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Parasitology PRC 2007 Flashcards

1
Q

Hookworms can cause iron deficiency anemia which is characterized as

A

Hypochromic microcytic

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2
Q 
All cestodes (tapeworms) have the following structures except: 
A. proglottids
B. scolex
C. neck
D. spicules
A

Spicules

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3
Q

This tapeworm may complete its life cycle in man without the need of an intermediate host

A

Hymenolepis nana

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4
Q

This tapeworm may cause cysticercosis when its eggs are ingested by man:

A

Taenia solium

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5
Q

This tapeworm may cause a hydatid cyst in man

A

Echinococcus granulosus

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6
Q

A 10 year old female from Samar presents with hepatosplenomegaly. You would want to run diagnostic tests to rule out

A

Schistosomiasis

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7
Q

Some areas endemic for schistosomiasis

A

Leyte Mindoro Samar Davao Sorsogon Bukidnon

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8
Q

The COPT is a diagnostic test which demonstrates the presence of antibodies against

A

Schistosoma Japonicum

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9
Q

A 10 year old girl from Samar presented with an enlarged abdomen. Splenomegaly was apparent and a Kato Thick Smear showed eggs with lateral knobs. This child is probably infected with

A

Schistosoma Japonicum

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10
Q

The drug of choice for schistosomiasis and most trematode (fluke) infections is

A

Praziquantel

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11
Q

The drug of choice for taeniasis and most cestode (tapeworm) infections is

A

Praziquantel

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12
Q

The drug of choice for invasive amebiasis, giardiasis and trichomoniasis is

A

Metronidazole

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13
Q

The recommended diagnostic test for Enterobius vermicularis (seatworm/pinworm) is

A

Peri-anal or cellulose tape swab

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14
Q

Which lab exam is the best step in identifying parasites responsible for chronic diarrhea

A

examination of concentrated stools using formol-ether concentration technique

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15
Q

Giardiasis can be diagnosed with what methods

A

Formol ether concentration test; string test where a ball of weighted string is ingested and pulled out to examine trophozoites; immunofluorescence

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16
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is endemic in

A

South America

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17
Q

The tse-tse flies Glossina sp. are the vector for

A

Trypanosoma brucei

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18
Q

Romana’s sign - a swelling of the periorbital area - may be seen in

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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19
Q

In cases of chronic diarrhea in communities where raw or inadequately cooked fish is traditionally eaten, which parasite would most likely be implicated?

A

Capillaria philippinensis

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20
Q

This parasite is fish-borne and causes chronic diarrhea

A

Heterophyes heterophyes

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21
Q

This parasite is snail-borne and causes diarrhea

A

Echinostoma ilocanum

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22
Q

In cases of chronic diarrhea with an underlying HIV infection; what parasite is most likely to be involved?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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23
Q

Which parasitic infections are repeated (periodic) chemotherapy of population groups a valid preventive and control measure?

A

Ascaris; Trichuris; Hookworms and Schistosoma

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24
Q

Why would Schistosoma Japonicum persist despite identifying and treating all infected individuals in a community?

