Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SPI REVIEW QUESTIONS > Part 1 > Flashcards

Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the term for any sound that is less than the audible sound ?
    a. Hypersound
    b. Infrasound
    c. Noise
    d. Supersound
    e. Ultrasound
A

B. INFRASOUND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristics of diagnostic ultrasound?
    a. It can be transmitted through a vacuum
    b. It is a form of electromagnetic radiation
    c. It is a mechanical longitudinal wave
    d. It is a transverse wave
A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Audible sound is
    a. Greater than 20,000 Hz
    b. Greater than 20Hz and less than 20,000 Hertz
    c. Less than 20 Hertz
    d. Less than 200 Hertz
A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What is a longitudinal wave ?
    A. A wave in which the oscillating energy is in the direction opposite of the wave motion
    B. A wave in which the oscillating energy is in the direction of the wave motion
    C. A wave in which the oscillating energy is in an oblique direction of the wave motion
    D. A wave in which oscillating energy is perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
    E. A wave in which the oscillating energy is redirected in the direction of the wave motion
A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. When an acoustic wave travels through a medium, the tissue molecules change concentration. What is the highest level of concentration called?
    a. Compactness
    b. B. compression
    c. C. excitation
    d. Ionization
    e. Rarefaction
A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. When an acoustic wave travels through a medium, the tissue molecules change concentration. What is the lowest level of concentration called?
    a. Compactness
    b. Compression
    c. Excitation
    d. Ionization
    e. Rarefaction
A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. As the frequency of wave increases, the wavelength will
    a. Decrease
    b. Decreased by one half
    c. Increase
    d. Double
    e. Remain the same
A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following is a definition of period ?
    a. The distance it takes for one complete cycle to occur
    b. The. Distance it takes for the pulse to travel through the medium
    c. The time it takes for one complete cycle to occur
    d. The time it takes for one complete pulse to occur
    e. The time it takes for the u/s pulse to travel through the medium
A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Ultrasound travels the slowest through which of the following
    a. Bone
    b. Fat
    c. Lung
    d. Soft tissue
    e. Water
A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is the approximate frequency that has a wavelength of 0.4 mm in soft tissue ?
    a. 3.0 Hz
    b. 3.0 kHz
    c. 3.0 Mhz
    d. 3.8 kHz
    e. 3.8 MHz
A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The velocity of u/s in soft tissue is approximately
    a. 330 m/s
    b. 440 m/s
    c. 1540 m/s
    d. 4000 m/s
A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Stiffness of a medium is the opposite of its
    a. Compressibility
    b. Density
    c. Hardness
    d. Impedance
    e. Resillency
A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. If the compressibility of a material increases, the speed of sound will
    a. Decrease
    b. Double
    c. Increase
    d. Remain the same
    e. Compressibility and speed of sound are not related
A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. As the power of the beam increases, Intensity will
    a. Decrease
    b. Double
    c. Increase
    d. Quadruple
    e. Remain the same
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. If the frequency of a wave increases, the period will
    a. Decrease
    b. Double
    c. Increase
    d. Remain the same
    e. Frequency & power are not related
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. By doubling the amplitude, the intensity will
    a. Decrease by half
    b. Decrease by ¼
    c. Increase by two
    d. Increase by four
    e. Remain the same
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is the unit used to compare the ratio of intensities of two sound waves ?
    a. Amplitude
    b. Decibel
    c. Frequency
    d. Hertz
    e. Rayl
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Amplification gain is set to 40dB. If the fain is reduced by one-half, what will the new gain be?
    a. 4
    b. 10
    c. 20
    d. 30
    e. 37
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. The number 6115 can be express as which of the following ?
    a. 6.0 x 10^3
    b. 6.1 x 10
    c. 61.15 x 10^3
    d. 6.115 x 10^3
    e. 6.2 x 10
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Put the following metric prefixes in descending (largest to smallest) order:
    a. Kilo,micro,mega
    b. Mega, micro, kilo
    c. Micro, kilo, mega
    d. Kilo, mega, micro
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. The amount of space from one end of an object to the other end of the object is the
    a. Area
    b. Circumfrence
    c. Distance
    d. Radius
    e. Volume
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. The formular for the volume of an object is
    a. 2 (length + height)
    b. Length x height x 0.523
    c. 2 (length x heigh x width)
    d. Length x height x width
    e. Length x width x height x 0.523
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is the speed of sound through bone ?
    a. Equal to the speed of sound in air
    b. Equal to the speed of sound in soft tissue
    c. Greater than the speed of sound in air and soft tissue
    d. Less than the speed of sound in air
    e. Less than the speed of sound in soft tissue
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. The redirection of a portion og the sound beam back to the transducer is known as
    a. Boundary
    b. Interface
    c. Reflection
    d. Refraction
    e. Transmission
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Specular reflection occurs at a
    a. Large tissue interface
    b. Large and smooth tissue interface
    c. Rough tissue interface
    d. Small tissue interface
    e. Small and smooth tissue interface
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. The product of tissue density and u/s velocity is known as
    a. Acoustic coefficient
    b. Acoustic impedance
    c. Interface
    d. Reflectivity
    e. Transmission
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. A type of non-specular reflection that occurs at irregular or rough interfaces is known as
    a. Deflection
    b. Reflection
    c. Refraction
    d. Scatter
    e. Transmission
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. The use of contrast media in the body will
    a. Decrease the amount scatter
    b. Double the amplitude of the signal
    c. Have little or no effect on the signal
    d. Increase the amount of scatter
    e. Double the amount of scatter
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. An echo caused by the bending of the sound beam is known as
    a. Diversion
    b. Reflection
    c. Scatter
    d. Refraction
    e. Transmission
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. If the velocity in the second medium is greater than the first medium than the transmission angle will be
    a. Equal to incident angel
    b. Equal to the reflection angel
    c. Less than the incidence angle
    d. Greater than the incident angle
    e. Cannot be determined from the information above
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. More absorption takes place when using a transducer with a
    a. Higher frequency
    b. Lower frequency
    c. Multihertz crystals ‘multiple crystals
    d. One crystal
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. The reduction of intensity of the ultrasound beam as it travels through tissue is known as
    a. Acoustic impedance
    b. Absorption
    c. Attenuation
    d. Reflection
    e. Scatter
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Using a high frequency transducer will result in
    a. Faster propagation speed
    b. Greater attenuation
    c. Less attenuation
    d. Poor resolution
    e. Slower propagation speed
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. What is another name for anechoic
    a. Echo-free
    b. Echogenic
    c. Homogenous
    d. Hyperechic
    e. Hypoechoic
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is another term for hyperechoic?

