Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

We Fly Cheat Sheet > Part 1 > Flashcards

Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Validity of IPC

A
  • 12 months
  • Operators training and checking system
  • if done within 3 months of expiry, it is valid for 12 months after expiry date.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Privileges and Limitations

A
  • Fly IFR and Night VFR
  • conduct IAP
  • Single pilot IFR if done during IPC
  • circling approach if tested within last 12 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Recent Experience

A

To fly IFR - 3 IAP in 90 days
particular CAT - flown same CAT in 90 days
2D/3D/Azimuth/CDI - 1 in 90 days

considered to be met if done IPC in the last 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum Equipement List

A

9 Total items

  • Approved GNSS
  • Attitude indicator
  • ASI - pitot heat
  • ALT
  • VSI
  • T/S
  • DG
  • Compass
  • Clock
  • OAT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Electric Lighting for Night IFR

A

Cockpit and cabin lighting requirement (6 items)

  • Equipment illumination inc. checklists and documents
  • Variable intensity
  • Cabin lighting for the seatbelt, oxygen normal and emergency exits
  • Independent portable light for each FCM

Anti Collision (3 items)
- 1 red beacon or
- 2 white strobe or
- a combination of these

Landing light (At least 1)

Nav lights (must be fitted when operating by night)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Speeds Definitions - VMCA

A

VMCA - minimum control speed air - RED RADIAL
VMCG - Minimum control speed ground
VSSE - Single engine safety speed
VYSE - Single engine best rate of climb speed - blue radial (88kts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Speeds Definitions - VMCG

A

VMCA - minimum control speed air - RED RADIAL
VMCG - Minimum control speed ground
VSSE - Single engine safety speed
VYSE - Single engine best rate of climb speed - blue radial (88kts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Speeds Definitions - VSSE

A

VMCA - minimum control speed air - RED RADIAL
VMCG - Minimum control speed ground
VSSE - Single engine safety speed
VYSE - Single engine best rate of climb speed - blue radial (88kts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Speeds Definitions - VYSE

A

VMCA - minimum control speed air - RED RADIAL
VMCG - Minimum control speed ground
VSSE - Single engine safety speed
VYSE - Single engine best rate of climb speed - blue radial (88kts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Comm Failure - Indications by aircraft

A

inflight Day - rock wings
inflight Night - flash landing lights twice
Ground Day - rock surfaces
Ground Night - flash landing lights twice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Comms Failure - Class G

A
  • Remain in VMC and OCTA
  • Transmit blind
  • Remain VFR class G and land at nearest airport
  • report arrival to ATS on SARTIME
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Comm Failure - CTA or IFR in glass G

A
  • Squawk 7600
  • listen out on ATIS or NAVAIDS
  • transmit blind

If VMC - stay in VMC and land at closest airport

If In IMC -
- proceed with latest ATC route clearance and climb to planned level

if clearance limit involves ALT

  • maintain assigned level or MSA for 3 Mins (A has 3) or
  • hold at location for 3 minutes
  • proceed with latest shit and climb to planned level

If ATS surveillance

  • climb to MSA/LSALT
  • vector for 2 minutes
  • proceed as normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Comm Failure - Destination procedures

A
  • TRK to destination in accordance to FP
  • commence decent in accordance with SOP or FP
  • Descend to the initial approach altitude for most suitable approach aid
  • carry out an approach to minima
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Comm Failure - Actions at minima

A
  • if visual, just land
  • if not visual, go to an alternate
  • if no fuel, you can hold or keep trying
  • Class D has certain procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Take off Distance Required

A

use landing performance chart, if unfactored, apply this factor

  • 1.15 MTOW for 2T
  • 1.25 MTOW for 3.5T
  • between 2-3.5T use linear interpolation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Landing Distance Required

A
  • 1.15 MTWO 2T
  • 1.43 MTOW 4.5T
  • between 2-4.5T linear interpolation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

VMC (Class G + E + C)

A
  • 5km Vis
  • 8km Vis (above FL10)
  • 1500 -
  • 1000 I
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

VMC (Class D)

A
  • 5km Vis
  • 500ft I
  • 600 M -
  • 1000 ft ^
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Transponder Codes

A
  • VFR = 1200
  • IFR OCTA = 2000
  • IFR CTA = 3000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

VHF theoretical max range

A

Distance = 1.23 (elevation FT + height FT )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Light Singals to aircraft (steady Green)

A
  • flight - land
  • on ground - take off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Light Signals to Aircraft (steady red)

A
  • inflight - Give way and circle
  • on ground - STOP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Light Signals to Aircraft (Flashing green)

A
  • in flight - return for landing
  • on-ground - Taxi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Light Signals to Aircraft (red flashes)

A

flight - airport unsafe, do not land
ground - taxi clear of landing area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alternate - what is a suitable alternate?

