Parasitology final Flashcards
1
Q
Which diagnostic methods are used to detect the presence of trypanosomes in
dried blood smears?
A
Giemsa staining
2
Q
What is found in giardiasis?
A
(NOT Trypomastigotes Promastigotes Oocytes) Others
3
Q
What is the main difference for detection of intestinal Trichomonas or Giardia
infection?
A
Giardia turn to cyst, Trichomonas not
4
Q
What is an adequate method to detect Giardia cysts in the fresh feces?
A
Flotation
5
Q
Which forms of Thrichomonas can be found in the outer environment?
A
Not any forms
6
Q
Which is the non-cyclic Trypanosoma species among the next ones?
A
T. evansi
7
Q
Which morphological form of the Leishmania can be found in the vertebrate?
A
Amastigote
8
Q
What are the morphs of leishmanias that appear in macrophages?
A
Amastigotes
9
Q
What species are susceptible for the disease of “mal de caderas”?
A
Horse and donkey
10
Q
What is the Trypanosoma that infects host without vectors?
A
T. equiperdum
11
Q
How many flagellums does a Giardia trophozite have?
A
8
12
Q
Which method of staining can be applied to detect Histomonas in tissues?
A
PAS
13
Q
Which has the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?
A
T. brucei brucei
14
Q
What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?
A
Heart failure
15
Q
Which species does the causative agent of dourine belong to?
A
T. equiperdum
16
Q
Name of parasite found in closely related species.
A
Stenoxenous
17
Q
Which has cutaneous and visceral forms?
A
Leishmaniosis
18
Q
What is the animal obligatory for the completion of life cycle?
A
Definitive host
19
Q
Parasite of cycle involves one species?
A
Monoxenous
20
Q
Which does not cause nagana?
A
T. equiperdum
21
Q
Which cysts can be found in the faeces of the animal?
A
Giardiasis
22
Q
Which is monomorphic?
A
T. vivax
23
Q
How do the clinical signs of Dourine follow each other?
A
Genital, skin, nerves
24
Q
Which host is not needed to complete life cycle?
A
Paratenic host
25
Test used in dourine?
Complement fixation test
26
Which animal species have the general form of histomonosis?
Guinea fowl
27
What is the name of the Trichomoniasis species found in cattle?
Trichomonas fetus
28
Parasite can only be established in one host:
Stenoxenous
29
Can be detected in giardiasis?
Trophozoites
30
Which is not zoonotic?
Histomonosis
31
Flagellate form can be found in the caecal lumen?
Histomonosis
32
Who is pleomorphic?
T. brucei
33
In which faecal sample can you find cysts?
Giardiosis
34
What can you find in the blood smear of dourine?
Trypomastigotes
35
Which of these parasites can infect more than one host?
Euryxenous
36
Which species is found in old/new world America?
T. vivax
37
What is the vector of leishmaniosis?
Sandfly
38
What is the vector of nagana?
Tse-tse fly
39
What is the number of nuclei in infected cysts, of entamoebosis?
4
40
What can be detected in leishmaniasis?
Amastigotes
41
Which form of Histomonas is found in the caecum?
Flagellate
42
Which Trypanosoma needs a mechanical vector?
T. evansi
43
What species is primarily affected by Histomonas meleagridis?
Turkey
44
Which parasite species causes Black head?
Histomonas meleagridis
45
Which is the clinical form of leishmaniasis in dogs?
Cutaneous form
46
How do you detect leishmaniasis?
Smear with Giemsa staining. Detection of amastigotes
47
Which test can you use to detect Dourine?
Complement fixation test x2 with 3-week interval
48
Cellular organelle of leishmaniasis consists of?
Nucleus, kinetoplast, axoneme, or basal body
49
Which species is primarily affected by Histomonas meleagridis?
3-12 week old turkeys
50
Which parasites are pleomorphic?
T. brucei, Histomonas meleagridis
51
What can we detect in giardiasis?
Trophozoites (vegetative form) in the faecal smear
| Cysts (infectious form) in faecal smear
52
Which cells carry leishmaniosis?
Macrophages
53
Which trypanosome is not involved in nagana?
T. cruzei, T. evansi
54
Which cellular organelle is present in Trypanosoma?
Kinetoplast
55
Which parasite release cysts into the faeces of animals?
Giardia duodenalis
56
What is the mechanical vector of nagana?
Stomoxys and Tabanus
57
Where does the merozoite develop?
Inside schizont
58
How many cells can be infected by a merozoite of Eimera?
1
59
How many gamonts can develop from one schizont?
Many
60
How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one schizont of
Eimera?
Many
61
How can we recognize chicken coccidia by species in the simplest way?
Based on necropsy findings
62
In order to identify the species of a sporulated oocyte, what of the following is
needed?
Size of oocyte
63
What does the unsporulated oocyst contain?
Zygote
64
What does the sporulated oocysts contain?
Sporocysts
65
Where does the sporozoite develop?
In the oocyst
66
Where does the sporogony of Eimera maxima take place?
In outer environment
67
Which animal species can be infected by Eimera acervulina?
Chickens
68
Where does the sporogony of Eimera acervulina take place?
In outer environment
69
Where do the Eimera acervulina gamonts develop?
Duodenum and jejunum
70
What can we observe on the surface of mucosa in case of E. necatrix infection?
Unclotted blood
71
Where does the sporogony of Eimera brunetti takes place?
In outer environment
72
Where do the Eimera brunetti schizonts develop?
Lower part of intestines
73
Where do the Eimera tenalla schizonts develop?
Caecum
74
Which symptom does not appear in case of renal coccidiosis?
Bloody faeces
75
Where is the E. truncata primarily located?
Renal tubules
76
Eimeria labbeanna occurs in?
Pigeon small intestines
77
What does the sporulated oocyst of coccidiosis contain?
4 sporocysts containing each 2 sporozoites
78
How many epithelial cells can become infected by 1 Eimeria oocyst at the
beginning of infection?
8 cells (4 sporocysts with 2 sporozoites each)
79
How many cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera oocyst?
8
80
How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera
sporocyst?
2
81
How many macrogametes can develop from one macrogamont?
1
82
The correct order in the life cycle of Eimera?
Sporongy (in environment), schizogeny (in intestinal cells), gametogony (in intestinal cells),
sporogony (of new oocysts in the enviroment)
83
Which species of Eimera are haemorrhagic?
E. tenella, E. necatrix and E. brunetti
84
Which species of Eimera are not haemorrhagic?
E. maxima, E. acervulina, E. mitis and E. praecox
85
Which 3 species are not characterized by blood in the intestines?
E. acervulina, E. mitis and E. praecox
86
Which method do you not use to identify the species in the chicken coccidosis?
McMaster method
87
Time lapse from infection of host to apperence of parasite sexual product in
faeces is called?
Praepatent period
88
During gametogony when the merozoites develop into the female gametocytes
they are called?
Macrogametocytes
89
Which animal species can be infected by Eimera maxima?
Chicken
90
What do you find on mucosa during an infection with E. maxima?
Petechiae (also on serosa)
91
Which statement is true:
E. maxima has a 30x20 μm oocyst that is characteristic
92
Size of oocyte can be used as identification for which of these species?
E. maxima or ”other” (oocysts of other species are not characteristic to identify species)
93
Which has slightly orange/salmon pink exudate in lumen?
E. maxima
94
Where does the schizogony of Eimera acervulina take place?
In epithel of duodenum and jejunum
95
Which one has discrete white foci or transverse bands which are ladder-like?
E. acervulina
96
Where do schizonts of Eimera necatrix develop?
In jejunum and ileum
97
Animals infected by E. brunetti?
Chickens
98
Which animal species can be infected by Eimera tenella?
Chickens
99
Where do schizonts of E. mitis develop?
In the jejunum
100
In the goose what species of Eimeria affects the kidneys?
E. truncata
101
Which of the following is a symptom of E. truncata?
Torticolis
102
Which is the most usual form of biliary coccidiosis in rabbit?
Symptomless
103
What organ is affected by bovine coccidiosis?
Large intestines
104
What size is the oocyst of Isospora suis?
20 µm
105
How can we increase the sensitivity of detection of I. suis oocyst in the microscope ?
With autofluorescence
106
Where are the pathologic lesions that occur in case of I. suis infection?
In caecum and ileum
107
What does the hepatic lesions contains in case of Eimeria infection?
Gamonts and oocysts
108
Which is the largest bw Neospora, Sarcocystis, Isospora burrowsi and Isospora felis ?
I. felis
109
What is the worst consequence of pig coccidiosis?
Dehydration
110
Diarrhoea caused by coccidiosis last for…in puppy.
1-2 weeks
111
Diarrhoea caused by coccidiosis last for…in kittens.
1-2 days
112
Which species can infect cats? (I. canis, E. stiedai, I. felis or E. canis)
I. canis
113
What symptom is not caused by I. felis (canis) in cat (dog)? (diarrhoea, anaemia, exsiccosis, myocarditis)
Myocarditis
114
What symptom is caused by E. stiedai in rabbit?
Cholangitis
115
What symptom is caused by I. suis in young pig?
Diarrhoea
116
Which species has the biggest oocyst in dogs?
I. canis
117
What age of cattle is the most susceptible for Eimeria infection?
2-5 months old
118
Which species affects the large intestines in rabbit?
E. flavescens
119
From what species do we not need to distinguish Isospora felis oocyst samples?
I. ohioensis
120
Which species has pinhead-sized nodules in the ileum?
E. magna
121
Who is infected by E. stiedai?
Rabbit
122
What does a sporulated oocyst of E. stiedai contain?
Sporocyst
123
What species of Eimeria can appear as a merozoite in the bloody faeces?
E. zuernii
124
What kind of extra-intestinal symptoms can occur during Eimeria infection in calves ?
CNS signs
125
In which species can you find E. intestinalis?
Rabbit
126
What can you find in fresh faeces?
Unsporulated oocysts
127
Coccidiosis infects pigs at what age?
8-15 days
128
What is affected in coccidiosis of carnivores?
Small intestines
129
What does the sporulated oocyst of E. stiedai contain?
4 sporocysts each containing 2 sporozoites
130
Which species of Eimeria can appear as merozoites in bloody faces?
E. zuernii of cattle
131
How many macrogametes develop from 1 micro-gamont?
21-30
132
How do you detect E. zuernii in the faeces?
Flotation test
133
Species of Eimeria found in the large intestine of the rabbit?
E. piriformis and E. flavescens
134
What is an unsporulated oocyst with regards to Eimeria?
Zygote
135
Which are the small intestine Eimeria species in the rabbit?
E. intestinalis, E. magna, E. irresidua
136
How do we detect an unsporulated Eimeria oocyst?
Flotation method
137
What do we see clinically when a rabbit has E. steidai?
Sub-clinical infection...
138
What form of oocysts can be found in the fresh faeces on the course of
E. stedai infection?
Unsporulated
139
Which animal can be infected by E. intestinalis?
Rabbit
140
What form of Eimeria zuernii might appear sometimes in mucous faeces of
calves?
Schizonts or merozoites
141
At what age are rabbits most susceptible for intestinal Eimeria infection?
1-2 months
142
Where does the sporogony of Eimeria zuernii take place?
In the environment
143
Where do calves usually get heavy infection with Coccidiosis?
In feed lots and yards
144
Which method is used for courting oocysts in the faces during an Eimeria
infection?
McMaster method
145
What is found in the faeces of animals infected by Eimeria?
Sporulated oocysts
146
What is unsporulated?
Zygote
147
What is the size of a Cryptosporidium oocyst?
5-8 µm
148
How can we characterize the host specificity of Cryptosporidia baileyi?
Euryxenous
149
What do the oocysts of Cryptosporidia contain?
4 sporozoites
150
What organ is never involved into C. baileyi infection of poultry?
Liver
151
Which organ is not involved during a C. Bailyei infection of Poultry?
Brain
152
How do we detect usually the oocysts of Cryptosporidia in faeces?
Flotation method
153
Which animal species can be infected by Toxoplasma gondii?
Many mammals and birds
154
How many sporocysts do the Toxoplasma oocysts have?
2
155
What kind of pathological signs can we see on the surface of placenta of
aborted foetus by consequence of Toxoplasma infection?
Necrotic spots
156
What method is not applicable to detect antibodies against Toxoplasma
infection?
PCR
157
Which species of host of Toxoplasma do not abort their foetus during infection?
Cat
158
What is the size of Toxoplasma cyst that contains tachyzoites?
20-100 µm
159
What is the sign that does not appear in the chronic form of Besnoitiosis of
cattle?
Itching
160
What type of Sarcocystis oocyst can be found in fresh faeces?
Sporulated
161
What type of Sarcocystis oocyst can be found in fresh faeces?
Sporulated form with two sporocysts
162
What is the usual consequence of Sarcocystis in final host animals?
No clinical signs
163
What can we usually detect in the faeces during Sarcocystiosis in definite host?
Sporocysts
164
What is the most frequent clinical form of Sarcocystiosis of the dog?
Subclinical
165
What animals are susceptible for Besnoitia besnoiti?
More spp. of ruminants
166
Which is the method used to detect Cryptosporidium?
Kinyoun staining
167
What method is not used to detect Toxoplasma tachyzoites during infection?
IFAT staining
168
Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 4 free sporozoites?
Cryptosporidium
169
Which genus has sporulated oocysts without sporocysts?
Cryptosporidium
170
What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidium meleagridis oocysts?
5 µm, spherical
171
Which form is not characteristic of avian Cryptosporidiosis?
Hepatic form (Crypto has intestinal, respiratory and renal form)
172
Host range of Cryptosporidiosis?
Euryxenous (mammals and birds)
173
Host range of Cryptosporidium baileyi?
Anseriform
174
Life Cycle of Cryptosporidia parvum?
Homoxenous
175
Which species of Cryptosporidium occurs in birds?
C. balleyi (C. galli, C. meleagridis)
176
Where is Cryptosporidium mainly found?
Small intestines (ileum), or abomasum in case of C. muris and C. andersoni
177
Which bird species are susceptible for C. bailyei infection?
Many species
178
What is the causative agent of Cryptosporidiosis in mammals?
C. muris (C. parvum, C. andersoni and C. bovis, C. felis, C. canis, C. hominis)
179
Which parasite are homoxenous but not host specific?
Cryptosporidium parvum
180
What are the clinical signs for C. baileyi?
Dyspnoea and diarrhoea (also: coughing, sneezing, nasal discharges and conjunctivitis)
181
What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidium baileyi oocysts?
6-7 μm, oval
182
What form of Cryptosporidium can be found in fresh faeces?
Oocysts containing 4 sporozoites
183
Which form of Cryptosporidiosis has the most severe outcome in broilers?
Respiratory
184
In which location will Cryptosporidium baileyi not establish?
Stomach
185
Which is not true?
Toxoplasma oocysts are 5-8 μm (they are 10x12 μm)
186
Host range of Toxoplasmosis?
Cats, dogs, birds and humans and other mammals
187
Which symptom does not occur during Toxoplasmosis infection in cats?
Abortion
188
How can we characterize the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii?
Facultative heteroxenous
189
In which animal can we find Toxoplasma oocysts in the faeces?
Cats (maximum 20 days/only for 1-2 weeks)
190
What kind of host is the cat in Toxoplasma gondii?
Final Host/definitive host
191
For how long does a cat pass Toxoplasma oocysts in the faeces?
1-2 weeks
192
Which animals shed oocysts in Toxoplasmosis?
All species of cats as the definitive/final host
193
What can be found in sporulated oocysts of Toxoplasmosis?
2 sporocysts each containing 4 sporozoites
194
What is the patency period for Toxoplasmosis?
20 days
195
Oocyst of Toxoplasma gondii is indistinguishable from that of?
Hammondia hammondi
196
What is the size of Toxoplasma gondii cyst?
20-100 µm
197
In which species does T. gondii cause necrotic foci and granuloma in liver,
spleen, lungs and brain?
Rabbit
198
Which clinical sign can be seen in dogs infected by Toxoplasma?
CNS symptoms (along with anorexia, pneumonia and diarrhoea)
199
What method is not used to detect Toxoplasma tachyzoites during infection?
Sabin-Feldman dye test
200
Besnoitia besnoiti species are?
Obligatory heteroxenous
201
Which statement is not true for Besnoitia besnoiti?
It´s most important intermediate host is the cat. It can be transmitted by vectors, the cyst is
visible to the naked eye, develops in the endothel
202
What type of host of Sarcocystiosis can give the intestinal form of infection?
Final hosts – dog, cat, wild carnivores and man
203
What is the Sarcocystiosis species of cattle among these following ones?
S. hirsuta
204
What is the Sacrocystiosis species of sheep among these following ones?
S. gigantean
205
What can be found in sections of vascular endothelium of heart, kidney etc. in
Sarcosporidiosis?
Groups of merozoites or small schizonts
206
Intestinal Sarcosporidiosis can occur in?
Dog, cat, wild carnivores and man
207
Wheat-pea sized and greyish-yellow sarcocysts of ... are found in the wall of
esophagus?
S. gigantea (in sheep)
208
Muscle sarcosporidiosis can be found in?
Sheep, cattle, sheep, swine, horse and rabbit
209
What does the human need to ingest to get infected with Sarcocystiosis?
Cystozoites
210
What is the vector of Hepatozoon canis?
Other than flea, lice, fly
211
What are the vertebrates susceptible for Babesiosis?
Birds and mammals
212
What is the animal that may abort its foetus in consequence of Babesiosis:
Cattle
213
What are the host that does not show haemoglobinuria during Babesia-infection?
Horses
214
What word is correct to describe certain form of Babesia?
Sporozoite
215
What is the Babesia species that can infect dog among the following ones?
B. gibsoni
216
In what cells does the Theileria begin to develop inside first vertebrate host?
Lymphocytes
217
What is the species among the following ones that has not any zoonotic
significance?
Theileria annulata
218
In what cells do the Koch bodies occur?
Lymphocytes
219
What is the correct term to describe the host preferences of Encephalitozoon?
Euryxenous
220
What is the staining method that cannot be applied to detect Encephalitozoon
spores in tissues?
Hematoxyllin eosin staining
221
Correct term for host range of Hepatozoonosis:
Obligate heteroxenous
222
In which cells do gamonts of Hepatozoon develop?
Neutrophil granulocytes
223
Which form of Hepatozoon canis can be found in the neutrophil granulocytes?
Gamont
224
Which symptom is not present in the dog affected with Babeiosis:
Abortion
225
In which animal does Babeiosis infection affect the eyes?
Dog
226
Which Babesia has zoonotic significance?
B. bingemina
227
What is the difference between the cell preference of Babesia and Theileria?
Theileria can develop in lymphocytes, Babesia does not
228
What is the species of Babesia that have zoonotic character?
B. divergens of cow
229
What type of animals does Babeiosis affect?
Mammals
230
Babesia vogeli can infect:
Dogs
231
Which cells does Babesia first infect?
RBCs
232
Which species can occur in cattle?
B. divergens
233
Which is “small babesia”?
B.canis
234
Form of Theileria that occurs in RBCs:
Piroplasm
235
Theleria annulata is seen in which species?
Cattle
236
What is the size of Koch bodies?
10-12 µm
237
Koch bodies are:
Schizonts in WBCs
238
Vertebrate animals susceptible to Encephalitozoonosis:
Many mammals
239
Which staining can’t you use in the detection of Encephalitozoa?
HE staining
240
In Encephalitozoonosis, eye disorders are seen in which species?
Fox, dog
241
During the necropsy, thickened and nodular vessels in arteries of viscera can be
seen with the naked eye in:
Encephalitozoonosis
242
Spores of E. cuniculi can be detected where in rabbits?
In the urine
243
What size are the Encephalitozoon spores?
1.5 x 2.5 µm, elliptical or Oval
244
Which staining is used for Encephalitozoonosis?
Gram +
245
What kind of organ is affected by Encephalitozoon cuniculi?
Kidney
246
What is the name of the development for lice?
Epimorphosis
247
How many nymphal stages do the lice have?
3
248
How long do the blood sucking lice survive without a host?
Some days only
249
What is the blood sucking louse of cats?
It does not exist
250
Which hosts are the blood sucking lice live on?
Mammals
251
How many abdominal segments do lice have?
9
252
One of the anoplura louse species of cattle is the Linognathus...?
Vituli
253
What does a cocoon of a flea contain?
Pupa
254
Which way do the flea devevelop?
Holometamorphosis
255
Which is characteristic for a cat infected with fleas?
Miliary dermatitis
256
How many larval stages do the flea have?
3
257
How big is an adult louse?
1-14 mm
258
Which gender are the biggest lice?
Female
259
How are the eyes of the lice?
Reduced or absent
260
How many antennae does the Amblycera/Ischnocera have?
3-5 segmented antennae
261
How many antennae does the Anoplura have?
5 segmented antennae
262
How long do chewing/biting lice survive without a host?
1-2 weeks
263
How do the lice spread?
By contact, phoresy
264
Which suborder does Felicola subrostratus belong to?
Ichnocera (chewing or biting lice)
265
Which suborder does Solenopotes capillatus belong to?
Anopleura (blood-sucking lice)
266
Which is the blood sucking louse of dogs?
Linognathus setosus
267
Which is the blood sucking louse of sheep?
Linognathus stenopsis, Linognathus ovillus, Linognathus pedalis
268
Which are the blood sucking lice of birds?
Does not exist
269
Which are the chewing/biting lice of rabbits?
Does not exist
270
Which are the chewing/biting lice of pigs?
Does not exist
271
Which are the chewing/biting lice of humans?
Does not exist
272
What is the blood-sucking lice species of cattle?
Linognathus vituli, Hematopinus eurysternus, Solenopotes capillatus
273
How many spiracles do lice have?
6 pairs
274
How many abdominal segments do fleas have?
10
275
Genus of the rat flea?
Xenopsylla cheopis
276
Genus of the human flea?
Tunga penetrans
277
What is special about Tunga penetrans (jigger)?
Only male sucks blood
278
Which is characteristic for a dog infected with fleas?
Hotspots on lumbosacral and gluteal region
279
How big is an adult flea?
1-6 mm
280
How big are the eggs of flea?
0,5 mm
281
In flea infestation, which are the clinical signs?
Correct: Restlessness, scratching, intense grooming, anaemia, fleabite allergy, hot spot in dog,
military dermatitis in cat
282
How does fleas develop?
Holometamorphosis
283
Choose the scientific name of the horsefly species.
A: Tababus bromlus B: Culicoides imicola
C: Culex pipies D: Phlebotumum neglectus
Tabanus
284
Choose the developmental cycle typical for bedbugs.