a. Anechoic
b. Echogenic
c. Hypoechoic
d. Isoechoic
e. Sonolucent

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. The increase of echoes posterior to weakly attenuating structure is known as
    a. Enhancement
    b. Homogeneous
    c. Heterogenous
    d. Hyperechoic
    e. Shadow
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. The property of certan materials to create a voltage when they are mechanically deformed is called
    a. Bandwidth
    b. Curie temperature
    c. Pzt effect
    d. Electromagnetism
    e. Transducer
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Axial resolution is equal to
    a. ½ SPL
    b. 2 x SPL
    c. SPL divided by 4
    d. SPL^2
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. The formular for Q factor is
    a. Frequency divided by SPL
    b. Frequency divided by the bandwidth
    c. Frequency multiplied by bandwith
    d. 2 x (frequency multiplied by bandwidth)
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. What is the most common type of man made material used in diagnostic imagine transducers?
    a. Lead zircon
    b. Lead zirconate titanate
    c. Quartz
    d. Rochelle salt
    e. Crystal
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. U/s crystals vibrate the
    a. Amplitude mode
    b. Diameter mode
    c. Radial mode
    d. Thickness mode
    e. Elevational axis
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. The use of damping in transducer design results in
    a. Longer SPL
    b. Longer pulse duration
    c. Resonance
    d. Shorter SPL
    e. Wavelength
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. The Fresnel zone is also known as the
    a. Far field
    b. Focal zone area
    c. Image plane
    d. Huygens wave
    e. Near field
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. The length of the near. Field can be increased by increasing ?
    a. Damping
    b. Frequency
    c. Propagation speed
    d. Prf
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. The intensity of the u/s beam is more uniform in the
    a. Focal zone
    b. Fraunhfer zone
    c. Fresnel zone
    d. Near zone
    e. Dead zone
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Destructive interference occurs when
    a. Two waves are equal to each other
    b. Two waves are in phase with each other
    c. Two waves are out phase with each other
    d. One wave is greater than the second wave
    e. One wave is less than the second wave
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. The length of the Fresnel zone increase when the
    a. Frequency decreases
    b. Frequency increases
    c. Propagation speed decreases
    d. Propagation speed increases
    e. None of the above
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. One method of external focusing requires the us of a (n)
    a. Acoustic lens placed in front of the crystal
    b. Acoustic lens placed behind the crystal
    c. Concave shaped pzt elements
    d. Delaying the electrical pulses
    e. None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. What is the focal point
    a. Area of maximum narrowing of the beam
    b. Area of maximum widening of the beam
    c. One-half the distance of the focal length
    d. Distance from the transducer to the focus
    e. None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Another term for lateral resolution is
    a. Axial resolution
    b. Azmithul resolution
    c. Cross-sectional resolution
    d. Radial resolution
    e. Elevational resolution
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Angular resolution is
    a. Improved by longer wavelengths
    b. Equal to axial resolution
    c. Improved with focusing
    d. Improved with increased amount of damping layer
    e. Improved with layer frequency transducer
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. What is pulse duration
    a. Length of time require to complete one cycle
    b. Length of time require to complete one pulse
    c. The time from the beginning of one pulse to the beginning of the next
    d. Number of pulses in the cycle
    e. Space require to complete one pulse
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Pulse duration is equal to the product of the
    a. u/s frequency x the number of cycles in a pulse
    b. u/s frrquency x the number of pulses
    c. u/s period x the number of cycles in a pulse
    d. u/s period x the number of pulses in a cycle
    e. u/s propagation speed x the nmber of cycles in the pulse
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. The process of. Varying the voltage to transducer crystals to form a real-time pulse is called
    a. Amplification
    b. Apodization
    c. Focusing
    d. Refraction
    e. Transmission
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. How is beam steering accomplished in an annular transducer
    a. Concentric ring design
    b. Electronic delay
    c. Mechanically
    d. Phased delay
    e. Sequential delay
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. What type of image does a vector array produce?
    a. Circular shaped image
    b. Pie shaped image
    c. Rectangular image
    d. Trapezoidal shaped image
    e. Square image
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Diving a normal crystal element into smaller elements is termed
    a. Apodization
    b. Beam steering
    c. Channel
    d. Aliasing
    e. Sub dicing
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Linear array transducers use which of the following ?
    a. Electronic beam focusing and electronic beam steering
    b. Electronic beam steering & mechanical beam focusing
    c. Electronic beam steering & electronic beam delay
    d. Mechanical beam steering and electronic beam focusing
    e. Mechanical beam steering and mechanical beam focusing
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Phased array transducer use which of the following ?
    a. Electronic beam focusing and electronic beam steering
    b. Electronic beam steering and mechanical beam focusing
    c. Mechanical beam steering and electronic beam focusing
    d. Mechanical beam steering and mechanical focusing
    e. Sub dicing the crystal elements to electronically steer them
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Beam steering is accomplished by altering the
    a. Acoustic lens placement
    b. Electronic pattern for excitation of the crystals
    c. Electronic pattern for focusing of the crystals
    d. Mechanical pattern for excitation of the crystals
    e. Mechanical pattern for focusing of the crystals
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Focusing of the Z-axis in a phased array transducer is accomplished by ?
    a. Sub dicing the elements in the array
    b. Electronically timing the delays to the elements
    c. Electronically timing the delays of receiving echoes
    d. Mechanically adding a lens in front of all the crystals in the array
    e. Electronically timing the transmission of the pulse
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. In soft tissue, the time it takes to receive an echo from an interface 10.0 cm into the body is
    a. 0.13 usec
    b. 1.3 usec
    c. .13 usec
    d. 130 usec
    e. 130 msec
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. The number of pulses occurring in one second is called ?
    a. Duty cycle
    b. Frequency
    c. Pulse duration
    d. PRF
    e. PRP
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. The fraction of time that the u/s system is actually transmitting a pulse is called ?
    a. Duty cycle
    b. PRF
    c. PRP
    d. Pulse duration
    e. Q value
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. The duty factor is equal to the
    a. Pulse duration divided by the PRP
    b. Pulse duration divided by the PRF
    c. Pulse duration multiplied by the PRP
    d. Pulse duration multiplied by the PRF
    e. None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. PRF and imaging depth are
    a. Directly related
    b. Equal
    c. Indirectly related
    d. Inversely proportional
    e. Not related to one another
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. Increasing the output power will
    a. Decrease the amplitude of the reflections
    b. Increase the amplitude of the reflections
    c. Decrease the dynamic range
    d. Increase the dynamic range
    e. None of the above
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. How will increasing the output power affect the patient ?
    a. Decrease the exposure to the patient
    b. Decrease the time of exposure to the patient
    c. Increase the exposure to the patient
    d. Increase the time of exposure to the patient
    e. None of the above
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. What is another name for output power control ?
    a. Compensatior
    b. Receive
    c. Synchronizer
    d. Monitor
    e. Transmitter
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. What component receives and processes the echo information?
    a. Compression
    b. Master synchronizer
    c. Reliever
    d. Rectifier
    e. Transmitter
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. What adjusts for the effects of attenuation?
    a. Compressor
    b. Master synchronizer
    c. TGC
    d. Transmitter
    e. Amplifier
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. Another name for the reject control is ?
    a. Demodulator
    b. Receiver
    c. Threshold
    d. Transmitter
    e. Rectifier
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. The process by which the negative half of the signal is eliminated is called
    a. Demodulation
    b. Enveloping
    c. Rectification
    d. Smoothing
    e. Rejection
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. Which of the following receiver functions cannot be controlled by the operator?
    a. Threshold
    b. Reject
    c. Demodulation
    d. Amplification
    e. Compensation
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. Changing the radio frequency signal into a video signal is known as
    a. Demodulation
    b. Enveloping
    c. Rectification
    d. Compression
    e. Smoothing
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. The component responsible for the PRF is the
    a. Master synchronizer
    b. Receiver
    c. Reject
    d. Transmitter
    e. Compensator
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. What is the term for the range of signal intensities from the smallest to largest value ?
    a. Amplification
    b. Compression
    c. Compensation
    d. Dynamic range
    e. Threshold range
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. When imaging depth is decreased, the PRP is
    a. Increases
    b. Decreases
    c. Remains the same
    d. Decreases by one half
    e. Doubles
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. Which of the following would decrease if the period of a wave increased?
    a. Pulse duration
    b. Frequency
    c. PRP
    d. PRF
    e. SPL
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. If the amplitude was reduced by 3 dB, the amplitude of the echo would be
    a. Reduced to half of what it was
    b. Reduced to one quarter of what it was
    c. Enhanced two times what it was
    d. Increased by half of what it was
    e. Unchanged
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. What does a duty factor zero represent
    a. The u/s unit is operating in a continuous wave
    b. The u/s unit is operating in a pulsed wave mode
    c. The u/s unit is off
    d. The u/s unit is operating in Doppler mode
    e. Duty factor and the u/s unit are unrelated
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. In which of the following is the amplitude height of the echo proportional to its strength?
    a. A-mode
    b. Bistable
    c. B-mode
    d. C-mode
    e. 3D mode
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. In M-Mode, the x-axis or vertical axis represents ?
    a. Amplitude
    b. Brightness
    c. Depth
    d. Time
    e. None of the above
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. A-mode stands for
    a. Action
    b. Amplitude
    c. Average
    d. Axial
    e. None of the above
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. If the echo amplitude increases, the echo brightness
    a. Decreases
    b. Decreased by ½
    c. Doubles
    d. Increases
    e. Remains the same
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. What is determined b the range equation ?
    a. Amplitude of the echo
    b. Brightness of the eco
    c. Depth of the eco
    d. Time of the eco
    e. Speed of the eco
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. The number of frames generated per second is called ?
    a. Flicker
    b. Frame rate
    c. Frequency
    d. Scan line density
