3 months anticoagulation

Unprovoked -6 months of anticoagulation

Recurrent unprovoked - lifelong

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17
Q

Post Thrombotic Syndrome

A

Chronic venous stasis in the affected limb

pain, venous dilatation, oedema, pigmentation, venous ulceration

vilalta score

leg evlevation, exercise, compression stockings, skin care stent

18
Q

DVT presentation

A

Unilateral leg swelling and pain
Tenderness
Skin colour changes
Vein distension

19
Q

What infection are patients with complement deficiency more susceptible to?

20
Q

Seizure

A

A transient occurence of signs and symptoms due to abnormal excessive or synchronous neuronal activty in the brain

21
Q

Causes of isolated seizure

A

Toxic
Metabolic
Structural
Infectious

22
Q

Focal Seizures

A

Originate in networks limited to one hemisphere and may be localized or more widely distributed

Divided into:
1. Retained Awareness
2. Imparied Awareness

23
Q

Generalised Seizure

A

Originate in bilaterally distributed networks

  1. Motor
  2. Non-motor (absence seizure)
24
Q

Tonic-clonic seizure

A
  • no warning signs may be noted
  • loss of consciousness is present
  • Brief tonic phase followed by clonic movements after falling to the ground
  • Tongue biting
    -post-ictal confusion
25
Q

Absence seizure

A
  • children
  • sudden, brief lapses of consciousness without loss of postural control
  • subte motor signs (blinking or chewing)
  • EEG: abrupt, generalised, symmetric spike and slow-wave discharge superimposed on a normal EEG background
26
Q

Focal Aware Seizure

A

Consciousness in tact
Symptoms begin in a very restiricted region like fingers and over seconds to minutes include larger portions of extremities (Jacksonian March)
Can develop into generalised tonic-clonic seizures
EEG: local discharge starting over the corresponding cortical area

27
Q

Focal impaired awareness seizure

A

Medial temporal focurs
Impaired or loss consciousness
Auro precedes seizure (strong smell, a sense of deja vu)
Automatism is often present (chewing, picking movements, etc.)
Post-ictal confusion

28
Q

Delirium Tremens

A

Begins 24-48 hours after stoppoing drinking

Symptoms include:
- Visual Hallucinations
- Delirium
- Deluision
- Coarse Tremor
- Seizures
- Tachy, hypertensive, sweating
- Dehydration/electrolyte disturbance

29
Q

Wernickes Encephalopathy

A
  • Acute encephalopathy secondary to thiamine deficiency
  • reversible + acute

Symptoms: Confusion, Ataxia, Ophatlmoplegia

30
Q

Korsakoff

A

Progression from wernicke with confabulation, cognitive deficit, and psychois (amnesia)

  • irreversible + chronic
31
Q

Stroke/ Cerebrovascular accident

A

Sudden interruption of blood supply to the brain , leading to rapidly developing focal or global neurological disturbance which lasts more than 24 hours

2 causes - cerebral infarct and cerebal haemorrhage

  1. Cerebral Infarction
    - 85% of strokes
  2. Haemorragic stroke
    A. Within brain - intracerebral haemoragic stroke (10%)
    B. Subarachnoid haemorrage
32
Q

Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

A

Transient neurological deficit caused by focal cerebral infarction without evidence of changes on CT

Less than 24 hours

33
Q

Ischaemic Stroke

A
  • Thrombotic stroke - most common seen in atherosclerosis
  • Embolic stroke - seen in patients with AF, valvular defects, and endocarditis
34
Q

Haemorragic stroke

A

Intracranial haemorrhages - most common in people with uncontrolled hypertension

Subarachnoid haemorrages - occur in AV malformations, Berry aneurysms (PKD), cerebral angiomas

35
Q

Tests to do if transfusion reaction suspected

A

FBC
Blood film
LDH
Reticulocyte count
Bilirubin
Renal function
Coagulation
Crosmmatch and direct antiglobulin test
Blood cultures

36
Q

Facial flushing treatment

A

alpha-2 receptor agonist like brimonidine topical

37
Q

Where is CSF reabsorbed

A

Arachnoid granulations

38
Q

Most common heart defects seen in trisomy 21

A

Atroventricular septal defect

39
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

facial flushing
palpitations
diarrhoa

40
Q

First line agent for >55 who do not have type 2 DM + in afro-carribeans of any age

A

Calcium channel blockers