A

Must be a suitable destination
cant require an alternate for an alternate
cant be a helideck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Alternate - Aids - IFR by Night

A

alternate must be planned for an IFR flight by night to an airport that is:

  • not served by an instrument approach
  • served by 1 or more IAP none of which the pilot is able to conduct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alternate - AIDS - IFR flights

A

IFR must have an ALT if:

  • below chart minima
  • pilot isnt rated for any of the approaches

ALT min =

  • chart minima
  • day only - LSALT +500 & 8km vis

Night VFR (must have alt within one hour unless)

  • radio aid (NDB/VOR) and AC is fitted with the systems OR
  • approved GNSS and pilot rated for it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Alternate - AIDS - Night VFR

A

suitable alternate within 1 hour flight time of the destination

  • the destination is served by radio nav aid and aircraft is fitted with same aid and pilot is ticked off on using it
  • aircraft has approved GNSS and pilot is ticked off on that GNSS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Alternate - Clouds, Vis and wind

A

upto 30 mins

Cloud - < SCT below ALT min
VIS - ALT min or prob 30% fog, mist, dust etc
Wind - aircraft AFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Alternate - Lighting

A

dont commit to memory, but the relevant section is in ENR 1.1 para 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Alternate - Storm

A

Inter = 30
tempo = 60

fuel or alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Special Alternate Minima

A
  • Dual ILS/VOR (duplicated LOC, G/P, Marker and VOR)

identified on applicable instrument approach charts by double asterisk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Altimeter Checks for IFR - with an accurate QNH set

A

should read within 60ft. If it has an error in excess of 75ft, must be considered US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Altimeter Checks for IFR - two altimeters

A

if you have 2 alt and require 2

   - one must read within 60ft
   - if the second is between 60-75 you can fly IFR to the first point and recheck, if it's still above 60ft, its U/S
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Altimeter Checks for IFR - two altimeters but only require one

A

if you have 2 alt and require 1

   - one must read within 60ft
   - if the second is between above 75ft, it must be placarded
36
Q

Altimeter Checks for IFR - 1 alt and require 1

A

If you have 1 and require 1
- if it is between 60-75 you can fly IFR to first point and recheck, if its still above 60ft, its U/S

37
Q

Altimeter Checks for VFR

A

VFR altimeters - 100ft (110ft if above 3300ft)

38
Q

Take off Minima for Engine failure

A

Met conditions less than take off min
Met conditions to return to land at dep aerodrome due to OEI
- IAP
- Visual approach

39
Q

Take off minima for qualifying multi-engine IFR

A

Cloud Ceiling - Cloud on Ground-
Vis - 800m

40
Q

Take off minima for NON-qualifying multi-engine IFR

A

Cloud Ceiling - 300ft
Vis - 2000m

41
Q

What is a qualifying multi-engine IFR

A
  1. multi engine JET MTOW < 2722KG or
  2. multi engine turbo prop MTOW < 5700
    - 2 pilots or
    - 1 pilot with autofeather
    - if engine failure, capable of maintaining terrain clearance until reaching the minimum height for IFR flight
42
Q

QNH below Transition layers?

A
  • Current local QNH of the station along the route within 100nm of the aircraft
  • Area forecast if local unavailable
43
Q

Navigation requirements under IFR?

A
  • approved area nav system - meets performance of intended airspace
  • radio nav system - after making allowance of tracking errors +-9 (max time is 2 hours)
  • visual reference (must be VMC)
44
Q

Deviations in CTA?

A 
NDB - 5°
VOR - half scale
RNP - outside RNP value
DME - +/- 2nm
Visual - +1nm
45
Q

Holding Speeds?