    e. Frame pulses
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. The major limitation in scanning speed is
    a. Frequency
    b. Number of focal zones
    c. Number of scan lines needed per frame
    d. Time it takes for the sound wave to propagate through tissue
    e. Transducer selection
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. The ability to resolve two elements related by time is
    a. Frame rate
    b. Resolution
    c. Spatial resolution
    d. Temporal resolution
    e. Time space continuum
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. Higher frame rate and temporal resolution are
    a. Directly related
    b. Equal
    c. Indirectly related
    d. Not related
    e. Reciprocals of eachother
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. Frame rates can improved by
    a. Decreasing the depth
    b. Increasing the number of scan lines
    c. Increasing the number of focal zones
    d. Increasing sector angle
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. The human eye can detect flicker at frame rates
    a. Equal to 15-20 frames per second
    b. Greater than 15-20 frames per second
    c. Less than 15-20 frames per second
    d. 30-60 frames per second
    e. Greater than 20 but less than 30 frames per second
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  1. Maximum depth X lines per frame X number of focal zones x frame rate is less than
    a. 7700
    b. 15,400
    c. 77,000
    d. 154,000
    e. 777,000
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  1. The image depth controls the
    a. Frequency
    b. Propagation speed
    c. PRF
    d. Resolution
    e. Wavelength
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  1. The relationship between spatial resolution and temporal resolution can be described as
    a. Directly related
    b. Indirectly related
    c. Spatial resolution is only related to contrast resolution
    d. Temporal resolution has no affect on either spatial or contrast resolution
    e. Temporal resolution is only related to contrast resolution
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. The solid state computer memory that stores the echo information as a binary digit is called an
    a. Analog scan converter
    b. Cathod ray tube
    c. Central processing unit
    d. Digital scan converter
    e. Monitor
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  1. The term for picture element is
    a. Matrix
    b. Pictel
    c. Pixel
    d. Word
    e. Bit
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. The smallest unit used in computer storage is a
    a. Bit
    b. Byte
    c. Pixel
    d. Word
    e. Matrix
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. The number 101101 is equal to
    a. 33
    b. 73
    c. 45
    d. 113
    e. 44
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. The number of pixels in the matrix and spatial resolution are
    a. Directly related
    b. Equal
    c. Indirectly related
    d. Not related
    e. Related to contrast resolution only
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. The number of shade os gray that can be displayed by a scan converter is determined by
    A. 2n where n = the number of bits
    B. 2n where n = the number of bytes
    C. 2n where n = the number of pixels
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  1. The electron beam is directed across the monitor by a process called
    a. Contrast scanning
    b. Raster scanning
    c. Resolution scanning
    d. Voltage scanning
    e. Smoothing
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. The assignment of display brightness to numbers derived from memory is
    a. Contrast processing
    b. Persistence
    c. Post-processing
    d. Pre-processing
    e. Raster scanning
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  1. The assignment of the analog sinal level to a digital level before storage in memory is called
    a. Contrast processing
    b. Persistence
    c. Pre-processing
    d. Digitization
    e. Apodization
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. Write magnification is a type of
    a. Contrast processing
    b. Persistence
    c. Post processing
    d. Preprocessing
    e. Receiver function
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
  1. To record an image, thermal processors use
    a. Chemicals
    b. B. photographic film
    c. Paper
    d. Video tape
    e. Magenetic fields
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  1. Which of the following types of recording devices can be erased and rewritten?
    a. Magneto-optical disks
    b. Photgraphic film
    c. Thermal paper
    d. Transparent film
    e. Translucent film
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
  1. A computer network for the acquisition, display, and storage of images is called
    a. ACR
    b. MO
    c. PACS
    d. VHS
    e. BIT
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q
  1. The electronic transfer of images from one location to another is called
    a. MO
    b. PACS
    teleradiology
    c. Transradology
    d. Conversion
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q
  1. The physical principles associated with the study of blood circulation is
    a. Hemodynamics
    b. Resistance
    c. Thermodynamics
    d. Viscosity
    e. Pressure gradients
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
  1. Within the circulatory system, pressure differences & flow rates are
    a. Directly related
    b. Equal
    c. Indirectly related
    d. Not related
    e. Only related to velocity
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
  1. The energy level difference between two points is termed
    a. Energy gradient
    b. Flow
    c. Resistance
    d. Viscoicty
    e. Intertia
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
  1. The quantity of blood moving through the vessel per unit of time is called
    a. Laminar flow
    b. Plug flow
    c. Velocity flow rate
    d. Volume flow rate
    e. Resistance
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q
  1. Disturbed flow occurs when the Reynolds number meets or exceeds
    a. 1000
    b. 2000
    c. 3000
    d. 5000
    e. 4000
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q
  1. Constant flow velocity across the vessel is termed as
    a. Disturbed flow
    b. Laminar flow
    c. Parabolic flow
    d. Stenosis
    e. Plug flow
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q
  1. Flow characterized by cross currents and multiple velocity components is called
    a. Laminar flow
    b. Parabolic flow
    c. Plug flow
    d. Turbulent flow
    e. Antegrade flow
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q
  1. The gravitational weight of a column of blood that extends from the heart to a level where blood pressure is determined is
    a. Body pressure
    b. Hemodynamics
    c. Hydrostatic pressure
    d. Venous hemodynamics
    e. Arterial resistance
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q
  1. Venous pressure & flow are affect by
    a. Hemodynamics
    b. Respiration
    c. Velocity of blood
    d. Viscosity
    e. Inertia
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
  1. The most inaccurate Doppler shift occurs when the angle is
    a. 0
    b. 45
    c. 75
    d. 90
    e. 60
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
  1. Rayleigh scattering occurs when the
    a. Concerntration of RBC is high
    b. Frequency used in Doppler is higher than used in imaging
    c. RBC are smaller than the wavelength of the sound beam
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q
  1. If the RBCs are moving toward the transducer, the received frequency is
    a. Equal to the transmitted frequency
    b. Higher than the transmitted frequency
    c. Lower than the transmitted frequency
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q
  1. As the angle between the transducer & flow decreases, the Doppler shift will
    a. Decrease
    b. Increase
    c. Remain the same
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q
  1. The type of Doppler system that uses two crystals is termed as
    a. Aliasing
    b. Continous wave
    c. Pulsed wave
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q
  1. The term applied when only the information from the selected gate will be processed is
    a. Nyquist limit
    b. Range resolution
    c. Spatial resolution
    d. Temporal resolution
    e. Range ambiguity
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
  1. Aliasing occurs when the Doppler shift exceeds the
    a. Imaging depth
    b. Nyquist limit
    c. PRF
    d. PRP
    e. Resistance
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q
  1. Noise in the doppler signal that is generally caused by high amplitude doppler shifted echoes is called
    a. Clutter
    b. Demodulation
    c. Range ambiguity
    d. Smoothing
    e. Laminar
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q
  1. The wall filter used in doppler is a type of
    a. Aliasing control
    b. Compressiuon control
    c. Gain control
    d. Reject control
    e. Power control
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q
  1. Signal processing of the Doppler signal is accomplished by the
    a. Autocorrelation technique
    b. FAST fourier Technique
    c. Time domain correlation
    d. Power domain correlation
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q
  1. A faster but less accurate signal process used in color Flow doppler is called
    a. Aliasing
    b. Autocorrelation
    c. Fast Fourier Transform
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q
  1. The termed used to describe the number of pulses use to intteroagte a single color line of sight is called
    a. Packet size
    b. Pulse size
    c. Sample
    d. Variance
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q
  1. The attribute of colors that permits classification into a color is termed as
    a. Ensemble
    b. Hue
    c. Intensity
    d. Saturation
    e. Variance
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q
  1. Increasing the packet size increases color sensity and accuracy and
    a. Decreases frame rate
    b. Decreases time
    c. Increases temporal resolution
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q
  1. The type of doppler that does not rely on the reflectors velocities is
    a. Color power mode
    b. Spectral doppler
    c. Color flow doppler
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  1. A feature that appears on the image but does not correspond to an anatomical structure is called
    a. Aliasing
    b. Artifact
    c. Interference
    d. Resolution
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q
  1. The artifact that interferes with the ability to detect low contrast objects is known as
    a. Acoustic speckle
    b. Comet tail
    c. Mirror image
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q
  1. The artifact that occurs from thickness of the scanned tissue volume perpendicular to the scan plane is called
    a. Elevation resolution
    b. Contrast resolution
    c. Lateral resolution
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q
  1. Mulitple equally spaced reflections on the image decreasing in intensity is called
    a. Reverberation
    b. Width focusing
    c. Shadowing
    d. Mirror image
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q
  1. A type of reverberation artifact due to a large acoustic impedance mismatch is called
    a. Reverberation
    b. Multipath
    c. Comet tail
    d. Acoustic speckle
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q
  1. The type of artifact associated with propagation speed erros is
    a. Acoustic speckle
    b. Focal banding
    c. Shadowing
    d. Refraction
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q
  1. Acoustic energy emitted in a direction different than from the main axis of the sound beam is called
    a. Range ambiguity
    b. Focal banding
    c. Side lobes
    d. Multipath
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q
  1. If the speed of sound is greater than 1540 m/s the echo will be placed
    a. Lateral to the transducer
    b. Too close to the transducer
    c. Too far from the transducer
    d. At an increasd section thickness
    e. At a decreased section thickness
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q
  1. The absence or reduced intensity of echo information distal to a reflector is called
    a. Aliasing
    b. Banding
    c. Enhancement
    d. Shadowing
    e. Multipath
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q
  1. An example of an artifact helpful in diagnoses is
    a. Banding
    b. Focusing
    c. Multipath
    d. Shadowing
    e. Propagation speed error
A

D

144
Q
  1. The extension of color beyond the region of flow to the adjacent tissue is called
    a. Aliasing
    b. Bleeding
    c. Clutter
    d. Noise
    e. Enhancement
A

B

145
Q
  1. Low level echo image artifacts caused by other electrical equipment are called
    a. Aliasing
    b. Banding
    c. Filtering
    d. Noise
    e. Rejection
A

D

146
Q
  1. The routine, periodic evaluation of the u/s system is termed as
    a. Preventative maintenance
    b. Quality assurance
    c. Quality management
A

B

147
Q
  1. The middle rod group of the AIUM phantom scanned from the top measures the
    a. Axial resolution
    b. Depth calibration accuracy
    c. Lateral resolution
    d. Sensitivity
A

A

148
Q
  1. The testing device composed of a serioes of 0.75 m diameter stainless steel rods arranged in groups suspended in fluid is the
    a. AIUM 100 mm test object
    b. Tissue phantom
    c. Doppler tissue phantom
A

A

149
Q
  1. The measure of the weakest echo signal that can be visualized on the image is called
    a. Contrast resolution
    b. Dead zone
    c. Sensitivity
    d. Speckle
A

C

150
Q
  1. The region where no imaging can take place is called the
    a. Contrast zone
    b. Dead zone
    c. Sensitivity zone
A

B

151
Q
  1. How often should sonographers perform routine preventive maintenance?
    a. Weekly or biweekly
    b. Monthly
    c. Every 3 months
    d. Every 6 months
    e. Annually
A

A

152
Q
  1. Quality assurance is usally performed
    a. Daily
    b. Monthly
    c. Weekly
    d. Yearly
    e. Biweekly
A

B

153
Q
  1. A testing device that has a gel-like substance with cystic structures suspended in it is called
    a. AIUM test object
    b. String test phantom
    c. Hydrophone
    d. Test phantom
    e. Doppler test objecvt
A

D

154
Q
  1. The acoustic variable defines as force divided by area ia called
    a. Intensity
    b. Pascals
    c. Pressure
A

C

155
Q
  1. The amount of energy flowing through a unit area ia called
    a. Intensity
    b. Pressure
    c. Force
A

A

156
Q
  1. To reduce the acoustic exposure to the patient, the sonographer should
    a. Decrease the output control
    b. Decrease receiver gain
    c. Increase receiver gain
A

A

157
Q
  1. If the power is doubled, the intensity will be
    a. Halved
    b. Doubled
    c. Quartered
    d. Tripled
A

B

158
Q
  1. IF the amplitude is doubled, the intensity will
    a. Decrease by ½
    b. Decrease by ¼
    c. Double
    d. Increase by a factor of 4
A

D

159
Q
  1. Which of the following units are used to measure intensity?
    a. Milliwats per centimeter
    b. Milliwatts per centimeter squared
    c. Watts per meter squared
A

B

160
Q
  1. The instrument that measures the intensity of the sound beam is a
    a. Hydrophone
    b. Phantom
    c. Scale
    d. Test object
A

A

161
Q

A sonogram-her switches to a higher frequency transducer, What effect will that have on aliasing?

a. increased risk of aliasing
b. decreased risk of aliasing
c. transducer frequency does not effect aliiasing

A

A

162
Q

As a result of _____ the propagation speed increases

a. increasing stiffness & increasing frequency
b. increasing stiffness & increasing elasticity
c. decreasing compressibility & decreasing density

A

c

163
Q

All of the following are true except

a. two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively
b. out of phase waves interfere destructively

A

a

164
Q

The effects on soft tissues on US are called

a. bioeffects
b. acoustic propagation properties
c. biologic effects

A

b

165
Q

If there is no Doppler shift, which of the following is true?

a. the vessel is occluded
b. 90 degree angle of incidence
c. spectral gain is to low
d. more than one above

A

d

166
Q

A new referring physician wants to know how often your positive studies are correct, which of the following calculations would best answer your question

a. negative predictive value
b. positive predictive value
c. sensitivity
d. specificity
e. accuracy

A

b

167
Q

The calculation used to identify the likelihood of cavitation

a. thermal index
b. mechanical index
c. acoustic cavitation

A

b

168
Q

A sonographic technique used to evaluate stiffness of mass or tissue

a. bulk moduls
b. elastography
c. edge enhancement
d. frequency compounding

A

b

169
Q

The power in a beam is 1 watt and the area is 5cm^2. What is the beams intensity

a. 5 w/cm^2
b. 1 cm ^2
c. 0.2 w/cm^2
d. 1 watt

A

c

170
Q

Sound travels at the same velocity in TWO different media. The density of medium A is HALF that of medium b. Which of the following statements is true.

a. the impedance of medium A is four times that of medium b
b. the Reynolds number of medium a is twice that of medium b
c. the impedance of medium A if half that of Medium B

A

c

171
Q

Some u/s systems use a great number of active receive elements as echoes return from greater depths, what is this called

a. harmonic imaging
b. dynamic aperture
c. multidimensional arrays
c. two dimensional imaging
e. phased array

A

b

172
Q 
By definition , US is sound having a frequency greater than \_\_\_\_\_ cycles per second, that is sound above the audible range 
a. 10,000
b, 20,000
c. 30,000
d. 40,000
A

b

173
Q

Which of the following is not a property of acoustic waves

a. pressure & particle velocity are in phase
b. the wave force is attenuated by converting the energy in the pressure wave
d. there is movement of the material

A

d.

174
Q

Which of the following types of tissue would have the lowest propagation velocity

a. air
b. fat
c. blood
d. , water

A

a

175
Q

When C2 > C1 (C = Speed of medium(, refraction can occur when the angle of incidence is ____ than the angle off transmission

a. less then
b. equal to
c. greater than

A

A.

176
Q

Acoustic couplings are needed b/c they reduce the impedance between the

a. damping material & active element
b. matching layer & active element
c. transducer & skin surface

A

c

177
Q

Arrange in decreasing order

a. deci, centi, milli, micro, nano
b. milli, centi, deci, micro, nano
c. centi, milli,micro,nano,deci

A

a.

178
Q

Which of the following u/s modalities has highest intensity value

a. M-mode
b. Pulsed wave
c. continuous wave

A

b

179
Q 
The color flow doppler artifact associated with the superimposition of color on moving tissue is 
a. aliasing
b. ghosting 
c, reverberation 
d. shadowing
A

B.

180
Q

What is the best angle for imaging & doppler

a. 90 degrees & 70 degrees
b. 45 degree & 60 degrees
c. 90 degree and 60 degree

A

c

181
Q

What will the axial resolution be when SPL is 10 mm
a. 10 mm
b. 5 mm
c, 2.5 mm

A

b

182
Q

Name the disadvantage if continuous doppler

a. range resolution
b. range specificity
c. range ambiguity

A

c

183
Q

You are performing a sonographic examination of the tissue harmonics operating mode. What advantage will you obtain over conventional imaging

a. improves contrast resolution & signal to noise ratio
b. decreased penetration
c. improved temporal resolution

A

a.

184
Q

You notice a loss of detail in the lateral dimension of the us image, what can you do to improve this
a. decrease number of focal zone
b. increase scan line density
c, decrease transducer frequency

A

b.

185
Q

Nyquist limit describes

a. penetration limit of US
b. transmit lines of pulsed us
c. sampling frequency needed for detecting doppler signal unambigiously

A

c

186
Q

IF you wish to improve border definition what imaging enhancement would you use

a. edge enhancement
b. speckle reduction
c. lower line density

A

a.

187
Q

The rapid technique used in most doppler systems to obtain means doppler frequency shift is

a. FFT
b. phase qudrature
c. autocorrelation

A

c

188
Q

The presence of spectral window on the Doppler wave is affected by all of the following except

a. SV gate
b. doppler gain
c. high pass filter
d. turbulent flow

A

c.

189
Q

Name the imaging technique which improves image quality, continues to display information from older images on the most current frame with reduced frame rate is

a. spatial compounding
b. persistence (temporal)
c. coded excitation
d. edge enhancement

A

b.

190
Q

What Reynolds number would indicate turbulent flow & laminar flow

a. <1500, >2000
b. <2000 & >2000
c. >2000 & <1500

A

c.

191
Q

When you change the transmit frequency which one of the following is altered

a. number of cycles per second
b. speed at which sound wave propagates through a medium
c. pulsed transmitted per sound

A

a.

192
Q

During doppler interrogation of the carotid artery you detect spectral mirroring which of the following is a common causes of this artifact

a. doppler angle of interrogation is 90 degrees
b. high pass filter set to high
c. doppler gain to set low

A

a.

193
Q

Steering the color window to the right or left produces a ___ frame rate

a. double
b. quadrupled
c. unchanged
d. halved

A

c.

194
Q

Increasing ensemble length ___ color sensitivity & accuracy and _____ frame rate

a. improves, increases
b. degrades, increases
c. degrades , decreases
d. improves, decreases

A

d.