A: Anamoprhosis B: Holometamorphosis
C: Hemimetamorphosis D: Epimetamorphosis
Epimetamorphosis
285
Choose the developmental cycle typical for diptherans.
A: Anamoprhosis B: Holometamorphosis
C: Hemimetamorphosis D: Epimetamorphosis
Holometamorphosis
286
This species never consumes blood.
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Lipoptena cervi
C: Haematobia irritans D: Fannia canicularis
Fannia canicularis
287
This species never consumes blood.
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Lipoptena cervi
C: Haematobia irritans D: Musca domestica
Musca domestica
288
This species never consumes blood.
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Lipoptena cervi
C: Haematobia irritans D: Muscina stabulans
Muscina stabulans
289
Both sexes are haematophagus?
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Musca autumnalis
C: Fannia canicularis D: Musca domestica
Stomoxys calcitrans
290
Both sexes are haematophagus?
A: Hematobius irritans B: Musca autumnalis
C: Fannia canicularis D: Musca domestica
Hematobius irritans
291
How many nymphal stages do bugs have?
5
292
What does the pupa of bugs look like?
No pupa, since they develop via epimorphosis
293
What does the male bedbug feed on?
Blood
294
Which bug causes anaemia?
Cimex lectularis (bed bug)
295
Where are the respiratory spiracles of bugs located?
Ventrally on the abdomen
296
Respiratory spiracles lay on:
Stigma plate
297
How many nymphal stages are there in the Darkling beetle?
None (have larvae)
298
Diptera whose antenna has only 3 segments?
Tabanus
299
Their antenna has only 3 segments?
Tabanus
300
Tsetse fly gives birth to:
One fully-grown 3rd stage larvae
301
Size of the Tsetse fly:
6-15 mm
302
Which lay fully-grown larvae?
Tse-tse fly
303
Adult species of this genus are always wingless?
Melophagus ovinus
304
Which of the following does not belong to the mouthparts?
Antennae
305
Their larvae are able to chew into solid materials?
Alphitobius diaperinus
306
Development of Family Culicidae:
(Holo)metamorphosis
307
Life cycle of Heteroptera (Hemiptera)?
Epimorphosis
308
What is characteristic of the Family Simuliidae?
Pupa is in a slipper-shaped cocoon that is reddish-brown
309
Which group pupates inside a cocoon capsule?
Simuliidae
310
What order does the Fannia canicularis belong to?
Cyclorrhapha
311
Which genus does not belong to the group of mosquitoes?
| A: Alphitoblus B: Aedes C: Culex D: Anopheles
Alphitobius
312
Choose the insect group where development in stagnant water is typical?
A: Horseflies B: Mosquitoes C: Bedbugs D: Sandflies
Mosquitoes
313
Choose the group where both sexes feed on blood.
| A: Blackflies B: Mosquitoes C: Bedbugs D: Sandflies
Bedbugs
314
Reduced wings are characteristic for.
| A: Blackflies B: Hornflies C: Biting midges D: Bedbugs
Bedbugs
315
Choose the insect that is not haematophagous.
| A: Bedbug B: Lesser mealworm C: Horsefly D: Sandfly
Lesser mealworm
316
Choose the scientific name of a Blackfly species?
A: Simulium damnosum B: Aedes vexans
C: Culex pipiens D: Anopheles
Simulium damnosum
317
Mottled wings are characteristic for?
| A: Biting midges B: Blackflies C: Sanflies D: Bedbugs
Biting midges
318
Larvae and puparia of this species have lateral projections.
| A: Fannia B: Stomoxys C: Musca D: Haematobia
Fannia
319
Larvae of species of this genus are able to feed outside the adults?
A: Lipoptena B: Hippobosca C: Melophagus D: Stomoxys
Stomoxys
320
Both sexes of this species consume blood?
A: Musca domestica B: Fannia canicularis
C: Haematobia irritans D: Musca autumnalis
Haematobia irritans
321
Blowfly..
A: Lay eggs B: Lays second instar
C: Lays first instar D: Lays pupa
Lay eggs
322
A freshfly lays…
| A: Eggs B: Third instars C: First instars D: Pupa
First instars
323
Hypoderma lineatum imagos feeds on..
| A: Blood B: Plant tissue C: Nothing D: Connective tissue
Nothing
324
First stage larva of Hypoderma bovis migrate into the?
| A: Spinal canal B: Kidney C: Esophagus D: Gluteal region
Spinal canal
325
The female mosquitoes need blood for?
Ovarian development
326
Most of the mosquitoes species are?
Nocturnal or crepuscular
327
What does the female mouthparts of the mosquitoes have?
Piercing-sucking mouthparts (fleshy labium), paired maxilla and mandibles, hypopharynx, labrum
328
Which part of the mosquitoes is entering the skin?
Labrum
329
Which part of the mosquitoes is not entering the skin?
Fleshy labium
330
How big are the mosquitoes?
2-10 mm
331
What is characteristic for the male mosquitoes?
Reduced or absent maxilla
332
How is the antenna in female mosquitoes?
Pilose (hairy)
333
How is the antenna in male mosquitoes?
Plumose (feathery)
334
How does the Anopheles look like?
Characteristically straight, acute angle with the surface
335
How does Culex, Aedes look like?
Bended at thorax and body is parallel with the surface
336
How do the eggs of the mosquitoes look like?
Elongated, ovoid or boat shaped
337
Which mosquitos lay eggs on water?
Anopheles
338
Which mosquitoes lay eggs in groups?
Culex
339
How many larval instars are there in still freshwater Anopheles?
4
340
How do the mummy-like pupae look like?
Comma-shaped, distinct cephalothorax and abdomen with respiratory trumpets
341
Most of the species of Blackflies is?
Diurnal
342
When is the Blackflies most active?
During the morning or early evening
343
How does the female Blackfly suck blood?
Lacerates the tissues until a pool of blood is formed and then takes it up
344
Which ones are species of the Blackfly?
Simulium columbaschense, S. damnosum
345
How are the eyes of the female Blackfly?
Distinctly separated (dichoptic)
346
How are the eyes of the male Blackfky?
Closer (holoptic)
347
Where are the eggs of the Blackfly laid?
In batches on stones or vegetation near running water
348
How many larval instars of the Blackfly?
6-9
349
What is a clinical sign of Blackfly in cattle?
Acute syndrome: simuliotoxicosis
350
What is characteristic for both sexes of Sandflies?
Feed on plant juices
351
How is the colour of the Sandfly?
Dull coloured
352
How big is the Sandfly?
5 mm
353
How are the wing veins of the Sandfly?
In straight lines
354
How are the eggs of the Sandfly laid?
In cracks, burrows or holes in the ground
355
How many larval instars does the Sandfly have?
4
356
How big are the Biting midges?
1.5-5 mm
357
How many larval instars do the Biting midges have?
4
358
What are the Muscoid flies called which is associated with man?
Synathropic
359
What are the Muscoid flies called which is associated with the stables?
Endophilic
360
What are the Muscoid flies called which is associated with pastures?
Exophilic
361
Which muscoid flies are exophilic?
Musca Automnalis and Hematobius Irritans
362
What is in the first segment of Muscoid flies?
Inner cephalopharyngeal skeleton
363
How many larval instars do the Muscoid flies have?
3
364
How is the shape of the puparium of the Muscoid flies?
Barrel shaped
365
How big is the Musca domestica/housefly?
7-8 mm
366
How many segments do the larvae of the Musca domestica/housefly have?
12 segments
367
How many generations per year does the housefly have?
10-30 generations
368
How big is the Fannia canicularis/lesser housefly?
4-6 mm
369
What order does Fannia canicularis belong to?
Cyclorrhapha of the Suborder Brachycera
370
Which have a closed peritreme?
Blowfly
371
How does the first two abdominal segments of the Fannia canicularis/lesser
housefly look like?
Yellowish spots
372
How big is the Stomoxys calcitrans/stable fly?
6-7 mm
373
Where does the Stomoxys calcitrans/stable fly attack their host?
On the lower parts (belly, limbs)
374
How big is Musca autumnalis/face fly?
5-7 mm
375
Which species have biological and mechanical vector?
Musca autumnalis or face fly
376
What does the Musca autumnalis feed on?
Secretions around the eyes (nose, mouth and wounds)
377
How big is the Haematobia irritans/horn fly?
4 mm
378
What does the horn fly cause?
Intense irritation and blood loss
379
Larvae of Hypoderma lineatum migrate into?
Oesophagus
380
Where do the Warble flies pupate?
On the ground
381
Which one has a 3rd instar larvae called a warble/grub?
None (correct answer is Warble flies, Hypodermatinae)
382
Which fly lays larvae on mammals?
Oestrus ovis
383
Where can we find the larvae of O. ovis?
In the nasal cavity
384
Where does Gastrophilus nasalis finally develop?
Pylorus
385
Where the Gasterophilus intestinalis lays its egg?
On shoulders
386
How long do the larva of sheep nasal botfly develop inside host?
10-12 months
387
Members of this genus are facultative parasites?
Lucilia sericata, Lucilia cuprina
388
Where does Lucilla spp. belong?
Calliphoridae
389
Which have an open peritreme?
Fleshflies
390
Which one has a 3rd instar larvae called a maggot?
None (correct answer is Sarcophagidae Wohlfahrtia spp.)
391
Where does Wohlfahrtia spp. belong?
Sarcophagidae
392
Which adult female is larviparous?
Wohlfahrtia spp.
393
Wohlfahrtia Magnifica lays what?
Females lay first instar larvae, they are larviparous and obligate parasites
394
Which adult female is honeybee like?
Botflies
395
How does a Botfly reproduce?
Female attach their eggs to hairs on the upper parts of the body and then they develop with
Holometamorphosis
396
Sheep nasal botfly
First stage larvae are laid at the nostrils
397
Host of Gastrophilus nasalis?
Equids
398
Fly where both sexes are haematophagous?
Haematoba irritans, Stomoxys Calcitrans
399
This species of mites burrows into the skin.
A: Otodectes cynotis B: Chorioptes bovis
C: Psoroptes cuniculi D: Knemidokoptes mutans
D: Knemidokoptes mutans
400
This species causes the scaly leg of poultry.
| A: K. pillae B: K. mutans C: K. gallinae D: K. pedalis
K. mutans
401
This species causes the scaly face of poultry.
| A: K. pillae B: K. mutans C: K. gallinae D: K. pedalis
K. pillae
402
This host can be infected by only one species of mange mites?
A: Rabbit B: Swine C: Cat D: Goat
Swine
403
This species occurs mainly in the lower parts of the legs?
| A: Knemidokoptes pilae B: Chorioptes bovis C: Notoedres muris D: Psorptes cuniculi
Chorioptes bovis
404
What chemicals are applied to dissolve the keratinous part of skin scrapings?
A: Alkalines B: Salt solutions C: Washing soda D: Formalin
Alkalines
405
Which of them has segmented pedicels on the end of its legs?
| A: Otodectes B: Notoedres C: Chorioptes D: Psorptes
Psoroptes
406
Species of this genus of mites are able to survive off the host for a few days
only.
A: Chorioptes B: Otodectes C: Sarcoptes D: Psorptes
Sarcoptes
407
These mites have no respiratory openings on the body.
| A: Mange mites B: Hair follicle mites C: Red mites D: Ticks
Mange mites
408
Where do Sarcoptes mites belong?
Order Acariformes, sub-order Astigmata, Burrowing mites
409
Where do Psoroptes mites belong?
Order Acariformes, sub-order Astigmata, Non-burrowing mites
410
Which mites have short legs?
Burrowing mites (Sarcoptes, Knemidokoptes, Notoedres spp.)
411
Which mites have long legs?
Non-burrowing mites (Choriptes, Otodectes, Psoroptes spp.)
412
Which have Otodectic mange?
Cat
413
Which have Sarcoptic mange?
Pig
414
Which is the causative agent of depluming itch?
Knemidokoptes gallinae
415
Which method is used for the diagnosis of Sarcoptic mange?
Skin scraping since they are burrowing mites
416
Which methods are used for the diagnosis of Notoedric mange?
Skin scraping since they are burrowing mites.
417
The species of mites that burrow into skin?
Sarcoptes, Knemidokoptes, Notoedres spp.
418
These mites are able to consume tissue fluids:
Psoroptic mites
419
These mites can sometimes cause anaemia during heavy infection:
Psoroptic mites
420
How many nymph stages are there during the development of mange mites?
2 nymph stages
421
Which mite is viviparous?
Knemidokoptes spp.
422
Which species has Notoedric mange?
Dog
423
What developmental stage of chigger mites feed on vertebrates?
A: Nymphs B: Adults C: Larvae D: None of them
Larvae
424
It feeds only at one once.
| A: Female soft tick B: Male soft tick C: Female hard tick D: Male hard tick
Female hard tick
425
What species of Cheyletiella occurs in rabbits?
| A: C. blakei B: C. parasitivorax C: C. yasguri D: C. cuniculi
C. parasitivorax
426
Their larva is not able to feed anything.
| A: Red mites B: Harvest mite C: Soft ticks D: Hard ticks
Red mites
427
Hard ticks have…,blood feeding developmental stages.
| A: 2 B: 5 C: 4 D: 3
3
428
How many times do the nymphs of hard ticks feed on blood?
| A: Several times B: Only once C: They do not feed D: 2-3 times
Only once
429
Where do the soft ticks lay their eggs?
A: At the host B: Into the soil
C: Cracks and crevices D: They are viviparous
Cracks and crevices
430
It is not true for Demodex.
A: Their eggs are pear shaped B: They are permanent parasites
C: They live on hair D: They are viviparous
They live on hair
431
Their larvae never feed.
| A: Dermanyssus B: Dermacentor C: Demodex D: Trombicula
Dermanyssus
432
They lay their eggs on hair.
| A: Hard ticks B: Cheyletiella C: Red mites D: Soft ticks
Cheyletiella
433
This species lives on eyelids?
Demodex caballi
434
Where does the red mite belong?
Mesostigmatid mites
435
For which species are huge palps characteristic?
Cheyletiella
436
Which animals have D. Phylloides?
Pig
437
Which is the smallest overall?
Hair follicle mite
438
For which do you collect with scotch tape?
Cheyletiella
439
Where do hair follicle mites belong?
Prostigmatid mites
440
For which species are ciliated setae characteristic?
Trombicula autumnalis
441
Which animals have “Argas persicus”?
Poultry, wild birds
442
Which is the largest overall?
Female ixodes
443
Dragging and flagging is suitable collection for?
Dermacentor marginatus (Hard ticks)
444
How many forms of Fasciola larvae appear only inside the body of intermediate
host? A: 4 B: 2 C: 3 D:1
2
445
What is the most important intermediate host of F. hepatica in Europe?
A: Galba truncatula B: Lymnaea peregra
C: Radix labiata D: Succinella oblongata
Galba truncatula
446
Which animal is the most susceptible for Fasciola infection?
| A: Roe deer B: Horse C: Sheep D: Cattle
Sheep
447
What is the best way to detect lancet fluke eggs in faeces?
| A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation
Flotation
448
What is the larval stage of Paramphistomum that can swim in water?
A: Miracidium B: Redia C: Sporocyst D: Cercaria
Cercaria
449
What age of sheep is most susceptible for acute Fasciolosis?
A: Lambs under 8 months B: After 8 months
C: After 1 year D: After 4 years
Lambs under 8 months
450
54
What is the most frequent consequence of Dicrocoelium infection in cattle?
A: Swelling of the liver B: Symptomless infection
C: Oedema D: Anaemia
Symptomless infection
451
What term characterizes rumen flukes?
A: Flat body B: Pinkish body
C: Suckers at both ends D: Bisexual
B,C,D
452
What term characterizes rumen flukes?
A: Flat body B: Pinkish body
C: Suckers at both ends D: Hermaphrodite
B,C,D
453
What larval form is missing during development of lancet flukes?
A: Miracidium B: Redia C: Sporocyst D: Cercaria
Redia
454
How many larval forms of lancet fluke appear only inside the body of snail?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 1 D: 3
4
455
What snail can be an intermediate host of Paramphistomum cervi?
A: Galba truncatula B: Planorbis planorbis
C: Radix labiate D: Succinella oblonga
Planorbis planorbis
456
Which animal is least susceptible for Fasciola infection?
| A: Cat B: Goat C: Hare D: Cattle
Cat
457
What is the way to detect fluke eggs in feces?
| A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation
Sedimentation & Flotation
458
What is the larval stage of Dicrocoelium that develops in ants?
A: Miracidium B: Metacercaria C: Sporocyst D: Cercaria
Metacercaria
459
Which age of sheep is the most affected by chronic Fasciolosis?
A: At age of 6 moths B: 12 months C: After 1 year D: New-borns
After 1 year
460
What is the colour of mucosa of lips during acute Fasciolosis?
A: Normal, pink B: Red C: Pale D: Yellowish
Normal, pink
461
What characterizes lancet flukes?
A: Flat body B: Pink body
C: Suckers at both ends D: Hermaphrodite
Flat body, hermaphrodite
462
What organ do the young rumen fluke attach to first, on the course of infection?
A: Abomasum B: Ileum C: Fore stomach D: Duodenum
Duodenum
463
How many larval stages of Dicrocoelium can actively move in the environment?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 0 D: 3
0
464
What are the intermediate hosts for both Fasciola and Calicophoron flukes?
A: Galba truncatula snails B: Lymneaea peregra snails
C: Planorbis planorbis snails D: Succinella oblonga snails
Galba truncatula snails
465
What are the second intermediate host of lancet flukes?
A: Galba truncatula amphibious snail B: Ant species
C: They do not need any D: Succunella oblonga land snail
Ant species
466
How many Fasciola metacercariae are needed to cause acute infection in cattle?
A: It does not depend on the quantity of worms B: More than 1000 are enough
C: Some hundreds is enough D: Many thousands larva is required
More than 1000 are enough
467
What does the fresh egg of Calicophoron fluke contain?
A: Zygote B: Miracidium
C: Blastomers D: Morula stage of larvae
Zygote
468
What is the colour of liver fluke egg?
| A: Yellow B: Brown C: Colourless D: Pink
Yellow
469
What genus has the longest praepatent period in the final host?
A: Fascioloides B: Paramphistomum C: Dicrocoelium D: Fasciola
Paramphistomum
470
What is the species that never causes acute form of a disease?
A: Dicrocoelium dendriticum B: Fasciola hepatica
C: Paramphistomum cervi D: Calicophoron daubneyi
Dicrocoelium dendriticum
471
Which term characterizes Fasciola flukes?
A: Flat body B: Head cone
C: Suckers on both ends D: Sexes are separated
Flat body, head cone
472
This is not absolutely necessary for the development of lancet fluke.
A: Redia stage B: Water
C: Second intermediate host D: Freshwater snail
Redia stage, water, freshwater snail
473
Which fluke is the largest?
A: F. hepatica B: Dicrocoelium dendriticum
C: Paramphistomum cervi D: Calicophoron daubneyi
F. hepatica
474
What are the steps of the lifecycle of F. hepatica?
A: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE B: MI - SPO - RE - CE
C: MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - RE - CE C: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE
A: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE
475
How big is Fasciola hepatica adult?
| A: 3-6 mm B: 2-3 mm C: 2-3 cm D: 8-10 mm
2-3 cm
476
How is the shape of the Fasciola hepatica?
| A: Lemon shaped B: Leaf-like C: Rectangular D: Heart shaped
Leaf-like
477
The life cycle of … is MI - SPO - RE - CE.
| A: F. hepatica B: D. dendriticum C: P. ichikawai D: F. magna
P. ichikawai
478
Which species develops with two intermediate hosts?
| A: F. hepatica B: D. dendriticum C: P. ichikawai D: F. magna
D. dendriticum
479
Which species has 40-50 μm, sized, brownish eggs?
A: Paramphistomum cervi B: Schistosoma japonicum
C: Fascioloides magna C: Other
Other
480
How can you diagnose acute Fasciolosis?
A: With sedimentation B: With flotation
C: With necroscopy D: With other
With necropsy
481
You can find a few mm long worms in the liver parenchyma. This is…
A: D. dendriticum B: F. hepatica
C: Schistosoma spp. D: D. dendriticum and F. hepatica
F. hepatica
482
The life cycle of … MI-SPO-RE1-RE2-CE.
| A: F. hepatica B: D. dendriticum C: P. ichikawai D: F. magna
F. hepatica
483
Which species is 140-150 μm long, and colourless?
A: Paramphistomum cervi B: Schistosoma japonicum
C: Fascioloides magna C: Other
P. cervi
484
How can you diagnose chronic paramphistomatidosis?
A: With sedimentation B: With flotation
C: With necroscopy D: With other
With sedimentation
485
You can find a few mm long worms in ductus choleductus. This is…
A: D. dendriticum B: F. hepatica
C: Schistosoma spp. D: D. dendriticum and F. hepatica
D: D. dendriticum and F. hepatica
486
What is the intermediate host of Paramphistomum species?
A: Galba truncatula B: Lymnaea peregra
C: Radix labiata D: Planorbids
Planorbids
487
What is the intermediate host of Calicophoron daubneyi?
A: Galba truncatula B: Lymnaea peregra
C: Radix labiata D: Succinella oblonga
Galba truncatula
488
What is the lifecycle of F. hepatica in Lymnaea peregra snail?
A: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE B: MI - SPO - RE - CE
C: MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - RE - CE D: None
None
489
What is the family of the Fascicola?
| Trematodes
Trematodes
490
What technique do you use to measure the size of the parasites?
Micrometry
491
Which technique concentrates fluke eggs?
Sedimentation
492
What is the host spectrum of Fasciola hepatica?
Wide, mostly herbivorous mammals and humans
493
What is another name for Fasciola hepatica?
Common liver fluke
494
What kind of method is used to detect Fasciola hepatica egg?
Sedimentation or flotation method
495
Where can you find the adult form of Fasciola hepatica?
In the bile duct and gallbladder
496
Where can you find the juvenile form of Fasciola hepatica?
Penetrates the intestine and migrates to the liver via abdominal cavity
497
After the death of F. hepatica flukes what can be found?
Fibrotic tracts or necrotic areas in liver
498
What are special about the diagnosis of acute Fasciolosis?
There are no eggs in the faeces
499
How can you treat the Fasciolosis?
Triclabendazol
500
What is the main source of heavy Fasciolosis?
Secondary biotopes
501
What is the size of the eggs of F. hepatica?
120-150 µm
502
Which colour of the eggs does Fasciola hepatica have?
Golden yellow
503
What does the Fasciola hepatica eggs contain?
Zygote
504
What surrounds the egg of the F. hepatica?
Granulated yolk
505
Zygote containing egg of F. hepatica develops into?
