Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the central field of vision?

A

A 25-30 degree area of vision around the fixation point

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2
Q

To photograph the posterior pole, the center of focus is

A

between the macula & the optic disc

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3
Q

What is first seen (recorded) in fluorescein angiography?

A

Choroidal flush

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4
Q

Which of the following properly represents the steps used to convert a spherocylindrical lens into its spherical equivalent?

A

Divide the cylinder power in half then add the spherical power

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5
Q

What are the two types of bridges located on a spectacle frame?

A

Keyhole & saddle

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6
Q

Part of the rules for transposition is to change the axis of the cylinder by how many degrees?

A

90

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7
Q

What is a contraindication to contact lens wear?

A

seizure disorders

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8
Q

Spectacle blur is unclear vision associated with

A

changing from contacts to spectacles

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9
Q

changing the base curve of a contact lens changes the fitting characteristics of that lens due to a change in sagittal depth. increasing the base curve radius of a contact lens while maintaining the same diameter will cause the lens to fit

A

flatter & looser

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10
Q

Extended wear contact lenses are made of materials that allow greater permeability of

A

oxygen

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11
Q

daily wear contact lenses should be removed each night or patients are at greater risk of developing what condition

A

corneal edema

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12
Q

which ocular tissue produces A-scan spikes

A

lens

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13
Q

Advances in digital imaging technology facilitated the practical use of what type of dye

A

indocyanine green

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14
Q

what is the condition where parallel rays of light come to focus at a point just in front of the retina with respect to the unaccommodated eye?

A

myopia

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15
Q

what is the purpose of dilating the eye?

A

Allow a more complete posterior segment exam

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16
Q

which type of imaging provides a cross-sectional view of the retina that is useful in evaluating glaucoma?

A

Optical coherence tomography

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17
Q

what imaging technique does NOT provide a color-coded map?

A

indocyanine green chorioangiography (ICG)

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18
Q

Which of the following is the BEST method for kinetic testing of the central visual field?

A

Tangent screen

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19
Q

In what phase is the “choroidal flush” seen

A

Pre-arterial

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20
Q

A statement that describes the BEST use of A-scan ultrasonography would be to

A

define the size & location of intraocular masses

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21
Q

Which instrument is BEST suited to evaluate the refractive states of the eye?

A

Retinoscope

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22
Q

What does the abbreviation JCAHPO stand for?

A

Joint Commission on Allied Health Personnel in Ophthalmology.

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23
Q

What does an orthoptist do?

A

evaluation and treatment of eye movement problems and binocular vision. They are uniquely trained to treat disorders such as amblyopia, genetic disorders, and complex pediatric and adult strabismus.

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24
Q

Which eye care professional can fit a patient with a prosthetic eye?

A

ocularist

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25
Q

What is the primary function of the medial rectus muscle?

A

an adductor, allow the eyes to move from side to side

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26
Q

The Rea between the two focal points of a spherocylindrical lens is called the Conoid of

A

Sturm

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27
Q

Consensual (relating to or involving consent) light reflex in the right eye results in

A

right pupil constriction

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28
Q

What is the term for pupillary constriction?

A

miosis

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29
Q

Stereoacuity testing js indicated if a patient has

A

a phoria

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30
Q

What is the best way to perform the worth 4 dot test on a child

A

Ask which color the child sees

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31
Q

What examination distinguishes a constant tropia from an intermittent tropia

A

the cover-uncover test

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32
Q

The results of keratometry can be expressed in

A

diopters

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33
Q

which process is useful for measuring corneal astigmatism

A

keratometry

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34
Q

the purpose of keratometry is to measure the

A

curvature of the anterior corneal surface

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35
Q

what type of corneal astigmatism does a keratometry reading of 42.25/44.75x090 indicated?

A

with the rule

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36
Q

what is the number of a target illuminator replacement bulb

A

12419

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37
Q

what is the diameter of the plastic prism comprised of a flat surface within the application tonometer?

A

3.0mm

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38
Q

the calibration of the Goldmann application tonometer should be checked at which settings

A

0,2,6

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39
Q

which type of tonometer is hunter on a slit lamp?

A

applanation

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40
Q

which statement correctly refers to the letters on the Snellen chart

A

even though they each subtend the same mount of arc, some letters are easier to recognize than others

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41
Q

the autopilot tangent screen measures the

A

supra threshold kinetic field

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42
Q

The Ampler Grid is designed to evaluate visual field deficiencies in how many degrees of central vision

A

20

43
Q

Symptoms associated with a red, irritated, bloodshot eye are MOST likely due to

A

conjuctivitis

44
Q

The fact that most glasses have a downward tilt to minimize oblique astigmatism is called

A

pantoscopic tilt

45
Q

What is the result of a loss of accommodation?

A

presbyopia

46
Q

What is the ocular structure with the greatest refractive power?

A

Cornea

47
Q

What test illuminates the screen with a filter that is red on one side &green on the other?

A

Duochrome

48
Q

The distance from the anterior surface of the eye to the back surface of the spectacle lens is the

A

vertex distance

49
Q

Retinoscopy is an example of what type of refractometry?

A

Objective

50
Q

If a lesion is more anterior & is located toward one side, that may affect the junctional area involving the optic nerve of one eye & the inferior nasal fibers of the other eye. The eye on the side of the lesion will have what type of optic defect?

A

Central scotoma

51
Q

When performing the swinging flashlight test on a patient with a relative afferent pupillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil) in the left eye, the expected findings would be a(n)

A

Constriction of both pupil with direct light OD & dilation of both pupils when the light “swings” to OS

52
Q

Visual acuity of 6/12 is equivalent to

A

20/40

53
Q

The measurement used to determine the distance between the optical centers of spectacle lenses is the

A

pupillary distnace

54
Q

What part of the spectacle frame connects the two lenses

A

Bridge

55
Q

A lens with the focal length of 2 meters has a power of

A

0.50D

56
Q

What is the ONLY accurate method for measuring pupillary distance?