195
Q

How many level of information does a single bit store

a. one
b. two
c. four

A

b

196
Q

Which of the following electrical patterns produces electronic focusing of the ultrasound

a. curve
b. slope
c. width
d. length

A

a

197
Q

How is slice thickness imrpoved

a. using 1 & 1/2 D array transducer
b. using 1 D array transducer
c. using 1/2 D array transducer
d. all of the above

A

a

198
Q

All of the following result from the use of backing material in transducer except

a. reduced SPL
b. high sensitivity
c. shorter pulse duration
d. wide bandwidth

A

b

199
Q

What is the wavelength of a 3 MHz sound pulse in soft tissue.

a. 1.54 mm
b. 0.51 mm
c. 0.49 mm
d. 1.54km

A

b.

200
Q

Which answer provides the best expiration for the reason the frame rate decreases

a. the color doppler pulse length is longer
b. there are more focal zones when color is active
c. the system accuracy resources are challanged
d. more pulses are fire on each line of sight

A

d.

201
Q

You have decreased the scan line density, what technique will be employed to fill in the empty data between the scan lines

a. rejection of the gray
b. fill in the doppler window
c. interpolation
d. persistence

A

c

202
Q

Which of the following transducers have the best axial resolution

a. 2.5 MHz, 4 cycles/pulse
b. 4.5 MHz, 6 cycles/ pulse
c. 4.5 Mhz, 2 cycles/pulse

A

c

203
Q

Name the transducer which uses mechanical steering & focusing technique

a. mechanical transducer
b. linear sequential
c. annular phased
d. phased array transducer

A

c.

204
Q

Which of the following controls on the US systems will reduce artifacts

a. wall filter
b. overall gain
c. persistence
d. nyquist limit

A

a

205
Q

What is the accuracy of reflector depth position on A mode, B mode, M mode

a. horizontal calibration
b. depth callibration
c. range resolution
d. axial resolution

A

b

206
Q

When the depth of view is set to 5cm what will be the PRP

a. 130 microsec
b. 65 microsec
c. 55 microsec
d. 50 microsec

A

b

207
Q

What is the thickness of the active element

a. half wave length thick
b. quarter wave length thick
c. one wavelength thick

A

a

208
Q

What is the frequency of the sound beam from a continuous wave transducer when the transmitter creates a 10Mhz electrical frequency

a. same as transmitter frequency
b. half to transmitter frequency
c. half of the active element

A

a

209
Q

Dynamic receive focusing uses

a. mechanical means to focus them
b. time delays to excite array elements
c. time delays before echo signals from array elements are continued

A

c.

210
Q

What conditions are necessary for refraction to occur at an interface between two media

a. unequal impedance and normal incidence
b. diff propagation speeds & oblique incidence

A

b

211
Q

Which of the following indicates how a test provides the correct results regardless whether the result is positive or negative

a. accuracy
b. specificity
c. sensitivity
d. positive predictive value

A

a

212
Q

Aliasing is helpful in the US because it allows us to

a. quickly detect regions where blood flow velocity is too high
b. quickly detect where pressure energy is high

A

a

213
Q

Which artifact results in improper side by side positioning of reflections

a. multipath
b. comet tail
c. refraction

A

c

214
Q

A monographer adjust an u/s scan to the depth of view from 5 to 10 cm what happens to frame rate

a. it is halved
b. it doubles
c. it increases from 5 to 10 Hz

A

a

215
Q

Which of the following doppler modes does not use Doppler frequency shift information to generate the signal?

a. spectral doppler
b. color. doppler
c. power doppler

A

c

216
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding temporal resolution except

a. increased temp resolution is associated with a high PRF
b. decreased temporal resolution is associated with a shorter pulse duration

A

b

217
Q

Under which circumstance is cavitation likely to occur

a. high frequency and low power
b. low intensity & low frequency
c. low frequency & high pressure

A

c.

218
Q

Which of the following is the cause of slice thickness artifact

a. decreased attenuation of the sound beam at reflector
b. curved reflectors in the path of the sound beam
c. beam dimension greater in size than reflector

A

c

219
Q

The following transducers have a constant output power, which of the following will give the best lateral resolution in the far zone

a. 4 Mhz, 9 mm diameter
b. 4 Mh, 6 mm diameter
c. 4 Mhz, 12 mm diameter

A

c.

220
Q 
Transducer a has a longitudinal resolution of 4mm, transducer B has a longitudinal resolution of 6mm, transducer c has a longitudinal resolution of 3mm, which transducer has the poorest longituational resolution 
a. A
b. B
C. c 
d. cannot be predicted
A

b

221
Q

All of the following will increase SPL except

a. increasing wavelength
b. decreasing frequency
c. increasing # of cycles in a pulse
d. increasing receiver gain

A

d

222
Q

Increasing the imaging depth affects all of the except

a. axial resolution
b. PRP
c. PRF
d. Duty factor

A

a

223
Q

Which fo the following receiver function amplified all the return signals regardless of depth

a. amplfication
b. compression
c. compensation
d. rejection

A

a

224
Q

Preprocessing is performed by the

a. transducer
b. receievr
c. analog to digital converter
d. digital to analog converter

A

c

225
Q

The best example for Rayleigh scatter is

a. diaphragm
b. heart wall
c. liver parenchyma
d. red blood cell

A

d

226
Q

All of the following are true statements concerning doppler regulation except

a. an increase in transmitted frequency will result in an increase in the doppler shift
b. sound speed of soft tissue is considered. constant
c. a decrease in RBC velocity will increase the detected doppler shift

A

c

227
Q

the monographer needs to make an accurate lateral dimension measurement of a structure. For the best result monographers should place the structure

a. close to transducer
b. away from transducer
c. in the focal region

A

c

228
Q

The doppler shift is in which range of sound

a. medical diagnostic u/s
b. audible sound
c. infrasound
d. ultrasound

A

b

229
Q

All of the following artifacts places errenous reflections at the same depth as true reflector except

a. refraction
b. side lobes
c. mirror image
d. grating lobe \

A

c

230
Q

An u/s system is set at 0 DB & is transmitted at full intensity, what I the output power when the system is transmitting at 50% of full intensity

a. -3DB
b. -10DB
c. 3dB
d. 10dB

A

a

231
Q

The image on the ultrasound system is too bright, which of the following tencique is best to correct this problem

a. decrease output power
b. adjust TGC
c. decrease reject
d. decrease receiver gain

A

a

232
Q

Enhancement artifact appears on an ultrasound scan. Which of the following statement is true about the structure immediately above artifact

a. there is to little absoprtion
b. attenuation propertjes to low

A

b

233
Q

With phased array transducers transmitted sound beam is steered by the

a. mechanically sweeping the pot elemtns
b. varying the timing of pulses to individual pzt elements
c. varying the frequency of the pulses to individual Pat elements

A

B

234
Q

Which of the following preserves the pixel density when enlarging the image

a. read zoom
b. write magnification
c. postprocessing magnification

A

b

235
Q

Which testing device is used to measure acoustic output power

a. tissue phantom
b. AIUM test phantom
c. doppler flow phantom
d. hydrophone

A

d.

236
Q

Law of interference is

a. Bernoulli’s principle
b. snells law
c. Huygens principle
d. pouislles law

A

c

237
Q

What type of wave is sound

  • mechanical transverse
  • mechanical longitudinal
  • transverse longitudinal
  • lateral wave
A

mechanical longitudinal

238
Q

The frequency ranges for ultrasound are:

<20 Hz
20 to 20,000 Hz
> 20 kHz
> 2000 Hz

A
  • 20 to 20,000 Hz
239
Q

The speed of sound in soft tissue is

1.54 mm/s
1540 m/s
1540 km/s
1.54 m/µs

A

1540 m/s

240
Q

Which of the following transuders fires the elements in groups?

Linear sequenced array
Phased array
Mechanical sector
Linear phased array

A

Linear sequenced

241
Q

The units for wavelength is

millmeters
Hertz
microseconds
milliliters

A

Wavelength units are millimeters

242
Q

Enhancement is caused by

Strongly reflecting structures
Propagation speed errors
Snell’s law
Weakly attenuating structures

A

Weakly attenuating structures cause enhancement

243
Q

The wavelength in a material having a propagation speed of 1.5 mm/µs employing a transudcer frequency of 5.0 MHz is:

  1. 3 mm
  2. 3 cm
  3. 6 mm
  4. 0 mm
A

0.3 mm

wavelength = c/f
1.5 mm/µs / 5 MHz = 0.3 mm

244
Q

An ultrasound transducer converts

electrical energy into light and heat
electrical energy into mechanical energy
mechanical energy into radiation
sound into ultrasound

A

An ultrasound transducer converts electrical energy into mechanical energy and vice versa

245
Q

Arrange the following media in correct order from the lowest attenuation to the highest

(a) air, fat, muscle bone
(b) muscle, fat, air, bone
(c) bone, muscle, fat, air
(d) muscle, air, fat, bone

A

Lowest attenuation to highest

(c) bone, muscle, fat, air

246
Q

Arrange the following media in terms of propagation speed from lowest to highest

(a) air, fat, muscle, bone
(b) bone, fat, air, muscle
(c) bone, muscle, fat, air
(d) muscle, air, fat, bone

A

Propagation speed from lowest to highest:

(a) air, fat, muscle, bone

247
Q

If frequency doubles, what happens to the wavelength?

increases fourfold
increases twofold
decreases by one half
frequency has no relationship to wavelength

A

If frequency doubles, wavelength decreases by one half

Frequency and wavelength are inversely related

248
Q

What happens to intensity if the amplitude of a signal is halved?