A

upto FL140 = 230 // 170 for CAT A+B
FL140-200 = 240
FL200+ = 265

46
Q

3 different types of holds

A

Sector 1 - Parallel
Sector 2 - Teardrop // Offset
Sector 3 - Direct

LH = Non-standard
RH = Standard

47
Q

Setting QNH before IAF // before IAF, must put QNH from

A
  • Actual QNH (ATIS/ATC)
  • TAF
  • forecast area QNH
48
Q

Approved actual QNH Sources?

A

ATC
ATIS - Except when aerodrome forecast QNH is provided
AWIS
Bureau of Met

valid for 15 mins

49
Q

Aerodrome Operating Minima, what is published?

A

DA MDA

OCA is NOT

50
Q

Approach Ban - what is the rule?

A

PIC must not descend below 1000ft AAL where the TDZ RVR is reported by ATC as continually less than the landing minima for the IAP

you can continue the approach if below 1000ft when info is received

51
Q

Approach Ban - who is it for?

A

conducting an IAP
- with ATC
- for which RVR reports are available for IAPs for that runway

52
Q

What does shaded background on minima for IAP mean?

A

calculated assuming actual QNH (ATIS or ATC but not forecast) used, and minimas may be reduced by 100ft.

If forecast QNH used, you must add 50ft to minima

53
Q

Pressure Error correction?

A

No longer appears in the AIP

54
Q

Flying below LSALT

A

TVIAC

Take off or landing
Visual approach or departure
Instrument approach
ATC clearance
VMC by day
55
Q

Descent below straight in MDA?

A

VMC

Visual reference met
minima requirements adhered to
continuously in a position to land with normal manoeuvres

56
Q

Circling approaches and visual circling minima?

A

VMC, day obstacles, night MDA

Vis not less than circling minima
Maintain visual contact
Circling Area
obstacle clearance 300ft by day
night not below MDA until dwn/base/final
57
Q

Circling Areas for:
CAT B?
CAT C?

A

B - 2.66nm // 300ft obstacle clearance
C - 4.2nm // 400ft obstacle clearance

58
Q

Approach speeds for CAT C?

A 
Vat = 121 - 140
IAF = 160 - 240
FAF = 115 - 160
Circling = 180
Mapt = 240
59
Q

IAP tolerance for flight test? (2D)

A

1/2 scale for VOR/ILS
+-5 for NDB
within RNP value
+-2nm of DME or GNSS

minimum ALT - +100ft // -0ft at minima descent altitude
Mapt not below DA

60
Q

IAP tolerance for flight test? (3D)

A

1/2 scale for ILS
1/2 scale deflection or +/-75ft

minimum ALT - +100ft // -0ft at minima descent altitude
Mapt not below DA

61
Q

What is full/half scale deflection on ILS?

A

LOC = 2.5/1.25

each dot is 0.5

62
Q

What is full/half scale deflection on G/S?

A

G/S = 0.5/0.25

each dot is 0.1

G/S = 0.7

63
Q

What is full/half-scale deflection on VOR?

A

10/5 degrees

64
Q

ILS tolerances

A
  • half-scale deflection for both GS and LOC
  • discrepancy after FAF
  • after FAP - if at any point, you go out of full scale, must conduct a missed approach
  • After FAP, LOC/GS full scale deflection
65
Q

DME or GNSS arrival tolerances

A

General:
- azimuth given by radio nav aid
- descent not permitted until established within the appropriate sector
- if circling required, must remain within the sector at or above the MSA
- maneuvering within a sector after passing the FAF is prohibited

In CTA:
- CLEARED DME - clearance for final approach and authorises an aircraft to descent to minimum altitude
- when cleared, you cant orbit or hold, they wont clear you if it involves the use of holding pattern
- if they cant clear you, “descent to not below DME steps” will be used
- if track is not aligned with runway, “cleared for DME” includes clearance to maneuver within the circling area

66
Q

DME or GNSS arrival tolerances - in CTA

A

In CTA:
- CLEARED DME - clearance for final approach and authorises an aircraft to descent to minimum altitude
- when cleared, you cant orbit or hold, they wont clear you if it involves the use of holding pattern
- if they cant clear you, “descent to not below DME steps” will be used
- if track is not aligned with runway, “cleared for DME” includes clearance to maneuver within the circling area