A

Farm and domestic animals are reservoir hosts of Schistosoma japonicum

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25
Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar are best differentiated by
stool ELISA
26
Bloody diarrhea can be due to this parasitic infection
Entamoeba histolytica
27
The following can be acquired by drinking fecally-contaminated water except? Entamoeba histolytica; Giardia lamlia; Capillaria philippinensis; Cryptosporidium parvum
Capillaria philippinensis
28
Intestinal obstruction is a complication of
Ascaris
29
Mode of infection of hookworm
Skin penetration
30
Erratic migration into the bile duct occurs in
Ascaris
31
The stage of Enterobius vermicularis that is infective to man is
embryonated egg
32
The stage of development of Plasmodium which are responsible for malaria transmission
gametocytes
33
Which province is not endemic for malaria: Palawan; Mindoro; Sulu; Cebu
Cebu
34
The malaria preventive measure - chemoprophylaxis is not indicated for which high risk group?
pregnant women
35
As a malaria control measure, the use of Permethrin-treated mosquito nets is effective except in
in killing the larval stages of Anopheles
36
Drug of choice for severe and complicated malaria
Quinine
37
The presence of schizonts in a P. falciparum smear indicates
bad prognosis
38
Malabsorption and steattorhea (fatty acids) may be a clinical manifestation of this infection
Giardia lamblia
39
Strawberry cervix may be a clinical feature of this infection
Trichomonas vaginalis
40
Tse-tse fly is the vector for
Trypanosoma brucei
41
Mode of infection of Schistosoma
Skin penetration
42
The natural mode of transmission of Plasmodium is
mosquito bite
43
Predominant species of Plasmodium in the Philippines
Plasmodium falciparum
44
Species which causes cerebral malaria
P. falciparum
45
Most common site in extra-intestinal amoebiasis is
Right lobe of liver
46
The main pathology in schistosomiasis is
granuloma formation around eggs
47
Habitat of adult Schistosoma japonicum
mesenteric veins
48
Most common cause of death in chronic schistosomiasis
bleeding esophageal varices
49
Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with
Opistorchis spp.
50
The best time to collect blood to diagnose bancroftian filariasis
between 10 pm and 2 am
51
Pathologies caused by adult ascaris
pneumonitis
52
Clinical manifestations of angiostrongylosis may be
impairment of memory; disorientation; incoherence
53
Preventive measure specific for strongyloidiasis and hookworm infection
use of protective shoes and gloves
54
Respiratory symptoms can be observed in the following conditions except: Ascariasis Necatoriasis Strongyloidiasis Trichuriasis
Trichuriasis
55
The trematode which is transmitted by skin penetration of infective cercaria
Schistosoma japonicum
56
Granuloma formation and subsequent fibrosis around schistosome eggs result In
portal hypertension; hepatosplenomegaly; protosystemic collateral circulation
57
Relapse which is caused by reactivation of hypnozoites is present in what Plasmodial species
P. vivax
58
Malignant tertian fever is present in what Plasmodial species
P. falciparum
59
Quartan malaria is characterized by a 72-hour (3-day) cycle of fever; chills and sweating. This is caused by:
Plasmodium malariae
60
The flask-shaped ulcer is the characteristic lesion of what protozoa?
Entamoeba histolytica
61
The species of ameoba which causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is
Naegleria
62
In communities of high socio-economic status; food borne amebiasis is transmitted through
food handlers who are asymptomatic cyst passers
63
"Barbers-pole" is one of the diagnostic features of
Trichinella spiralis
64
Man acquires infection with Trichinella spiralis by
ingestion of half-cooked meat containing encysted larvae
65
Diagnosis of Trichinosis in man can be done by
biopsy of superficial skeletal muscle; Bentonite flocculation test (BFT); Fluorescent antibody test
66
Chiclero's ulcer usually found in the ear lobe may be seen in
Trypanosoma cruzi
67
Winterbottom's sign - a swelling of posterior cervical nodes - may be seen in
Trypanosoma brucei
68
Espundia - a form of mucocutaneous ulcer - may be seen in
Leishmania braziliense
69
Kala azar is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin and splenomegaly wth amastigotes found in the involved organs. The protozoan that causes this is
Leishmania donovani
70
Hydrocoele is most likely caused by
Wuchereria bancrofti
71
Nocturial periodicity is demonstrated by
Wuchereria bancrofti
72
Confluent body nuclei is characteristic of
Brugia malayi
73
The large intestine is the natural habitat of this adult worm
Trichuris trichiura
74
In cutaneous larva migrans, what kind of host is man?
Man is an accidental host
75
Rectal prolapse can occur with
Trichuris trichiura
76
Perianal itching is a manifestation of infection with
Enterobius vermicularis
77
Natural habitat of adult Paragonimus westermani
lungs
78
Larvae pass through the lungs for all of these worms except: Ascaris lumbricoides Trichuris trichiura Ancylostoma duodenale Necator americanus
Trichuris trichiura
79
These parasites can all cause significant anemia except: Ascaris lumbricoides; Trichuris trichiura; Ancylostoma duodenale; Plasmodium falciparum
Ascaris lumbricoides
80
``` These parasites can involve the heart except: Heterophyes Trypanosoma cruzi Trypanosoma brucei Haplorchis sp. ```
Trypanosoma brucei
81
These parasites have obligate intracellular stages except: Entamoeba histolytica, Cryptosporidium parvum, Plasmodium falciparum, Leishmania sp.
Entamoeba histolytica
82
The species of ameba which can cause keratitis is
Acanthameba
83
In the circumoval precipitin test (COPT) the specimen to be collected from the patient is
whole blood
84
The stage of the filaria parasite which is responsible for chronic deforming disease is
Adult
85
Man is an accidental host of the ff except: Raillietina garissoni, Dipylidum caninum, Hymenolepis nana, Taenia saginata
Taenia saginata
86
A 4-year old boy had skin lesions which showed burrowing tracks in the skin and intense itching in the affected area. Application of lindane resulted in improvement. The lesions were most probably due to
scabies
87
The infective stage of Ascaris and Trichuris is
embryonated egg
88
An 18 year old female complained of vaginal discharge. A smear of the discharge showed a pear-shaped flaggelated organism. This pathogen is
Trichomonas vaginalis
89
The reduviid or kissing bugs are vectors for
American trypanosomiasis

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