Quartered
Quadrupled
Halved
No change

A

Amplitude halved will result in intensity quartered

amplitude = intensity

249
Q

Which of the following would be used to desribe the percentage of time that sound is on?

Intensity
Amplitude
SPTA
Duty factor

A

Duty factor is the percentage of time the sound is being transmitted

250
Q

A 3 dB gain would indicate an increase in intensity by:

2 times
4 times
8 times
10 times

A

3 dB results in doubling of intensity (or power)

251
Q

Ignoring the effects of attenuation, the intensity of the ultraosund beam is usually greater at the focal zone because of

  • Decreased attenuation
  • The smaller beam diameter
  • Diffraction effects
  • A shorter duty factor
A

Ignoring the effects of attenuation, the intensity of the ultrasound beam is usually greater at the focal zone because of the smaller beam diameter

252
Q

Attenuation denotes

Progressive weakening of the sound beam as it travels
Density of tissue and the speed of sound in the tissues
The redirection of the ultrasound back to the transducer
Bending of the transmitted wave after crossing an interface

A

Attenuation denotes progressive weakening of the sound beam as it travels

253
Q

Which of the following has the lowest intensity

SPTP
SATP
SPTA
SATA

A

SATA is the lowest of the intensities

254
Q

What is the definition of the beam uniformity ratio?

The spatial intensity divided by the spatial peak intensity
The spatial peak intensity divided by the spatial average intensity
The temporal average intensity divided by the spatial average intensity
The temporal peak intensity divided by the spatial peak intensity

A

Beam uniformity ratio = Spatial peak / Spatial average

255
Q

Continuous wave Doppler has a duty factor of

<1%
100%
>100%
50%

A

CW Doppler has a duty factor of 100%

256
Q

The spatial pulse length is defined as the product of the _____ and the number of _____ in a pulse?

cycles, frequency
frequency, velocity
wavelength, cycles
frequency, wavelength

A

SPL = wavelength x cycles

257
Q

With phased array transducers, the transmitted sound beam is steered by:

Mechanically sweeping the piezoelectric elements
Mechanically rotating the piezoelectric elements
Varying the timing of pulses to the individual piezoelectric elements
Varying the frequency of pulses to the individual piezoelectric elements

A

With phased array transducers, the transmitted sound beam is steered by varying the timing of pulses to the individual piezoelectric elements

Phased array transudcers operate y shocking the elements with minute time differences in between

258
Q

If the gain of an amplifier is 18 dB, what is the new gain if the power is reduced by half?

15 dB
9 dB
36 dB
0.5 dB

A

15 dB

If the power is reduced by half is it sht esame as a change of -3 dB,
therefore 18 dB - 3 dB = 15 dB

259
Q

Which of the following is true?

SPTA is always equal to or greater than SPTP
SPTP is always equal to or greater than SPTA
SATA is always equal to or greater than SATP
SPTA is equal to or greater than SPTP

A

SPTP is always equal to or greater than SPTA

Peaks are always higher than averages. SPTP is the highest intensity, SATA is the lowest

260
Q

If the amplitude of a wave is increased threefold, the power will

Decrease threefold
Increase threefold
Increase ninefold
Increase sixfold

A

Amplitude increased threefold, power increases ninefold

Amplitude = Power2

261
Q

Ultrasound attenuates an average of ____ dB/cm of travel for each megahertz of frequency

1

  1. 7
  2. 33
  3. 25
A

Average rate of attenuation in soft tissue = 0.7 dB/cm/MHz

262
Q

If the intensity transmission coefficient is 0.74, the intensity reflection coefficient will be:

  1. 06
  2. 00
  3. 26
  4. 04
A

If the intensity transmission coefficient is 0.74, the intensity reflection coefficient will be 0.26

263
Q

Acoustic impedance is defined as the product of:

The mismatch between two interfaces
A change in velocity at oblique incidence
The speed of sound in tissue and density of the tissue
The wavelength and frequency

A

Acoustic impedance is defined as the product of the speed of sound in tissue and density of the tissue

Impedence = density x propagation speed

264
Q

Rayleigh scattering is an example of:

A reflector whose size is smaller than the wavelength
A reflector whose size is significantly larger than the wavelength
A specular reflection
A type of side lobe artifact

A

Rayleigh scattering is an example of a reflector whose size is smaller than the wavelength

Think: RBC

265
Q

If medium 2 impedance is equal to medium 1 impedance:

100% of the intensity will be reflected
100% of the intensity will be transmitted
The reflection and the transmission coefficients will be equal
The answer cannot be determined without values given

A

If medium 2 impedance is equal to medium 1 impedance, 100% of the intensity will be transmitted

266
Q

What is the total attenutaion of a 3.5 MHz pulse after passing through 2 cm of soft tissue?

7 dB
3.5 dB
17 dB
1.75 dB

A

3.5 dB is the total attenuation

Total attenuation (dB) = 1/2 f     x    path length
(0.5   x   3.5)    x    2   = 3.5 dB
267
Q

The thinner the piezoelectric element

The lower the frequency
The higher the frequency
The higher the amplitude
The lower the amplitude

A

The thinner the piezoelectric element, the higher the frequency

268
Q

The unit for impedance is:

dB
mW/cm2
Rayls
No units

A

The unit for impedance is Rayls

269
Q

A sound beam encouters an interface at a 90° angle. If the speed of sound in the first tissue is 1540 m/s and the speed of sound in the sound tissue is 1450 m/s, which of the following numbers most closely approximates the angle of beam transmission?

<90°
90°
>90°
Need the impedance to compute angle of transmission

A

> 90°

There can be no refraction when sound hits a reflector at 90° to the interface

270
Q

ALARA stands for

As low as reasonably achievable
As long as reasonably acceptable
As little as reasonably allowable
As long as reasonably achievable

A

ALARA stands for

As low as reasonably achievable
As long as reasonably acceptable
As little as reasonably allowable
As long as reasonably achievable

271
Q

A decibel (dB) describes the:

Ratio of two sound intensities
Sum of two sound intensities
Amount of scattering
Velocity of the sound wave

A

Decibel (dB) describes the ratio of two sound intensities

272
Q

The correct equation for Snell’s law is

(a) R = (Z2-Z1)2 / (Z2+Z1)2
(b) Z = pc
(c) sin θt = (C2/C1) x sin θi
(d) Fd - 2fvcosθ/c

A

Snell’s law
(c) sin θt = (C2/C1) x sin θi

Snell’s law describes refraction at an interfac

273
Q

The attenuation coefficient of sound in soft tissue can be defined by which of the following equations?

One half the frequency times the path length
Frequency/6
Frequency/2
Frequency x 2

A

Attenuation Coefficient (soft tissue) = Frequency / 2

274
Q

The intensity transmission coefficient is equal to:

1 + intensity reflection coefficient
1 - intensity reflection coefficient
The square of the angle of transmission
(Intensity transmission coefficient) / 2

A

Intensity Transmission Coefficient = 1 - Intensity Reflection Coefficient

ITC = 1 - IRC

275
Q

The range equation explains

side lobes
distance to reflector
attenuation
calibration

A

Range equation explains distance to reflector

Range equation (d=ct/2) provides the distance to the reflector

276
Q

The typical factor for attenuation coefficient for 6 MHz ultrasound in soft tissue is:

3 dB/cm
1 cm/cm/Hz
3 dB/cm2
2 dB

A

3 dB/cm

Attenuation coefficient = Frequency / 2
= 6 MHz / 2 = 3dB/cm

277
Q

What must be known in order to calculate distance to a reflector?

Attenuation, propagation speed, density
Attenuation, impedance
Travel time, propagation speed
Density, propagation speed

A

Travel time and propagation speed is needed to calculate distance to the reflector

278
Q

Specular reflections:

Occur when the interface is larger than the wavelength
Occur when the interface is smaller than the wavelength
Arise from interface smaller than 3 mm
Are not dependent on the angle of incidence

A

Specular reflections occur when the interface/border is larger than the incident wavelength

279
Q

What is the reflected intensity from a boundary between two materials if the incident intensity is 1 mW/cm2 and the impedances are 25 and 75?

  1. 25 mW/cm2
  2. 33 mW/cm2
  3. 50 mW/cm2
  4. 0 mW/cm2
A

0.25 mW/cm2

Reflection Equation used:

Ir = Ii x [(Z1 - Z1) / (Z2 + Z1)]2

280
Q

The layer of material within the transducer which has an intermediate impedance between the transducer element and human tissue is known as the

Filler medium
Damping medium
Acoustic medium
Matching layer

A

Matching layer

The matching layer has an impedance between that of the piezoelectric element and the skin in order to improve transmission of sound into the patient.

281
Q

Which of the following relates bandwidth to operating frequency?

Near zone
Piezoelectric crystal
Quality factor
Far zone

A

Quality factor

Quality factor = operating frequency/bandwidth

282
Q

The piezoelectric effect can best be described as

Density of tissue and the speed of sound in the tissues
Mechanical deformation that results from a high voltage applied to the face of the crystal that in turn generates a pressure wave
Having a damaging effect on crystal due to high voltage
The decrease in intensity that results from the application of damping material

A

The piezoelectric effect can best be described as mechanical deformation that results from a high voltage applied to the face of the crystal that in turn generates a pressure wave

Piezoelectric effect occurs when electricity is applied and a pressure wave is generated

283
Q

Which of the following are most commonly used in ultrasound transdcuers?

Lead zirconate titanate
Barium sulfate
Expoxy loaded with tungsten
Quartz

A

Lead zirconate titanate (PZT) is most commonly used in modern day transducers

284
Q

Diffraction refers to:

Spreading out of the ultrasound beam
Conversion of sound to heat
Redirection of a portion of the sound from a boundary beam
Bending of the sound beam crossing a boundary

A

Diffraction refers to spreading out of the ultrasound beam

Diffraction occurs as a result of Huygen’s principle and is a spreading of the wavefront.

285
Q

The method of sterilizing transducers is:

Heat sterilization
Steam
Cold sterilization
Autoclave

A

Ultrasound transducers must be cold sterilized

286
Q

A transducer with which frequency would have the thickest element(s)?

2 MHz
3.5 MHz
5 MHz
7.5 MHz

A

2 MHz would have the thickest element

The thicker the element the lower the frequency

287
Q

Which of the following is best defined as the ability to discriminate between two closely spaced reflectors?

Definition
Range accuracy
Spatial resolution
Amplification

A

Spatial Resolution

is the ability to discern two closely spaced reflectors as individual reflectors

288
Q

Which of the following is an effect of focusing?

Improved lateral resolution
Improve axial resolution
Increased beam divergence
Higher frequency

A

Focusing improves lateral resolution and is unrelated to axial resolution

289
Q

Bandwidth is

A source of artifacts
A potential shade of gray
The range of frequencies produced by the transducer
Undesirable interference or noise

A

Bandwidth is the range of frequencies produced by the transducer

290
Q

Within the same medium using the same transducer, decreasing the ______ decreases the beam diameter in the ______

(a) Frequency, far zone
(b) Wavelength, far zone
(c) Frequency, near zone
(d) Intensity, far zone

A

Within the same medium using the same transducer, decreasing the wavelength decreases the beam diameter in the far zone

Decreasing the wavelength will increase the frequency and thereby decrease divergence in the far field

291
Q

The acoustic impedance of the transducer’s matching layer:

Is chosen to improve transmission into the body
Is chosen to have increased internal reflections
Determines the frequency
None of the above

A

Matching layer(s) impendance is chosen to improve transmission of sound into the body

292
Q

If the amount of damping decreases, the bandwidth:

Stays the same
Increases
Decreases
Damping the bandwidth are unrelated

A

If amount of damping decreases, the bandwidth decreases

Bandwidth is the range of frequencies present within the beam.
Damping is the process of reducing the number of cycles of each pulse in order to improve axial resolution

293
Q

The region where the sound beam is the smallest is referred to as the:

Fresnel spot
Focus
Near field
Far field

A

Focus

or focal zone is the smallest region of the sound beam

294
Q

The near zone length is determined by

The number of focal zones
Frame rate
Pulse repetition frequency
Transducer frequency

A

Near zone length is determined by both transducer frequency and element diameter

295
Q

The type of transducer that utilizes concentric rings is called

Sequential array
Phased array
Annular array
Spatial array

A

Annular array

has elements arranged into concentric rings

296
Q

A wave’s initial intensity is 2 mW/cm2. There is an increase of 10 dB. What is the final intensity?

4 mW/cm2
8 mW/cm2
12 mW/cm2
20 mW/cm2

A

20 mW/cm2

An increase of 10 dB is equal to a change of 10 times the initial intensity

297
Q

Which of the following is described best as a transducer that has multiple elements in a curved shape?

Annular array
Mechanical sector
Curvilinear
Linear array

A

Curvilinear

(aka curved, convex) transducer has multple elements on a curvature

298
Q

What is the name of the control that compensates for attenuation related to path length?

Near gain
Far gain
TGC
Reject

A

TGC or compensation or time gain compensation

is what compensates for attenuation related to path length

299
Q

The echoes are stored before final display by the

Receiver
Scan converter
Demodulator
Transducer

A

The scan converter stores the echo information in the memory before it is sent to the display

300
Q

What portion of the ultrasound system drives the transducer?

Pulser
Receiver
Scan converter
TGC controls

A

The pulser is responsible for producing the voltages that drive the transducer

301
Q

What component of the ultrasound system contains the digital-to-analog converter?

Scan converter
Pulser
Receiver
Display

A

e scan converter contains the analog-to-digital converter, memory, and digitial-to-analog converter

302
Q

How many different shades of gray can the human eye discern at one time?

16
32
64
100

A

100 different shades of gray

is discernable with the human eye

303
Q

Most current ultrasound systems have _____ shades of gray available.

4
32
64
256

A

Most current ultrasound systems have

256 shades of gray

304
Q

How many shades of gray can be displayed with 4 bits of memory?

2
4
8
16

A

16 shades of gray
can be displayed with 4 bits of memory

Shades of gray = 2n

(n = number of bits per pixel in memory)

305
Q

The spatial resolution capabilities of the system are mainly functions of the:

Pulser
Transducer
Receiver
Display

A

The transducer determines the spatial resolution of the system

306
Q

The echo intensity on a grayscale of 32 shades is represented by the binary number:

10101
1010
100000
110000

A

The number 32 in binary is 100000

307
Q

Preprocessing of the information that is fed to the scan converter:

Enlarges each pixel to provide a magnified image
Determines the CRT brightness assigned to store grayscale levels
Determines the assignment of echoes to predetermined gray levels
Determines the grayscale emphasis of stored gray levels

A

Preprocessing the information that is fed to the scan converter determines the assignment of echoes to predetermined gray levels

308
Q

Which of the following do grasycale systems typically use as a means of signal dynamic range reduction?

Rejection
Compression
Relaxation
Elimination

A

Compression
is typically used to reduce dynamic range

Compression is the opposite of dynamic range. Increasing the compression reduces the dynamic range

309
Q

Compression
is typically used to reduce dynamic range

Compression is the opposite of dynamic range. Increasing the compression reduces the dynamic range

A

Area is expressed by

cm2

310
Q

If the frequency of a transducer is increased, which of the following will decrease?

Wavelength
Propagation Speed
Pulse Repetition Frequency
Pulse Repetition Period

A

Wavelength

Frequency and wavelength are inversely related.

311
Q

With tissue harmonic imaging,

(a) The propagating pressure wave causes the sound to appear as a sinusoidal waveform
(b) The proagating pressure wave causes the sound to appear as a synovial waveform
(c) There are increased artifacts in the near field
(d) There are decreased artifacts in the near field

A

With tissue harmonic imaging (THI), there are decreased near-field artifacts

312
Q

Which of the following is in the range of infrasound?

1.5 kHz
15 Hz
25 Hz
1 MHz

A

15 Hz is within the range of infrasound

Infrasound: <20 Hz
Audible sound: 20 Hz - 20,000 Hz
Ultrasound >20,000 Hz

313
Q

Which of the following is in the range of audible sound?

15 Hz
18 kHz
25,000 Hz
2 Hz

A

18 kHz is in the range of audible sound

Infrasound: <20 Hz
Audible sound: 20 Hz - 20,000 Hz
Ultrasound >20,000 Hz

314
Q

Which of the following can be changed by the operator?

Frequency
Wavelength
Propagation speed
Pulse repetition frequency

A

Pulse repetition frequency can be changed by the operator

PRF is changed by adjusting depth

315
Q

Which of the following is the time it takes for one cycle to occur?

Period
Frequency
Wavelength
Pulse repetition period

A

Period

Think: Time!