67
Q

Visual Approaches - Issued by ATC? (Day)

A 
30nm
visual reference of ground or water
vis 5km
68
Q

Visual Approaches - Issued by ATC? (Night)

A

~~~
30nm
The continuous sight of ground or water
5km vis

If radar vectored - assigned MVA and given heading or tracking instructions to intercept final or to position within circling area
``

69
Q

Visual approach by pilot (Day)

A 
30nm
clear of cloud
sight of ground or water
within 5nm 
vis 5km or aerodrome in sight

If in CTA - not less than 500ft above the lower limit of the CTA clearance received to depart and re-enter CTA
70
Q

Visual approach by pilot (Night)

A 
clear of cloud
5km vis
sight of ground or water
LSALT/MSA, DGA step or last assigned altitude if being radar vectored

maintain track/heading on the route authorised until:
within circling area 
Within 3nm and AD in sight if no IAP or not authorised to use IAP or if VFR
5 on papi
7 on papi with ILS
10 on GS
71
Q

Landing Minima

(RNP - LNAV/VNAV, precision approach)

minimum visibility

A

part 91 15.10

RVR or visibility specified ont he IAP chart
relevant minim in AFM
relevant minima specified in the operators exposition or operators manual
IFR by night - VMC from LSALT within 3nm

72
Q

Landing Minima - extended

(RNP - LNAV/VNAV, precision approach)

minimum visibility 800m

A
  • TDZ RVR report is not available
  • the approach lighting system normally available beyond 420m from the runway threshold is inop
73
Q

Landing Minima - extended

(RNP - LNAV/VNAV, precision approach)

minimum visibility 1200m

A
  • the appraoch cannot be flown to at least the landing minima using FD and HUD or an autopilot or
  • the aircraft is not equipped with an operative failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference system or
  • high intensity runway edge lighting is not in operation or
  • the approach lighting system normally available beyond 210m from the runway is inop
74
Q

Landing Minima - extended

(RNP - LNAV/VNAV, precision approach)

minimum visibility 1500m

A

but only if the approach lighting system normally available for the runway is inop
IFR by night - VMC from LSALT within 3nm

75
Q

Landing Minima if no IAP?

A

IFR by day - visual approach requirements

76
Q

when do i need to do a Mapt?

A

So - Straight-in landing cannot be effected unless
a circling approach can be conducted in the
conditions equal to, or better than, those
specified for circling

not visual - no visual at minima
R - Raim lost
O - outside of tolerance during final segment
F - failure of the aid below MSA
L - lost visual reference during circling

77
Q

Go Around / MAPT in VMC

A
  • climb on runway track
  • remain visual
78
Q

MAPT in class D (VMC)

A
  • climb to CCQ ALT
  • go to active side of runway
  • rejoin CCQ from upwind
79
Q

When must Altitude Altering equipment be equipped?

A
  • piston engine operating in controlled airspace above FL150
  • unpressurised turbine engine operating above FL150
  • pressurised turbine operating in any airspace
80
Q

altitude alerting equipment must

A
  • include an assigned altitude indicator
  • alert the flight crew when approaching the preselected altitude
  • alert flight crew members including by aural warning if deviation from selected alt
81
Q

Fuel Requirements MTOW <5700

A

Day VFR - 30 Mins
Night VFR - 45 Mins
IFR - 45 Mins

82
Q

Fuel Requirements Turbo jet or > 5700 turbopro

A

30 mins + 5% contingency

83
Q

Fuel requirements piston > 5700

A

45 Mins + 5% contingency

84
Q

Hold Limitations outbound timing?

A

begins abeam the fix or attaining outbound leg, whichever comes LATER

85
Q

Time/distance Outbound?

A

-FL140 = 1 min or chart distance
+FL140 = 1.5 mins or chart distance

86
Q

Hold turns

A

RH is standard, Left is odd

25 degress or rate one, whichever requires less bank

87
Q

speed to exist a hold

A

jet aircraft in CTA must leave an en route holding pattern at 250kts IAS

We Fly Cheat Sheet (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions