Parathyroid & Bone Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 actions of PTH?

A
  1. Stimulate bone resorption (indirectly through osteoblasts)
  2. Stimulate renal reabsorption of Ca2+, Mg2+
  3. Inhibit renal reabsorption of PO4- and HCO3-
  4. Stimulate calcitriol (active vit D) synthesis therefore indirect intestinal Ca2+ absorption
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2
Q

What are the 2 types of skeleton and where do they predominate?

A

Cortical- 80% of skeleton, shafts of long bones

Trabecular- vertebral bodies, ribs, pelvis and ends of long bones

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3
Q

What mineral is necessary for the release of PTH and its action on target tissues?

A

Mg2+

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4
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of hypercalcemia? What will PTH level look like for both?

A
  1. Hyperparathyroidism (PTH high or normal)

2. Malignancy (PTH low)

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5
Q

What will the dexascan show for a person with Primary Hyperparathyroidism?

A

preferentially affects cortical bone –> reduced wrist density; maintained lumbar spine

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6
Q

What are 2 IV-given bisphosphonates? Mechanism and use? Which one is more potent?

A

Pamidronate & Zoledronic acid

  • Reduce osteoclastic bone resorption
  • Used for: Hypercalcemia of malignancy (normalized Ca2+ in 70-100%); Paget’s disease of bone; prevention of fractures in osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Zoledronic acid is more potent and has a shorter infusion time
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7
Q

What are some side effects of Pamidronate and Zoledronic acid? What is important regarding timing of dosing?

A

SE: Serum creatinine elevation; Fever, flu-like symptoms
-both take several days to see effect for lowering calcium (need to wait 7 days before administering another dose if complete response not achieved)

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8
Q

Which agent may be used as an adjunct to hypercalcemia therapy in the acute setting? How and why?

A
  • Increases urinary calcium excretion, inhibits bone reabsorption (can lower serum Ca2+ by 1-2mg/dl within 2-4 hrs)
  • only used acutely due to tachyphylaxis in 2-3 days
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9
Q

What class of drug may be used for hypercalcemia from vitamin D intoxication, granulomatous diseases or hematologic malignancies. Mechanism?

A

Corticosteroids

-Decreases production of 1,25 vitamin D; may inhibit growth of neoplastic lymphoid tissue

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10
Q

What are 2 common causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Renal disease (at high concentrations phosphate can directly stimulate PTH secretion)
  • Vitamin D deficiency (low serum 25(OH) stimulates PTH secretion)
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11
Q

What may be used to treat Secondary Hyperparathyroidism from renal disease? From vitamin D deficiency?

A
  • Renal Disease: Phosphate binders (Calcium carbonate, Calcium acetate, Sevelamer), low phosphate diet, vitamin D replacement, dialysis
  • Deficiency: replace with 25(OH) vitamin D in the form of ergocalciferol or cholecalciferol
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12
Q

What is the first thing that should be checked when a low Ca2+ is detected?

A
Albumin levels (40% serum Ca2+ binds to Albumin)
[should also check PTH and Mg2+]
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13
Q

What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia where phosphorus, PTH and creatinine levels are high?

A

Chronic Renal Failure

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14
Q

What will PTH, Ca2+ and PO4- levels look like in hypoparathyroidism? Treatment?

A
low PTH (except pseudohypoparathyroidism), low Ca2+, high PO4-
--> Treatment: Ca2+ and vitamin D supplementation in the low range of normal to avoid hypercalciuria
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15
Q

What are 3 oral bisphosphonates used in the treatment of osteoporosis? Side effects? Special instructions?

A
Alendronate (Fosamax)
Risedronate (Actonel)
Ibandronate (Boniva)
-SE: Esophageal irritation
-need to be taken fasting, in the morning, w/ water and patient must remain upright for at least 30 min
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16
Q

What is Raloxifene? Use? SE?

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

  • Selectively activates certain estrogen receptors, but blocks others; decreases bone resorption
  • used for osteoporosis
  • SE: Increase risk of hot flashes, DVT
17
Q

What is an agent used in the treatment of osteoporosis that is no longer recommended due to increased risk of cancer?

A

Calcitonin
-No longer recommended for use in nasal spray form because of increased cancer risk. Can still use SQ or IM. Tachyphylaxis in 2-3 days; often used to bridge treatment for other medication

18
Q

What is the only anabolic agent approved for the treatment of osteoporosis? In what subset of patients is it used? Contraindications?

A

Teriparatide (PTH analog given SQ daily)

  • reserved for pts at high risk of fracture or failure of other therapies
  • Contraindicated in pts with increased risk of osteosarcoma (Pagets disease of bone, radiation)
19
Q

What agent is a RANK ligand inhibitor? What is its only contraindication?

A

Denosumab
(given SQ every 6 mos)
-Contraindication in hypocalcemia

20
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone? Treatment?

A
  • disorganized bone formation at one or more sites (typically pelvis, femur, skull, spine, tibia)
  • affects males/females equally
  • many asymptomatic, found on xray or high ALP
  • Treatment: bisphosphonates
21
Q

What is Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A
  • inheritable disorder involving type 1 collagen (abundant in bone)
  • usually presents with osteopenia causing recurrent fractures and skeletal deformity