316
Q

The length of the pulse is the

Period
Wavelength
Pulse repetition frequency
Spatial pulse length

A

Wavelength

Think: length

317
Q

Assuming oblique angle of incidence, if the propagation speed of medium 1 is greater than the propagation speed of medium 2, what will the angle of transmission be?

Greater than the angle of incidence
Less than the angle of incidence
Equal to the angle of incidence
Propagation speed does not influence the angle of transmissio

A

Less than the angle of incidence

If propagation speed of medium 1 > propagation speed medium 2, then the angle of transmission will be less than the angle of incidence

318
Q

A 5 MHz wave travels through 5 cm of soft tissue. If a 3.5 MHz transducer is selected instead, what happens to the propagation speed of the medium?

Increases
Decreases
No change
Not enough information given

A

No change

Propagation speed is only determined by the medium (specifically the stiffness and density)

319
Q

The slowest propagation speed is found in which medium?

Bone
Air
Muscle
Liver

A

The slowest propagation speed of sound is through
air

Air < Liver < Muscle < Bone

320
Q

Which of the following represents the strength of a beam?

Frequency
Intensity
Q-Factor
Duty Factor

A

Intensity

is a parameter that represents the strength of the beam

321
Q

Which of the following is the unit of pressure amplitude?

W/cm2
mm
mW
Pascal

A

Pascal

is the unit for pressure amplitude

322
Q

Which of the following is the unit of intensity?

W/cm2
mW
Pascal
W/cm

A

W/cm2
is the unit of intensity

Think: intensity is the concentration of energy (W) in an area (cm2)

323
Q

What else changes with a change in amplitude?

Resonating frequency
Output power
Wavelength
Spatial pulse lengt

A

A change in amplitude will change the

output power

324
Q

Which of the following will increase the acoustic exposure to the patient?

Increased receiver amplification
Increased time gain compensation
Decreased pulse repetition frequency
Increased output gai

A

Increased output gain
will increase the acoustic exposure to the patient

Remember ALARA

325
Q

Which operator control adjusts the intensity of the transmitted pulse?

Receiver gain
Depth of scanning
Power (dB)
Time gain compensation (TGC)

A

Power (dB)

Increasing the power increases the intensity of the transmitted pulse

326
Q

What happens to the power if the intensity is doubled?

No change
It doubles
It quadruples
It is halved

A

If intensity is doubled, power doubles.

Intensity = Power

Intensity = Amplitude2

327
Q

The number of pulses that occur in 1 second is the:

Pulse repetition frequency
Pulse repetition period
Pulse duration
Duty factor

A

Pulse repetition frequency (PRF)

is the number of pulses per second

328
Q

What is along the x-axis on a spectral Doppler waveform?

Depth
Amplitude
Time
Velocity

A

Time

is on the x-axis of the spectral waveform

329
Q

What is the unit of spatial pulse length?

µs
m
m/s
m/s2

A

Spatial pulse length (SPL) unit is m

330
Q

What testing device is used to measure acoustic output (intensity) level?

Tissue phantom
AIUM test phantom
Doppler flow phantom
Hydrophone

A

Hydrophone

is used to test output intensity

331
Q

What is the principle that states sound waves are the result of the interference of many wavelets produced at the face of transducer?

Doppler’s principle
Bernoulli’s principle
Huygen’s principle
Poiseuille’s principle

A

Huygen’s principle

sound waves are the result of the interference of many wavelets produced as the face of the transducer

332
Q

In what mode is the amplitude of the return echo represented by spikes along the y-axis of the image?

M-mode
C-mode
B-mode
A-mode

A

A-mode

displays the amplitude of reflectors along the y-axis

333
Q

In B-mode imaging, amplitude is located on the
___-axis of the image

x
y
z
c

A

z-axis

In B-mode imaging, amplitude is the brightness of the dot, which is considered the z-axis of the image

334
Q

Which of the following determines the radial resolution of a system?

PRF
Impedance
SPL
Duty factor

A

Radial/axial resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length (SPL).
The shorter the pulse used, the better the axial resolution

335
Q

The axial resolution can be improved by decreasing the ________ or increasing the _________.

(a) impedance pulse duration
(b) number of cycles in a pulse, wavelength
(c) propagation speed spatial pulse length
(d) number of cycles in a pulse, frequency

A

(d) number of cycles in a pulse, frequency

The axial resolution can be improved by decreasing the number of cycles in a pulse or increasing the frequency

336
Q

two reflectors are 1.3 mm apart in a plane that is parallel to the beam. The SPL of the transducer is 2.6 mm. These two reflectors:

Will show up as one dot in the screen
WIll show up as two dots on the screen
WIll not show up on the image at all
Will have poor lateral resolution

A

These two reflectors will show up as two dots on the screen

337
Q

In what zone does beam divergence occur?

At the face of the transducer
Focal zone
Fraunhofer zone
Fresnel zone

A

Divergence occurs in the far/Fraunhofer zone

338
Q

The large the aperture,

The shorter the near zone
The longer the near zone
The more divergence there is in far field
The shorter the Fresnel zone

A

The larger the aperature/element diameter, the longer the near zone

339
Q

The ability to resolve two reflectors that lie parallel to the beam is the ______ resolution of a sytem

axial
lateral
elevational
temporal

A

Axial

Resolution of two echoes parallel to the beam is the axial resolution

340
Q

The more focal zones used,

The better the temporal resolution
The worse the temporal resolution
The better the axial resolution
The better the SPL

A

The more focal zones used, the worse the temporal resolution

341
Q

In the most common type of transducers, the slice-thickness plane is focused:

Using a lens
Using a matrix array
Electronically
Using a 2D technology

A

The slice-thickness plane is focused with a lens in most modern transducers

342
Q

If sound travels through a large quantity of water and then encounters a reflector, the reflector will appear:

Too far away
Too close
In the correct location
Not enough information to tell

A

Too far away

343
Q

What is the maximum temperature increase below which there should be no thermally induced biologic effects?

95 °C
10 °C
4 °C
2 °C

A

Maximum temperature increase below 2 °C

is safe / should have no thermally induced biologic effects

344
Q

Two sound beams with different frequencies are traveling through the same medium. Which beam will travel faster?

The higher frequency sound
The lower freqeuency sound
Both will travel at the same speed
Cannot be determined

A

Both will travel at the same speed

Think: frequency and propagation speed are unrelated

345
Q

A video display that is limited to only black and white, with no other shades of gray, is called:

Binary
Monochrome
Bistable
Unichrome

A

Bistable image:

image that is only black and white

346
Q

What is the name for the smallest amount of digital storage?

The bit
The pixel
The byte
The megabyte

A

The bit/binary digit is the smallest unit of digital memory

347
Q

In the Fresnel zone,

The beam diameter is a constant
The beam diameter diverges
The beam area increases with distance from the transducer
The beam area decreases with distance from the transducer

A

In the Fresnel zone, the beam area decreases with distance from the transducer

348
Q

Information that travels to the scan converter from the receiver is initially in what format?

Analog
Digital
Both
Neither

A

Analog

Receiver information is in analog form

349
Q

Which of the following is true about color Doppler?

Each pixel can be both color and grayscale at the same time
Each pixel can be either grayscale or color
Pixels cannot be colorized
The gain determines the color priority of the pixel

A

Each pixel can be either grayscale or color,

they cannot be both at the same time

350
Q

Which of the following preserves the pixel density when enlarging the image?

Read zoom
Write magnification
Max zoom
Postprocessing magnification

A

Write magnification
enlarges the image before the image is stored in digital memory, thus preserving the pixel density

Write is while scanning/live
Read is postprocessing so quality is what it is

351
Q

What is the relationship between amplitude and frequency?

Directly related
Inversely related
No relation
Sometimes they are related, sometimes not

A

Amplitude and frequency have no relation

352
Q

What is the relationship between spatial pulse length and pulse duration?

Directly related
Inversely related
No relation
Sometimes they are related, sometimes not

A

Spatial pulse length (SPL) and pulse duration are

directly related

353
Q

Which of the following is true about axial resolution?

It decreases with depth
It increases with depth
It does not vary with depth
It is best at the focal zone

A

Axial resolution does not vary with depth

354
Q

If the ______ is increased, the flow increases.

Pressure differential
Resistance
Length of vessel
Viscosity of blood

A

If the pressure differential is increased, the flow increases

355
Q

Which law describes the relationship between flow and the presssure differential, viscosity, and length?

Bernoulli’s law
Poiseuille’s law
Snell’s law
Doppler’s law

A

Poiseuille’s law

is the relationship between flow, pressure differential, viscosity and length

356
Q

The most common type of flow found in the body is:

Plug
Turbulent
Laminar
Chaotic

A

Laminar flow

is the most common type of flow found in the body

SPI REVIEW QUESTIONS (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions