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NCLEX Review > Part 1 > Flashcards

Part 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Redman syndrome?

A

-Flushing of the neck face upper body arms and back along with tachycardia hypotension and urticaria
-Can lead to anaphylactic reaction if the IV infusion rate is not slow down to run greater than one hour

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2
Q

Divalproex

A

-an anticonvulsant that helps control seizures and treats the manic phase of bipolar disorder

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3
Q

When should hydrochlorothiazide be taken and why?

A

-Early in the day to avoid nocturia

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4
Q

What med is administered prior to a surgical repair of a detached retina?

A

-mydriatic meds (pupil dilating) such as phenylephrine (vasoconstrictor/decongestant)

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5
Q

Adverse effect of bevacizumba that should be reported

A

Severe bleeding from nose, bleeds, vaginal, bleeding, G.I., bleeding, intracranial, bleeding, and pulmonary bleeding, which may be caused from the development of thrombocytopenia and other blood disorders

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6
Q

Complication of Amphotericin B

A

Nephrotoxicity

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7
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen

A

-acetylcysteine
-Converts toxic metabolite to non-toxic form

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8
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine receptor agonists

A

-flumazenil

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9
Q

Muscarinic poisoning antidote

A

-atropine

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10
Q

Dietary considerations for ferrous sulfate

A

Should not be taken with dairy products due to risk of interference with absorption of carbonyl iron
-Should be taken in between meals

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11
Q

What is leuprolide

A

-treats cancer of the prostate hormonally. It antagonizes the androgens that androgen dependent neoplasms require

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12
Q

What is cyclophosphamide

A

treats leukemia, multiple Myeloma, lymphomas and head over your breast and lung cancer

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13
Q

What is finasteride

A

Treats, benign, prostatic hypertrophy and also helps reduce the risk of prostate cancer

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14
Q

Zidovudine Complication

A

Severe myelosuppression that results in anemia, agranulocytosis and thrombocytopenia is a life-threatening adverse reaction. This drug must be used cautiously and clients already experiencing myelosuppression, and the client must be monitored with CBC performed every few weeks for early detection of marrow failure, which may lead to aplastic anemia.

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15
Q

What is clopidogrel

A

-inhibits platelet aggregation and can cause bleeding
-Client should report taking this medication to providers to determine whether to discontinue the medication prior to elective procedures to reduce the risk for bleeding

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16
Q

ESR

A

Measurement of inflammation

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17
Q

Ventricular fibrillation

A

-Chaotic, electrical activity in the heart, with ineffective pumping, and no cardiac output

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18
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

-an endocrine disorder of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland that results in decrease production of antidiuretic hormone

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19
Q

depth of mild edema

A

Less than 1/4 inch or 6.2 mm

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20
Q

Depth of Moderate edema

A

-1/2 inch or more

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21
Q

Severe edema depth

A

1 inch or more

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22
Q

ECG hypokalemia

A

long QT interval

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23
Q

ECG hyperkalemia characteristics

A

-Peaked T waves

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24
Q

Pediculosis capitis

A

-Head lice and it’s nits are cemented to the hair shaft. The Nits are silvery to white in color, similar to dandruff. They are typically seen on hair on the back of the head near the nape of the neck. A papular rash might be present at the nape of the neck secondary to scratching.

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25
Q

Impetigo Contagiosa

A

-a reddish macular that ruptures easily leaving exudate that forms a honey colored crust

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26
Q

Folliculitis

A

-infection of the hair follicles that look like a small red or white bumps around the hair follicles

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27
Q

Tinea capitis

A

-ringworm, causing scaly patches on the scalp with alopecia

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28
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease

A

-aganglionic megacon characterized by an area of the large intestine without nerve innervation. The child will probably require two surgeries over and 18 to 24 month Before normal bowel function is obtained. The initial surgery creates an ostomy which relieves the obstructed area and allows the bow distal to the ostomy to rest

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29
Q

Subinvolution of the uterus

A

When the uterus does not return to its normal size after childbirth

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30
Q

What is a good L/S ratio

A

2:1 to indicate fetal lung maturity
(Measures ratio of two substances in amniotic fluid)

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31
Q

Cullens sign

A

A blue discoloration similar to ecchymosis around the umbilicus
-indicates hematoperitonerm a common clinical manifestation of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy

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32
Q

What is hydrops fetalis

A

-most severe form of Rh incompatibility can be prevented by administration of RH immunoglobulin

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33
Q

Regular insulin

A

-regular rapid (short acting) run (Iv)
Onset: 1 hour
Peak: 2 hours
Duration: 4 hours

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34
Q

NPH

A

-not in the bag not so fast not clear (cloudy)
Onset:6 hours
Peak: 8 to 10 hours
Duration: 12 hours

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35
Q

Humalog

A

Lispro, Aspart (fastest)
Onset: 15 minutes
Peak: 30 minutes
Duration: three hours
Administer with meals, do not mix with other insulins

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36
Q

Lantus

A

Glargine or determir
Long acting
Slow absorption
No peak
Duration 12 to 24 hours
Cannot mix this insulin with any others

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37
Q

Premixed Insulin 70/30

A

Humulin, 7030
70% is NPH 30% is REGULAR
Onset: 30 minutes
Peak: two hours
Duration: 16 hours

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38
Q

Premixed Insulin 70/30

A

Humulin, 7030
70% is NPH 30% is REGULAR
Onset: 30 minutes
Peak: two hours
Duration: 16 hours

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39
Q

What is the therapeutic and toxic levels for Aminophylline

A

Therapeutic level: 10 to 20
Toxic level equal to, or greater than 20

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40
Q

What is the therapeutic and toxic levels for Bilirubin in a newborn

A

Therapeutic: 10 to 20
Toxic: greater than 20

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41
Q

Kernicterus

A

-bilirubin in the CSF

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42
Q

Opisthotonos/ what position should child be placed in

A

Position of slight extension in neck seen in patient’s with kernicterus (bad sign)
-should be placed on their side

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43
Q

Hiatal hernia

A

Regurgitation of acid into esophagus because upper stomach herniates upward and through the diaphragm
-2 chamber stomach
-empties backward in the correct rate
-“direction issue”
-GERD effects when lying down after eating

44
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

-Postop gastric surgery, complication in which group gastric contents, dump to quickly into the duodenum
-right direction at the incorrect rate
-“speed issue”
-cerebral impairment “drunk”
-shock “pale, cold, clammy”
-acute abdominal distress (cramping, N/V, hyperactive bowels (borborygmi)

45
Q

Treatment for hiatal hernia

A

“Want stomach to empty faster to reduce reflux”
HIGHiatal hernia
- HOB during & 1 hour after meals HIGH
-amount of fluids with meals- HIGH
-carbs content of meals- HIGH

46
Q

Treatment for dumping syndrome

A

“When everything is low the stomach empties slow”
-HOB during and 1 hour after meals LOW
-amount of fluids w meals LOW
-carbs content in meals LOW

47
Q

Whatever amount of carbs (high or low) protein is

A

Opposite

48
Q

Kalemias do the 1._______ as the prefix expect for 2.____

A

1.same as
2. Heart rate and urine output

49
Q

Calcemias and Magnesemias do the 1._______ of the prefix. No expections

A

-opposite

50
Q

Hypocalcemia 2 signs of neuromuscular irritability

A

Chvosteks sign: cheek tap= facial spasm
Trousseaus sign: BP cuff= carpal (hand) spasm

51
Q

If a symptom involves nerve or skeletal muscle pick 1. _______ . For any other symptom pick 2. ______ (generally anything affecting 3. _______)

A
  1. Calcium.
  2. Potassium.
  3. Blood pressure
52
Q

hypErnatermia

A

=dEhydration (dry skin, threads pulse, rapid HR)

53
Q

hypOnatremia

A

=overload (crackles, distended neck veins)

54
Q

The earliest sign of any electrolyte imbalance is _____ and ______

A

Numbness & tingling (paresthesias)

55
Q

Universal signs/symptoms of electrolyte in balance is

A

Muscle weakness (paresis)

56
Q

Not more than _____ of K+ per liter of IV fluid

A

40mEq

57
Q

Give 1.______ & 2.______ to decrease K+ (most dangerous electrolyte imbalance due to can stop heart)

A
  1. D5W
  2. Regular Insulin (not permanent solution)
    “K exits early”
58
Q

Kayexalate

A

-full of sodium can be an enema
- K+ exits
-not as quick, more of a permanent solution
“K exits late”

59
Q

DI is

A

Polyuria polydipsia leading to dehydration due to low ADH

60
Q

SIADH

A

opposite of DI
-oliguria
-not thirsty bc retaining water

61
Q

Type 1 Diabtetes

A

-Insulin dependent
-Juvenile onset
-ketosis prone

62
Q

Type 2 Diabetes

A

-non insulin dependent
-adult onset
-nonketosis prone

63
Q

When should Lispro be administered?

A

With meals

64
Q

The thyroid regulates

A

Metabolism

65
Q

Is exophthalmus (bulging eyes) found in hyper or hypo thyroidism

A

Hyper

66
Q

Graves’ disease

A

You were going to run yourself into the grave
Hyperthyroidism

67
Q

The localized point of tenderness in appendicitis is called

A

McBurney’s point

68
Q

Name of the sign that is characterized by right lower quadrant abdominal pain upon palpation of the left side of the lower abdomen (rebound tenderness

A

Rovsing sign
Appendicitis

69
Q

Names of calcium channel blockers

A

Dipine
*cardizem & verapamil **

70
Q

What does a normal sinus rhythm EKG look like

A

-There is a P-wave before every QRX and QRX are followed by a T-wave for every single complex
- peaks of P waves are equally distant from each other

71
Q

What does ventricular fibrillation look like on an EKG?

A

-Chaotic, squiggly line
-No pattern

72
Q

What does ventricular tachycardia look like on an EKG?

A

-70s wallpaper designs
-Sharp and jagged peaks
-Has a pattern

73
Q

QRS depolarization=

A

Ventricular

74
Q

P wave means

A

Atrial

75
Q

Sawtooth in an a EKG means

A

Flutter

76
Q

Chaotic is the word used to describe what in an EKG

A

Fibrillation

77
Q

Ventricular tachycardia on an EKG shows

A

Wide bizarre QRS’s

78
Q

Premature ventricular contractions (PVC)

A

-periodic wide bizarre QRSs
-One piece of tachycardia

79
Q

When should you be concerned about PVCs?

A

-More than six per minute
-6 in a row
-PVC falls on T wave of previous beat
would reach a moderate level of priority

80
Q

What are the lethal arrhythmias?

A

-Asystole and ventricular fibrillation

81
Q

For ventricular use

A

Lidocaine

82
Q

Atrial Treatment

A

ABCDs
Adenocard (adenosine) *push less then 8 secs SLAM this flush
Betablockers
Calcium Channel Blockers
Digitalis/Digoxin (lanoxin)

83
Q

How do you treat V fib?

A

Defib by shocking

84
Q

How do you treat asystole?

A

Epinephrine and atropine in that order

85
Q

How do you treat asystole?

A

Epinephrine and atropine in that order

86
Q

What do apical chest tubes removed?

A

-Air because they are high

87
Q

What do basilar chest tubes remove?

A
  • blood because they’re at the base of the lung
88
Q

What do you do if the water seal breaks

A

-First Clamp it and cut tube away from device
-Best submerge the tube underwater than unclamp

89
Q

What should you do if a chest tube is pulled out

A

First-cover with a gloved hand
Best- cover the hole with a Vaseline gauze put a dry sterile dressing on top place tape on three sides

90
Q

Intermittent bubbling in the water seal is

A

Good

91
Q

Continuous bubbling in the water seal is

A

Bad
Must cover hole

92
Q

Continuous bubbling in the water seal is

A

Bad
Must cover hole
-If something is sealed, it should not have continuous bubbling

93
Q

Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is

A

Bad

94
Q

If there is continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber, it is

A

Good

95
Q

Never clamp a tube for longer then ___ without a doctors order

A

15 seconds
Rubber tipped double clamps

96
Q

TRouBLe congenital heart deficits

A

T starts w letter T (expect for Left Ventricular Hyperplasmic syndrome)
R-L Right to left Shunt
B blue

97
Q

Trouble or no trouble CHD kids will have two things

A
  1. Murmurs
  2. Echocardiogram
98
Q

4 defects in tetralogy of fallot are

A

-Varied Pictures Of A Ranch
Ventricular defect
Pulmonary stenosis
Overriding aorta
Right hypertrophy

99
Q

4 defects in tetralogy of fallot are

A

-Varied Pictures Of A Ranch
Ventricular defect
Pulmonary stenosis
Overriding aorta
Right hypertrophy

100
Q

Hep A

A

Anus
-anything w a vowel comes from the bowel

101
Q

Hep B

A

-spread by blood

102
Q

Contact isolation

A

-anything enteric (from the bowel)
-fecal oral
-c diff, hep A, staph infections, RSV (transmitted by droplet but in contact precaution), herpes
-private room preferred or cohort illnesses, gloves, gown, dedicated equipment

103
Q

Droplet isolation

A

-all meningitis, H flu (can cause epiglottitis)
-private room preferred
-mask
-gloves

104
Q

Airborne precaution

A

-measles, mumps, rubella, TB (droplet spread but airborne precaution) and varicella (chicken pox)
-private room
-mask (N95 for TB)
-gloves
-pt wear mask when leaving

105
Q

Order of PPE

A

take of in alphabetical order
gloves, goggles, gown, mask
Put on reverse but mask is second
gown, mask, goggles, gloves

NCLEX Review (3 decks)

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