A

Light reflex method

57
Q

On the back of a frame are a few figures such as 46x22. What do these numbers represents?

A

Lens & bridge size

58
Q

How many nerves innervate (supply) the six extra ocular muscles/

A

3

59
Q

Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex

A

Krimsky

60
Q

Which tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria?

A

Maddox rod

61
Q

Evaluating the range & symmetry of motion of both eyes together is known as

A

versions

62
Q

Killing of the HIV & other viruses on the application prism is BEST accomplished by soaking in

A

Sodium hypochlorite (chlorine bleach)

63
Q

What drug is used during tonometry to anesthetize the eye

A

Proparacaine

64
Q

In applantion tonometry, excessive width of the mires can indicated

A

Too much fluorescein

65
Q

What is the MAIN advantage of the application tonometer compared with the indentation tonometer?

A

it is more accurate

66
Q

If the amount of light information transmitted from the brain to one eye differs from that of the other eye, the patient has a(n)

A

afferent pupillary defect

67
Q

What is the term for the “bending of light”

A

refraction

68
Q

In what phase is the “choroidal flush” seen?

A

Pre-arterial

69
Q

Which instrument is best suited to evaluate the refractive states of the eye?

A

Retinoscope

70
Q

A statement that describes the BEST use of A-scan ultrasonography would be to

A

define the size & location of intraocular masses

71
Q

What ocular tissue does the A-scan spike labelled A & B represent?

A

lens

72
Q

A patient’s prescription from a referring doctor is written in minus cylinder notation, while your ophthalmologist works in plus cylinder. Transpose the following prescription:
+2.25 -0.75 x165, +3.75 -1.25 x003

A

+1.50 +0.75 x075, +2.50 +1.25 x093

73
Q

Of the various lasers used in ophthalmology, which type has the shortest wavelength?

A

Excimer

74
Q

Which instrument is used in Chalzion surgery

A

Clamp

75
Q

Before sterilization, minor surgical instruments should be

A

Cleaned with soapy water

76
Q

Probing of the tear duct MAY BE useful treatment for patients with

A

Epihora

77
Q

A granulated inflammation of the eyelid that MAY BE removed surgically if it does not subside is a

A

Chalazion

78
Q

An ophthalmologist asks you to educated a patent on cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation, which of the following is correct

A

An implant replaces the eye’s crystalline lens

79
Q

The ophthalmologist asks for the room & equipment to be prepared for a patient who will undergo a minor surgical procedure. What may be the procedure that is going to be performed if electrolysis (removal of hair roots or small blemishes on the skin by the application of heat using an electric current) has been selected as the preferred treatment?

A

Trichiasis

80
Q

How soon should aspirin & other blood thinners be discontinued prior to cataract surgery

A

1 wk

81
Q

What is the MOST important instruction regarding the instillation of eye drops?

A

Pull down the lower lid

82
Q

What cycloplegia agent produces the longest lasting effect

A

Atropine Sulfate

83
Q

What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body

84
Q

What is a cycloplegia that is ideal for office use because it is relatively weak & is primarily used for its dilating ability

A

Tropicamide

85
Q

What type of drug is used to treat acute allergic reactions?

A

Antihistamines

86
Q

Which eye drop inactivated the sphincter muscle of the iris?

A

Cycloplegic

87
Q

Patients most commonly cite which systemic drug as producing an allergic of bad reaction?

A

Ampicillin

88
Q

Ampicillin

A

a medication used to manage and treat certain bacterial infections. It is in the penicillin class of medications. Ampicillin was developed to overcome the issue of drug resistance and extend the antimicrobial coverage of penicillins.

89
Q

Which of the following modes of drug delivery involves placing the drug directly on the surface of the eye?

A

Topical

90
Q

What is an important factor in the delivery of eye medications?

A

Prolonging medication contact time with the eye

91
Q

What is the term for the “determine” of the hands?

A

Scrubbing

92
Q

What is a possible side effect of Ampicillin?

A

Anaphylactic reaction

93
Q

What is the term for the concentration of chemical in a pharmaceutical solution?

A

Tonicity

94
Q

What is the term for the condition where the crystalline lens of the eye or its capsule, or both, becomes opaque, with consequent loss of visual acuity?

A

cataract

95
Q

What is the name of the visual receptors that processed color?

A

Cones

96
Q

What two items are used to clean the following lenses: retinoscopy, polarizing, red & Maddox rod?

A

Cotton tip swab & glass cleaner

97
Q

Maddox rod

A

can be used to subjectively detect and measure a latent, manifest, horizontal or vertical strabismus for near and distance.

98
Q

Almost all patients who enter the ophthalmologist’s office require a determination of what status regrading their eyes?

A

Refractive error

99
Q

What is a symptom of hyperthyroidism

A

shortness of breath

100
Q

what is the name of the condition where a fibrovascular growth forms on the conjunctiva to a portion of the cornea

A

pterygium

101
Q

pinguecula

A

a small, raised, white- or yellow-colored growth that is limited to the conjunctiva; it can occur on the inner or outer side of the eye. A pinguecula may contain deposits of protein, fat or calcium.

102
Q

What strength of the middle segment in a trifocal lens is

A

50% of the strength of the reading segment add

103
Q

For which one of the following in-office surgeries might an ophthalmologist ask that the operative site be prepped with topical 2% providing-iodine

A

chalazion excision