Ciliated larva (miracidium)
506
F. hepatica: in the body of snail the first larva turns into?
Bladder-like sporocyst
507
In which stage does the F. hepatica shed their tail?
Cercariae
508
How long takes the migration in the liver parenchyma of F. hepatica?
4-6 weeks
509
Approximately how long is the praepatent period of F. hepatica?
10 weeks
510
What are the definitive hosts of F. hepatica?
All kinds of ruminants, mainly the hollow-horned ones (bovidae)
511
What are the most susceptible species for Fasciola hepatica?
Sheep, goat, rabbit and hare + (artificially: mouse, rat)
512
What are the moderately susceptible species of Fasciola hepatica?
Cattle, deer, roe-deer, moufflon, buffalo and camel + (artificially: guinea pig)
513
What are the least susceptible species for Fasciola heptica?
Horse, pig, dog, cat and humans
514
What can be the symptoms of acute form of Fasciola hepatica?
Rapid weight loss, sudden death
515
What can be the symptoms of sub acute form of Fasciola hepatica?
Severe anaemia, bottle jaw
516
What can be the symptoms of chronic form of Fasciola hepatica?
Submandibular oedema, cachexia
517
F. hepatica: in case of acute form the young flukes can be found in?
Parenchyma
518
F. hepatica: in case of chronic form the flukes can be found?
In the biliary ducts and gallbladder
519
How big is Fascioloides magna?
2-10 cm
520
What is another name for Fascioloides magna?
Large liver fluke
521
What is the size of Fascioloides magna eggs?
110-160 μm
522
Mixed infections with F. magna and F. hepatica can occur in?
Cattle
523
What is the definite host of the Fascioloides magna?
Deer
524
What is the aberran host of the Fascioloides magna?
Sheep, goat
525
What is the paratenic host of the Fascioloides magna?
Cattle
526
What are the steps of the lifecycle in rumen fluke?
MI - SPO - RE1 - CE (Miracidium, Sporocysts, Redia and Cercaria)
527
Where does the development take place for paramphistomid?
On land and in water
528
Which snail species is amphibious?
Planorbis species
529
How long is the praepatent period of rumen flukes?
16-18 weeks
530
Where can you find immature rumen flukes?
Duodenum and abomasum
531
Juvenile form of rumen flukes is found in?
Duodenum
532
What colour does the eggs of rumen flukes have?
Colourless
533
What is special about the juvenile rumen flukes?
They never leave the intestinal canal during their route from small intestine to the fore stomach
534
In which animals is the rumen fluke common?
In wild animals
535
What is the genus name for rumen fluke?
Calicophoron
536
Where does the rumen fluke take place?
Rumen and reticulum
537
What is the size of the rumen fluke?
1-2 cm
538
What is the shape of the rumen fluke?
Bean-like/conical
539
What are the symptoms of chronic or rumen paramphistomatidosis?
No symptoms
540
Adult rumen flukes are found … during acute paramphistomatidosis?
Nowhere, because adult rumen flukes aren’t present in acute form
541
To diagnose rumen fluke we can use?
Sedimentation method or flotation
542
How can you diagnose acute form of rumen fluke?
No eggs in faeces, juvenile flukes in faeces and microscopy
543
How can you diagnose the chronic form?
Faecal egg count and necroscopy
544
How to treat the acute form of rumen flukes?
Stop grazing, fluke-free pastures, Niclosamide
545
How to treat the chronic form of rumen flukes?
Levamizol, Oxikolzanid
546
What is the main difference between the eggs of rumen fluke and F. hepatica?
Colour
547
What is the size of the eggs of lancet flukes?
40-48 μm long
548
Which fluke is the smallest?
Dicrocoelium dendriticum (0.5-1 cm)
549
What is the development of Dicrocoelium dendriticum in ants?
CE - ME
550
What is the life cycle of Dicrocoelium dendriticum in snails?
MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - RE - CE
551
When is the miracidium able to hatch in the lancet flukes?
If the egg is consumed by a land snail
552
Acute form was never mentioned in?
Dicrocoeliosis
553
Where does the larva of the lancet fluke hatch?
In the intestines of the snails
554
Where does the larva of the lancet fluke develops?
In the body cavity of the intermediate host to sporocyst
555
What does the sporocyst of the lancet fluke produce?
Several generations of other sporocysts (so called daughter sporocyst)
556
Cercariae of the lancet fluke have a sharp spine on the tip of the head, what is
it called?
Stylet
557
How do the cercariae of the lancet fluke leave the snail?
With the expelled mucus
558
Where does juvenile lancet flukes develop into adults?
Liver, through biliary ducts
559
Approximately how long is the praepatent period in the lancet flukes?
About 7-9 weeks
560
What is the intermediate host of lancet flukes?
Small land snails may act as first intermediate host
561
For how long does the infected snail survive in the lancet flukes?
1-4 years
562
What is the second intermediate host of the lancet flukes?
Ants
563
How long do the infected ants of the lancet flukes survive for?
Maximum 1 year
564
Which biotope is important in dicrocoeliosis?
None, not primary or secondary
565
Where does Schistosomatidosis (blood fluke disease) occur?
In the vessels
566
How is the male of the Schistosomiasis?
Broad, flat and inwardly curved forming a groove
567
How big is the Schistosomiasis?
0.5-3.0 cm long
568
How is the lifecycle of Schistosomiasis?
MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - CE
569
What is the infective stage of the Schistosomiasis?
Furcocercaria
570
How is the shape of Schistosomiasis?
Thread-like
571
Which of the Schistosoma is most pathologic?
Japonicum
572
Which of the Schistosoma is the biggest?
Female
573
Schistosoma bovis occurs in which species?
Cattle, sheep and goat
574
Schistosoma bovis can be found in?
Portal, mesenteric and urogenital veins
575
Schistosoma mattheei occurs in which species?
Domestic and wild ruminants, zebra, occasionally humans
576
Schistosoma mattheei can be found in?
Intestinal, hepatic and bladder veins
577
Schistosoma japonicum occurs in which species?
Most domestic and wild animals and humans
578
Schistosoma japonicum can be found in?
Portal and mesenteric veins
579
Schistosoma mansoni occurs in which species?
Humans
580
Schistosoma mansoni will cause?
Bladder schistosomiasis
581
Schistosoma haematobium occurs in which species?
Human
582
Schistosoma haematobium will cause?
Urinary or bladder schistosomiasis
583
How big are the eggs of Schistosomiasis?
130-280 mm
584
How is the shape of the Schistosomiasis?
Spindle-shaped or spiny
585
What does the eggs of the Schistosomiais contain?
Miracidium when passed out in faeces or urine
586
What are characteristics about the eggs of Schistosomiasis?
They are covered in microbarbs, which cling to vascular endothelium
587
During acute infection of Schistosomiasis what does cercariae do?
Penetrate skin and causes rash (schistosome or swimmer’s itch)
588
Eggs of Schistosomiasis, which is laid in target organs, release antigens and will
cause?
Katayama fever
589
How can you treat Schistosomiasis?
Praziquantel
590
Alariosis is not very common in?
Dogs and cats, but prevalence in wild carnivores
591
How big is the Alaria alata?
2-6 mm
592
How many intermediate hosts does the Alaria alata have?
2
593
What are the intermediate hosts of the Alaria alata?
Snails, Tadpoles
594
What are the paratenic hosts (mesocercaria) of Alaria alata?
Wild boar, pig, poultry, human (lung, eye)
595
How can you diagnose Alariosis?
Sedimentation, flotation, necroscopy
596
What is the colour of the Alaria alata?
Yellow
597
How can you treat Alariosis?
Praziquantel
598
How many suckers does the scolex of Moniezia expansa have? 1,2,3 or 4 ?
4
599
What is the intermediate host of Anoplocephala worms?
| A: Ant B: Box mite C: Hay mite D: Harvest mite
Box mite
600
What does the egg of Moniezia benedeni contain?
A: Zygote B: Blastomers
C: Five-hooked oncosphaera D: Six-hooked oncosphaera
Six-hooked oncosphera
601
Which animals are susceptible for Diphyllobothrium infection?
A: Bears B: Dogs C: Cats D: Cattle
Bears, dogs
602
What is the best way to detect flea tapeworm eggs in faeces?
| A: Flotation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Sedimentation
Flotation
603
What is the name of the cestode larva that can swim in water?
A: Procercoid B: Coracidium C: Plerocercoid D: Oncosphaera
Coracidium
604
The species of this genus can act as intermediate host for Diphilidium.
A: Ctenocephalides B: Linognathus C: Haemodipsus D: Trichodectes
Ctenocephalides
605
These tapeworms can occur in large intestine.
| A: Diphylidium B: Moniezia C: Diphyllobothrium D: Anoplocephala
Anoplocephala
606
What statement is true for a segment of a cestode?
A: It can produce eggs B: It has a digestive organ
C: It has 2 sets of hermaphroditic sexual organs D: It is hermaphroditic
It is hermaphroditic
607
How many suckers does the scolex of Diphyllobothrium worm have?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 1 D: 3Plerocercoid
2
608
What are the intermediate hosts of Diphylidium worms?
| A: Ants B: Fleas C: Copepods D: Hair lice
Fleas, hair lice
609
What is the best way to detect Moniezia eggs in faeces?
| A: Flotation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Sedimentation
Flotation
610
This larva always live in arthropods:
| A: Procercoid B: Coracidium C: Cysticercoid D: Oncosphaera
Cysticercoid
611
These animals can act as intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium:
A: Mites B: Fish C: Crustaceans D: Insects
Crustaceans
612
This organ never occurs in tapeworms.
| A: Oral sucker B: Rostellum C: Proglottis D: Cephalic cone
Cephalic cone
613
This organ never occurs in tapeworms.
| A: Oral sucker B: Rostellum C: Proglottis D: Acetabulum
Acetabulum
614
This stage is missing on the course of life cycle of Anoplocephala worms:
A: Gravide B: Cysticercoid C: Oncosphaera D: Plerocercoid
Plerocercoid
615
How many hooks does the scolex of Diphyllobothrium worms have?
A: 0 B: Many C: Few D: 1
0
616
What is the size of an egg coccon of flea tapeworms?
A: About 10 microns B: About 100 microns
C: About 2-3 mm D: About 500 microns
About 500 µm
617
What does the mature proglottids of a Moniezia benedeni worm contain?
A: One set of sexual organs B: Many testicles
C: Central genital opening D: Two sets of sexual organs
Two sets of sexual organs
618
Which tapeworm can infect humans?
| A: Diphyllobothrium B: Moniezia C: Anoplocephala D: Diphilidium
Diphyllobothrium and Diphilidium
619
What kind of worms produces eggs without oncosphaera?
| A: Diphyllobothrium B: Moniezia C: Anoplocephala D: Diphilidium
Diphyllobothrium
620
Which tapeworm produces eggs with angular shape?
| A: Diphyllobothrium B: Moniezia C: Anoplocephala D: Diphilidium
Monienzia, Anoplocephala
621
Even if they are infected with cestode larva, the following intermediate host are
not able to infect humans.
A: Fleas B: Copepods C: Box mites D: Fish
Copepods, Box mites
622
These tapeworms have armed rostellum.
| A: Diphylidium B: Moniezia C: Diphyllobothrium D: Anoplocephala
Diphylidium
623
What organ is missing from the body of an adult cestode?
| A: Copulatory organ B: Sucker C: Digestive tract D: Proglottid
Digestive tract
624
What is the most preferred site of Echinococcus multilocularis larva in sheep?
A: Liver B: Lung C: Intestine D: Skeletal muscle
Lung
625
The name of Taenia hydatigena larva is:
A: Cysticercus tenuicollis B: Cysticercus Longicollis
C: Cycticercus ovis D: Cycsticercus fasciolaris
Cysticercus tenuicollis
626
Where do the larvae of Taenia hydatigena worms develop?
| A: On the mesentery B: On the liver C: In the lung D: In muscles
On the liver
627
Which hosts are susceptible for the larval Taenia crassiceps infection?
A: Rodents B: Rabbit C: Hares D: Dogs
Rodents
628
This kind of Cysticercus occurs in skeletal muscles:
| A: C. longicollis B: C. ovis C: C. cellulosae D: C. cervi
B: C. ovis C: C. cellulosae D: C. cervi
629
What is the size of an Echinococcus worm?
A: Around 30-60 micrometers B: Around 3-6 centimeters
C: Around 0.5-1 decimeters D: Around 3-6 millimeters
D: Around 3-6 millimeters
630
Intermediate host for Taenia pisiformis:
| A: Sheep B: Hare C: Mouse D: Rabbit
Hare, rabbit
631
What do the fertile cysticerci of Taenia worms contain?
| A: One scolex B: Some scolices C: Many scolices D: Protoscolices only
One scolex
632
In case of accidental ingestion, these larvae can infect humans:
A: Cysticercus bovis B: Cysticercus ovis
C: Cysticercus cellulosae D: Echinococcus hydatidosus
A: Cysticercus bovis, C: Cysticercus cellulosae
633
This larvae has three layered wall:
| A: Cysticercus B: Coenurus C: Strobilocercus D: Hydatid cyst
D: Hydatid cyst
634
Echinococcus worms have:
| A: Rostellum B: Hooks C: Two genital openings D: Many segments
Rostellum, hooks
635
The name of Taenia taeniaformis larva is:
| A: Coenurus B: Strobilocercus C: Cysticercus D: Hydatid cyst
Strobilocercus
636
How many proglottids does the Echinococcus multilocularis worm have?
A: 3 B: 4 C: 5 D: Many
3
637
Which hosts are susceptible for the larva Echinococcus granulosus infection?
A: Mammals B: Warm blooded animals
C: Birds D: Ungulates only
Mammals
638
Larval stage of Taenia saginata is also called:
A: Cysticercus longicollis B: Cysticercus hydatidosus
C: Cysticercus cellulosae D: Cysticercus bovis
Cysticercus bovis
639
What is the size of a Taenia type of egg?
A: Around 30-40 micrometers B: Around 100 micrometers
C: Around 5-10 micrometers D: Around 200-300 micrometers
A: Around 30-40 micrometers
640
The species of this genus can act as intermediate host for Taenia saginata.
A: Bos B: Sus C: Mouse D: Cat
Bos
641
What do the fertile caverns of Echinococcus multilocularis contain?
A: Tissue fluid only B: Protoscolices and gelatinous mass
C: Scolices and gelatinous mass D: Protoscolices only
Protoscolices and gelatinous mass
642
Adult Taenia saginata worms have:
A: Scolex B: Hooks
C: Rostellum D: 2 sets of genital organs in each segment
Scolex
643
Larva of this Taenia lives in subcutaneous and intermuscular connective tissue:
A: T. saginata B: T. serialis C: T. multiceps D: T. taeniaformis
T. serialis
644
Larval stage of Taenia worms never include:
| A: Coracidium B: Cysticercus C: Cysticercoid D: Coenurus
A : Coracidium, C : Cysticercoid
645
What are the intermediate hosts of Taenia saginata?
A: Many ruminant species B: Cattle
C: Swine D: Sheep
Cattle
646
What does the egg of Echinococcus multilocularis contain?
A: Zygote B: Blastomers
C: Five-hooked oncosphaera D: Six-hooked oncosphaera
Six hooked oncosphera
647
This animal can carry larval Taenia taeniaeformis infection:
| A: Mouse B: Rat C: Cat D: Cattle
Mouse, rat
648
What is the adequate way to detect Taenia type of eggs in faeces?
A: Flotation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Sedimentation
Flotation
649
What is the name of cestode larva that develops in the central nervous system?
A: Coenurus B: Cysticercus C: Plerocercoid D: Hydatid cyst
Coenurus
650
This species of this genus can act as intermediate host for Taenia solium.
A: Bos B: Sus C: Mus D: Homo
Sus
651
What does the sterile hydatid cyst contain?
A: Tissue fluid only B: Protoscolices and tissue fluid
C: Scolices and tissue fluid D: Protoscolices only
Tissue fluid only
652
Where can we find genital opening on the mature segment of Taenia species?
A: In the middle B: On both sides
C: No openings on the mature segment D: On one side
On one side
653
Tapeworm detected by the naked eye:
All of them
654
How do you diagnose metacestodes?
Necropsy
655
Cestode larvae in immature stage is called?
Cysticercus
656
How do we differentiate the eggs of Echinococcus granulosa and Taenia
multiceps?
Cannot differentiate
657
What is the Coracidium?
Ciliated oncosphere larvae
658
If you detect Taenia type eggs in a faecal sample of a dog, it could be infected
with:
Taenia multiceps, Dipylidium caninum, Echinococcus granulosus
659
How do you detect Cysticercus bovis?
Necropsy and meat inspection
660
The eggs of these parasites cannot be detected:
E. alveolaris, C. pisiformis, C. cellulose (metacestodes)
661
What kind of tapeworms is in the bile ducts of sheep?
None. They are in the intestine.
662
Symptoms by Moniezia can be seen:
Under 6 months old
663
What is the shape of Moniezia benedeni eggs?
Quadrangular
664
How do we recognise eggs of M. expansa?
Triangular shape
665
What is the most effective drug against Echinococcus?
Praziquantel
666
What is the metacestode form of E. granulosa?
E. hydatidosus
667
What is the metacestode form of E. multilocularis?
E. alveolaris
668
How many times do the nematodes moult during their ontogenic development?
4
669
What is the most important host of Haemonchus contortus?
Sheep
670
What is the rate of mortality in case of type II ostertagiosis?
High
671
Which of the trichostrongylid worms have the largest eggs?
Nematodirus
672
What is the best way to detect eggs of trichostrongylids in faeces?
Flotation
673
What is the name of the expanded chitinous mouthpart of the nematodes?
Buccal capsule
674
What genera of worms can cause villous atrophy and erosion in the jejunum?
A: Haemonchys B: Cooperia C: Nematodirus D:Trichostrongylus
B: Cooperia C: Nematodirus D:Trichostrongylus
675
What is the method to separate the different trichostrongylid worms in faecal
sample?
A: Flotation of eggs B: Sedimentation of eggs
C: Faecal egg count D: Faecal culture of larvae
Faecal culture of larvae
676
Eggs of the gastrointestinal worms are:
| A: Spherical B: Thin-shelled C: Contains zygote D: Thick-shelled
Thin-shelled
677
Which worms can cause haemorrhagic gastritis amount the following ones?
Haemonchus
678
What term is correct for the nematodes?
A: They are usually hermaphroditic B: Sexes usually are separated
C: They are covered by cutile D: They have syncytial epithel
B: Sexes usually are separated
C: They are covered by cutile
679
What species can be found in abomasum of cattle?
A: Cooperia curticei B: Nematodirus helvetianus
C: Ostertagia ostertagi D: Nematodirus battus
Ostertagia ostertagi
680
What kind of morphologic character does not fit for Haemonchus contortus?
A: Red-white mottled body B: Prominent cervical papillae on head
C: Smaller than 1 cm D: Buccal lancet in the mouth
Smaller than 1 cm
681
What worms can cause submandibular oedema within the group of
trichostrongylids?
A: Cooperia B: Haemonchus C: Trichostrongylus D: Nematodirus
Haemonchus
682
Where does the third molt of trichostrongylid larvae take place?
A: On pasture B: In lumen of gut C: In mucosa D: In blood
In mucosa
683
What organ can be the part of the body of nematodes?
| A: Spiculum B: Bursa copulatrix C: Uterus D: Acetabulum
Spiculum
684
Which worms can produce umbilicated nodules on the surface of mucosa?
A: Ostertagia B: Cooperia C: Haemonchus D: Nematodirus
Ostertagia
685
What type of diarrhoea can be observed during the winter form of ostertagiosis?
A: Intermittent B: Persistent C: Watery D: Profuse
Intermittent
686
What is a correct term that characterizes the Hyostrongylus worms?
A: 5 cm B: Reddish body
C: Small cephalic vesicle D: Bisexual
Reddish body, small cephalic vesicle
687
How long is the praepatent period of the gastrointestinal worms usually?
A: 1 week B: 3 weeks C: At least 1 month D: 3 months
3 weeks
688
How many larval stages do nematodes have on the course of their ontogeny?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 5 D: 3
4
689
What species can be found in jejunum of sheep?
A: Cooperia curticei B: Nematodirus helvetianus
C: Ostertagia ostertagi D: Namatodirus battus
A: Cooperia curticei, D: Namatodirus battus
690
What morphological character does not fit for Nematodirus worms?
A: Red-white mottled body B: Coiled posture
C: Very long spicules D: Striated cephalic vesicle
A: Red-white mottled body B: Coiled posture
691
These worms live in the stomach:
| A: Cooperia B: Haemonchus C: Hyostrongylus D: Nematodirus
Haemonchus
692
Where does the first molt of trichostrongylid larvae take place?
A: On pasture B: In lumen of gut C: In gastric gland D: In blood
On pasture
693
What can be the name of larvae of gastrointestinal worms after second molt?
A: Infective larvae B: Pre-infective larvae C: Hypobiotic larvae D: Third larvae
A: Infective larvae, D. third larvae
694
Which worms can produce diphtheritic gastritis?
| A: Ostertagia B: Cooperia C: Hyostrongylus D: Nematodirus
Hyostrongylus
695
What is the rate of morbidity in case of type 1 (summer form) of ostertagiosis?
A: High B: Low C: Does not occur D: Middle
High
696
Where do the eggs of trichostrongylids hatch?
| A: In the faeces B: On pasture C: In the gut D: In the mucosa
On pasture
697
Hypobiotic period of larvae is always…,than normal praepatent period.
A: More variable B: Longer C: As long as D: Shorter
Longer
698
Which adult worm is the smallest?
Hyostrongylus rubidus
699
What is the cell stage of Hyostrongylus egg in vomitus?
4-8 cells stage
700
What is the infective stage of Hyostrongylus rubidus?
L3 infective larvae
701
What is the Latin name of gizzard worm?
Amidostomum anseris
702
Which adult worm is the largest (max. size)?
Amidostomum anseris
703
Gizzard worms effect:
Goslings, ducklings, young aquatic fowls
704
Ascarid roundworms in general are…
A: Spindle shaped B: With two lips on mouth
C: Pinkish bodies D: With large buccal capsule
Spindle shaped
705
Parascaris worms may cause…
| A: Peritonitis B: Diarrhoea C: Coughing D: Ulcers
A: Peritonitis B: Diarrhoea C: Coughing
706
What is the shape of the eggs of Parascaris worms?
| A: Oval B: Elliptic C: Spherical D: Elongated
Spherical
707
Which of the roundworms have eggs with not elongated, but ovoid shape?
A: Ascaris B: Parascaris C: Toxocara D: Ascaridia
Ascaris
708
What is the best way to detect the eggs of Toxocara vitulorum?
A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation
Flotation
709
Ascarid roundworms always produce…
| A: Thick shelled eggs B: Oval eggs C: Thin shelled eggs D: Butyric acid
Thick shelled eggs
710
typical autopsy/necroscopy finding on the course of acariosis is…
A: Hyperaemia B: Acetone-like odour
C: Cloudy, whitish spots on the liver D: Pneumonia
C: Cloudy, whitish spots on the liver D: Pneumonia
711
The eggs of Toxocara canis are…
| A: Subglobular B: Brown shelled C: Colourless D: Thick walled
A: Subglobular B: Brown shelled D: Thick walled
712
The type of the life cycle for Toxocara cati can be…
| A: Acaroid B: Toxocaroid C: Ascaridioid D: Parascaroid
A: Acaroid B: Toxocaroid
713
Which roundworms occur in very young aged final hosts only, but not in adults?
A: Acaris B: Parascaris C: Toxocara vitulorum D: Ascaridia
Toxocara vitulorum
714
Ascarid roundworms in general have…
A: Three lips on the mouth B: Two lips on the mouth
C: Pinkish body D: Buccal capsule
Three lips on the mouth
715
Ascaris worms may cause…
| A: Enteritis B: Dyspnea C: Coughing D: Obstipation
A: Enteritis B: Dyspnea C: Coughing
716
What is the shape of the eggs of Ascaridia worms?
| A: Broad oval B: Asymmetrical C: Spherical D: Elongated
Elongated
717
Which of the roundworms have eggs with three-layered shell?
| A: All of them B: Parascaris only C: Ascaris only D: Ascaridia only
All of them
718
What is the best way to detect the eggs of Parascaris equi?
| A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation
Flotation
719
Ascarid roundworms always…
A: Produce zygote containing eggs B: Are hermaphroditic
C: Produce thin shelled eggs D: Have large bursa copulatrix
A: Produce zygote containing eggs
720
A typical necroscopy finding on the course of toxocariosis of young animals is…
A: Enteritis B: Acetone-like odour
C: Whitish spots on the liver D: Haemorrhages in the lungs
A: Enteritis D: Haemorrhages in the lungs
721
The eggs of Toxascaris leonina are…
| A: Subspherical B: Brown shelled C: Colourless D: Thin walled
Subspherical, colourless
722
The type of the life cycle for Toxocara canis can be…
| A: Ascaroid B: Toxocaraoid C: Ascaridioid D: Parascaroid
A: Ascaroid B: Toxocaraoid
723
A dog can be infected with…
| A: Ascaris B: Parascaris C: Toxocara D: Toxascaris
Toxocara Tocascaris
724
Ascarid roundworms in general…
A: Have three lips on the mouth B: Have no lips
C: Have separate sexes D: Have buccal capsule
A: Have three lips on the mouth C: Have separate sexes
725
What is the surface of the eggs of Toxoscaris worms like?
| A: Pitted B: Smooth C: Mamillated D: Rough
Smooth
726
What host is susceptible for Ascaridia galli?
| A: Duck B: Chicken C: Guinea fowl D: Pigeon
Duck, chicken, guinea fowl
727
What is the best way to detect eggs of Toxocara canis?
| A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation
Flotation
728
Ascarid roundworms in general…
A: Produce morulated eggs B: Have three forms of life cycle
C: Produce thin shelled eggs D: Have large buccal capsule
Have three forms of life cycle
729
Signs on the course of Toxocara vitulorum infection…
A: Enteritis B: Acetone-like odour
C: Whitish spots on the liver D: Abdominal pain
A: Enteritis B: Acetone-like odour D : abdominal pain
730
The eggs of Ascaris suum have…
A: Three layers of wall B: A zygote inside when they are fresh
C: Mamillated surface D: Smooth surface
A: Three layers of wall B: A zygote inside when they are fresh
C: Mamillated surface
731
This worm can settle in histotrop phase in the mucosa of the intestine:
A: Ascaridia B: Toxascaris C: Ascaris D: Toxocara
A: Ascaridia B: Toxascaris
732
A cat can be infected with…
| A: Ascaridia B: Parascaris C: Toxocara D: Toxascaris
C: Toxocara D: Toxascaris
733
The size of Ascaridia eggs is…
A: 90 μm B: 100 μm
C: Less than 80 μm D: More than 100 μm
90 µm
734
Based on the morphology of the eggs you can recognise these roundworm
species?
A: T. leonina B: T. canis
C: T. cati D: T. canis and T. cati
T. leonina
735
PE-2 of Parascaris equorum is…
| A: Toxocaroid B: Ascaroid C: Indirect D: Ascaridioid
Ascaroid
736
Toxocara canis adult is about … long?
| A: 6-10 cm B: 10-18 cm C: 20-40 cm D: 3-5 cm
10-18 cm
737
Somatic migration of larva is related to this kind of PE-2.
| A: Direct B: Ascaroid C: Ascaridioid D: Other
Other
738
The odour of meat can be aceton-like in…
| A: Calf B: Horse C: Pig D: Cow
Calf
739
The surface of egg is smooth of this species…
| A: T. canis B: T. mystax C: T. leonina D: A + B
T. leonina
740
You can detect Toxocara vitulorum eggs from these cattle.
| A: <4 months old B: 5-4 months old C: >6 months old D: B + C
<4 months old
741
Turkeys can be infected with…
| A: Ascaridia galli B: A. columbae C: A. dissimilis D: A + C
D : A + C
742
What is the size of Ascaris suum
50-70 µm
743
PE-2 of Toxocara vitulorum is…
| A: Toxocaroid
Toxocaroid
744
The female roundworm is…
| A: Oviparous B: Ovoviviparous C: Larviparous D: B + C
Oviparous
745
PE-2 of this/these species is not toxocaroid type?
Toxascaris leonina (also Ascaridia galli)
746
How many ways of infection are there in roundworms of dogs?
4 (prenatal, galactogenically, via paratenic host and per os)
747
What is the name of the roundworm species, which is PE-2 is ascaridioid type?
T. leonina, A. galli
748
How are cats infected with roundworm?
Per os, paratenic host and galactogenically
749
Toxocara Vitolorum cannot infect?
Horse, dog and cat
750
What is the difference between the infection of cat and dog with roundworms?
Cat has no prenatal route
751
What kind of methods are used for detecting roundworm eggs of piglets?
None
752
What is the PE-2 of Parascaris equorum?
Ascaroid type migration (entero-hepato-pulmonary migration)
753
What kind of eggs can be mixed with the eggs of A. Galli?
Heterakis gallinarum
754
How can the birds become infected with roundworms?
Two ways: infection by larvated eggs or by eating paratenic host
755
How many eggs of roundworms can be found in the feces of heifers?
No eggs in heifers as we never detect the eggs in adults
756
Which method of transmission results in patency in a T. vitulorum infection?
```
Galactogenic infection (per os there is no eggs in the feces as the larvae hatch and migrate
elsewhere in the body)
```
757
How big is the egg of Parascaris equorum?
90-100 μm
758
What is the shape of the eggs of Parascaris equorum?
Spherical
759
What is the color of the egg of Parascaris equorum?
Yellowish brown
760
Roundworm that does not cause liver or lung lesions?
Ascaridia galli
761
Which eggs have similar maximal size to Troches vulpis egg?
Toxocara canis
762
Which roundworm species can also be found in lions?
T. leonina
763
Symptoms of hookworm infection are the following ones:
A: Erythema B: Obstipation
C: Hyperkeratosis D: Bloody feces
Erythema, bloody faeces
764
Freshly laid eggs of Bunostomum have…
| A: Thick wall B: Blastomers C: Larva D: Zygote
Blastomers
765
Strongyloides worms can live in the…
| A: Ileum B: Abomasum C: Caecum D: Jejunum
Jejunum
766
Adult Strongylus vulgaris worm has…
A: A buccal capsule B: 4 tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: A long tail D: 32 gut cells of the intestine
A buccal capsule
767
Strongylidosis can be caused by worms in genus of…
| A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus
B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus
768
Strongylus equinus larvae develop in…
A: Subserosa B: Submucosa
C: Wall of arteriae D: Membrane of peritoneum
Subserosa
769
Symptoms of disease, which is caused by dwarf worms, can be the following
ones:
A: Hyperaemia B: Oedema C: Anaemia D: Exsiccosis
Anaemia, Exsiccosis
770
The eggs of Strongyloides in feces are…
| A: Thick shelled B: Always larvated C: Always morulated D: Thin shelled
B: Always larvated, D: Thin shelled
771
Certain species of these genera can infect the definitive host percutaneous:
A: Bunostomum B: Strongylus C: Strongyloides D: Cyathostomum
Bunostomum, Strongyloides
772
Ancylostomes can cause haemorrhages in the…
| A: Colon B: Duodenum C: Jejunum D: Ileum
Duodenum, Jejunum
773
Symptoms of hookworm infection are the following ones:
A: Diarrhoea B: Renal failure
C: Icterus D: Circulatory collapse
Diarrhoea, Circulatory collapse
774
Strongyloides worms can live in the…
| A: Ileum B: Abomasum C: Duodenum D: Caecum
Duodenum
775
Strongylosis can be caused by worms in genus of…
| A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus
Strongylus
776
Strongylus edentatus larvae develop in…
A: Subserosa of the gut B: Submucosa of the caecum
C: Wall of vena portae D: Liver
C: Wall of vena portae D: Liver
777
Symptoms of disease, which is caused by small strongyles can be the following
ones:
A: Hyperaemia B: Oedema C: Colic D: Bloody feces
Colic
778
The freshly laid eggs of Ancylostoma caninum…
A: Are thick shelled B: Contain larvae
C: Contain some blastomers D: Are thin shelled
C: Contain some blastomers D: Are thin shelled
779
Certain species of these genera can infect the definitive host percutaneous:
A: Uncinaria B: Strongylus C: Strongyloides D: Cylicocyclus
Uncinaria, Strongyloides
780
Uncinaria can cause hemorrhages in the…
| A: Stomach B: Duodenum C: Jejunum D: Ileum
Duodenum Jejunum
781
We can detect this type of infection by fecal inspection:
A: Strongylidosis B: Strongylosis
C: Acute cyathostomosis D: Strongyloidosis
Strongylidosis, Strongyloidosis
782
Larvae of strongyles can be identified usually…
A: Inside the eggs B: Obtained from fecal culture
C: Obtained from fresh feces D: Obtained from mucosa
Obtained from fecal culture
783
Male Strongyloides worms live…
| A: Outside of host B: In duodenum C: In ileum D: In jejunum
Outside from host
784
Adult Strongylus edentatus worm has…
A: Two speculums B: 2 tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: A long tail D: 20 gut cells of the intestine
Two speculums
785
These worms live in the small intestine…
| A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Bunostomum D: Uncinaria
A: Strongyloides C: Bunostomum D: Uncinaria
786
Strongylus equinus larva has … gut cells.
| A: 16 B: 32 C: 20 D: 8
16
787
Strongyloides westeri live in…
| A: Pigs B: Rabbits C: Horses D: Dogs
Horses
788
These worms can live as adults outside the host:
| A: Strongylus B: Strongyloides C: Bunostomum D: Ancylostoma
Strongyloides
789
Species of these groups of worms can cause respiratory signs:
A: Hookworms B: Large Strongyles C: Small Strongyles D: Dwarf worms
Hookworms, dwarf worms
790
These worms can cause clinical symptoms in young animals only:
A: Strongylus B: Strongyloides C: Ancylostoma D: Cyathostomes
Strongyloides
791
Symptoms of hookworm infection are the following ones:
| A: Hyperaemia B: Obstipation C: Hyperkeratosis D: Bloody Feces
Bloody faeces
792
Strongylidosis cannot be caused by worms in genera of:
| A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus
Strongyloides
793
The freshly laid eggs of Ancylostoma caninum are…
A: Thick shelled B: Always larvated
C: Always morulated D: Thin shelled
Always morulated, thin shelled
794
Which species cannot infect dog?
| A: A. caninum B: A. tubaeforme C: A. braziliense D: U. stenocephala
B: A. tubaeforme
795
There are 2 tooth-like projections in the buccal capsule. This is?
A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. edentatus D: S. equinus
S. vulgaris
796
What is the size of the eggs of the Dwarf worms?
| A: 20-30 μm
D : 40-50µm
797
The larva of this species occurs in the liver.
| A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. edentatus D: S. westeri
S. edentatus
798
You can find 8 gut cells in the L3 strongyle. This is
| A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. equinus D: S. edentatus
Small strongyles
799
The host of Bunostomosis trigonocephalum is…
| A: Horse B: Pig C: Cattle D: Other
Other
800
What is the size of the strongyle type egg of horses?
| A: 20-30 μm B: 70-80 μm C: 90-100 μm D: 40-50 μm
70-80 µm
801
What is the size of Strongyloides spp.?
| A: 2-8 mm B: 5-10 cm C: 20-30 cm D: Other
2-8 mm
802
You cannot find tooth-like projections in the buccal capsule. This is?
A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. edentatus D: S. equinus
S. edentatus
803
Which is the longest strongyle L3?
| A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. equinus D: S. edentatus
S. vulgaris
804
During necropsy where can we find hookworms in the dog and cat?
Small intestine
805
Where and how do we recognise a hookworm?
Small intestine, big buccal capsule with teeth like projections
806
How does hookworms cause host damage?
They are blood feeders, and they change location causing blood loss, clotted/unclotted blood in
the feces
807
How are puppies infected with hookworms?
Per os, percutan, galactogenic infection, prenatal and by paratenic host
808
What is the difference between the infection of cat and dog with hookworms?
Cat has no prenatal route
809
What can you detect in the fecal samples of the 2 day old piglets infected with
Strongyloides ransomi?
Nothing (PP is 3 days)
810
During the necropsy, where can you find the adults of the Strongyloides?
Duodenum
811
How can horses become infected with Dwarf worms?
Colostral and lactogenic infection
812
Which animals can become infected with Dwarf worms?
Eq, Sus, Ru and Car
813
The size of Heterakis eggs is…
A: 50-60 micrometer B: 5-80 millimeter
C: 65-80 micrometer D: 90 micrometer
65-80 µm
814
Oesophagostomum worms have…
A: Cephalic vesicle B: Speculums
C: Large buccal capsule D: Suckers
A: Cephalic vesicle B: Speculums
815
The length of female common pinworm is…
| A: 1-2 cm B: 1-2 mm C: 4-15 cm D: 4-15 mm
C : 4-15 cm
816
Adult whipworm has…
A: A buccal capsule B: Tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: Tapered anterior part D: Broad posterior part
C: Tapered anterior part D: Broad posterior part
817
Whipworms can cause…
| A: Typhlitis B: Itching C: Anaemia D: Obstipation
Typhlitis, anaemia
818
The size of Ascaridia eggs is…
| A: 90 μm B: 100 μm C: Less than 80 μm D: More than 100 μm
90 µm
819
Noduluar worms live in…
| A: Jejunum B: Caecum C: Abomasum D: Colon
Caecum
820
The body of female common pinworm is…
A: Grey-white B: Pinkish
C: Equipped with short tail D: Brown
Grey-white
821
How long are the whipworms?
| A: 2-3 cm B: 2-8 mm C: 10-15 mm D: 3-8 cm
3-8 cm
822
Eggs of these worms have polar plugs:
| A: Oesophagostomum B: Oxyuris C: Capillaria D: Trichuris
Capilaria, Trichuris
823
The surface of the Heterakis eggs is…
| A: Sticky B: Smooth C: Mamillated D: Pitted
Smooth
824
Oesoophagosomum worms have…
A: Cephalic denticles B: One ovary
C: Shallow buccal capsule D: Large buccal capsule
Shallow buccal capsule
825
Eggs of common pinworm are…
| A: Colourless B: Thin shelled C: Yellow D: Symmetrical
Yellow
826
How many species of whipworms live in domestic ruminants?
| A: 4 B: Many C: 1 D: 5
4
827
Whipworms can cause…
| A: Gastritis B: Ithcing C: Colitis D: Ulcers
Colitis, ulcers
828
Surface of Ascaridia eggs is…
| A: Sticky B: Smooth C: Mamillated D: Pitted
Smooth
829
Adult nodular worms live in…
| A: Jejunum B: Wall of intestine C: Abomasum D: Colon
Colon
830
Eggs of common pinworm are…
A: Flattened on one side B: Thick shelled
C: White D: Larvated
A: Flattened on one side B: Thick shelled
831
The freshly laid eggs of these worms contain morula or blastomers:
A: Pinworms B: Nodular worms C: Trichuris D: Capillaria
A: Pinworms B: Nodular worms
832
The size of eggs of whipworms is:
| A: 40-80 μm B: 20-40 μm C: 10-20 μm D: 80-100 μm
A: 40-80 μm
833
The length of Heterakis worms is…
| A: About 2-3 cm B: About 1 cm C: 0.3-0.6 cm D: 5 cm
About 1 cm
834
Oesophagostomum venulosum lives in…
| A: Cattle B: Buffalo C: Pig D: Goat
Goat
835
Eggs of common pinworm are…
| A: Spherical B: Operculated C: White D: Asymmetrical
Operculated, asymmetrical
836
We inspect the presence of pinworms by…
A: Adhesive tape B: Flotation of eggs
C: Sedimentation of the eggs D: Fecal culture
Adhesive tape
837
These worms have thin-shelled eggs:
A: Oesophagostomum B: Trichuris
C: Capillaria D: Oxyuris
A: Oesophagostomum
838
Heterakis dispar infects…
| A: Duck B: Pigeon C: Goose D: Turkey
Duck, goose
839
Oesophagostomum columbianum lives in…
| A: Cattle B: Sheep C: Pig D: Buffalo
Sheep
840
Eggs of common pinworms are frequently found…
| A: In feces B: On the ground C: Around the anus D: In the dung
Around the anus
841
Species of these groups of worms can cause hemorrhagic enteritis:
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms
C: Heterakis worms D: Whipworms
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms D: Whipworms
842
These worms can infect pigs:
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms
C: Whipworms D: Gastrointestinal worms
A: Nodular worms
C: Whipworms D: Gastrointestinal worms
843
Eggs of these worms have polar plugs:
| A: Oesophagostomum B: Oxyuris C: Ascaridia D: Trichuris
Trichuris
844
Which species can occur in ducks?
| A: H. dispar B: H. isolonche C: H. gallinarum D: A + B
H. dispar
845
Which species can be found in the ileum?
| A: Oe. dentatum B: Oe. radiatum C: Oe. venulosum D: Oe. columbianum
Oe. radiatum
846
What can you find in the eggs of O. equi?
| A: Zygote B: L1 C: L2 D: Morula
Morula
847
What kind of infection cannot be diagnosed with flotation method?
A: Heterakiosis B: Oesophagostomosis C: Oxyuriasis D: Trichuriosis
Oxyuriasis
848
What is the size of Trichuris vulpis?
| A: 0.1-1.0 cm B: 1.0-2.5 cm C: 3.0-8.0 cm D: >10 cm
3-8 cm
849
Which species can occur in rabbit?
| A: T. vulpis B: T. leporis C: T. discolor D: T. globulosa
T. leporis
850
What is the size of Oxyuris equi male?
| A: 0.1-1.0 cm B: 1.0-2.0 cm C: 3.0-8.0 cm D: 4.0-15.0 c
1-2 cm
851
The eggs of H. gallinarum are very similar to…?
| A: Nematodirus B: Teladorsagia C: Ascaridia D: Trichuris
Ascaridia
852
T. discolor can infect?
| A: Hare B: Sheep C: Fox D: Cat
Sheep
853
You can find ”Lemon shaped” eggs. These are the eggs of…
| A: Oesophagostomum B: Trichuris C: Heterakis D: Oxyuris
Trichuris
854
Which species can occur in geese?
| A: H. dispar B: H. isolonche C: H. gallinarum D: A + B
H. dispar
855
The eggs are 40x90 μm in size, oviod, yellow, slightly flattened on one side
(asymmeytical, thick shelled, seemingly operculated, in the stage of morula.
This is?
A: Oe. dentatum B: T. vulpis C: O. equi D: H. gallinarum
O. equi
856
The eggs of Oe. dentatum are very similar to…?
| A: Nematodirus B: Teladorsagia C: H. rubidus D: Trichuris
H. rubidus
857
What kind of species cannot be infected with T. vulpis?
| A: Cat B: Hare C: Fox D: Dog
Hare
858
What is the size of the minute pinworm?
A: 0.1-0.3 cm (0.2-0.3 cm) B: 1.0-2.5 cm
C: 3.0-8.0 cm D: >10 cm
A: 0.1-0.3 cm (0.2-0.3 cm)
859
Which species cannot occur in ruminants?
| A: T. ovis B: T. leporis C: T. discolor D: T. globulosa
T. leporis
860
What is the size of Heterakis worms?
| A: 0.1-1.0 cm B: 0.7-1.5 cm D: 3.0-8.0 cm D: 4.0-15.0 cm
0.7 - 1.5 cm
861
What kind of method is used for detection O. equi infection?
| A: Flotation B: Sedimentation C: Bermann D: Other
Other
862
The eggs of Trichuris spp. are similar to the eggs of…
| A: Oxyuris B: Capillaria C: Heterakis D: Other
Capillaria
863
Which species can infect the wild boar?
| A: Oe. venulosum B: Oe. suis C: Oe. columbianum D: Other
Other
864
Names of nodular worm infections in Pigs?
Oe. dentatum and Oe. quadrispinulatum
865
How many Oesophagostomum species exist in the pig?
2
866
Passalurus ambiguus is what worm?
Pinworm of rabbits and hare
867
Crenosoma worms live in…
A: Pulmonary artery B: Trachea
C: Bronchi D: Lung Parenchyma
Trachea, bronchi
868
Metastrongylus salmi delivers…
A: 1st stage larvae B: Morulated egg
C: Eggs with larva D: Egg with zygote
Eggs with larva
869
Dictyocaulus arnfieldi lives in…
| A: Deer B: Horse C: Cattle D: Sheep
Horse
870
Syngamus worms are most infective for hosts, which are…
A: Younger than 2-3 months B: Older than 2-3 months
C: Younger than 2-3 weeks C: Older than 1 year
A: Younger than 2-3 months
871
Felids are susceptible to infection by these worms:
A: Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
C: Oslerus rostratus D: Dictycaulus cati
A: Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
C: Oslerus rostratus
872
These infections can be detected by flotation of eggs in fecal sample:
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Angiostrongylus
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria
873
Dichycaulus arnfieldi appears as… in fresh feces.
| A: Larva B: Larvated egg C: Egg with zygote D: Morulated egg
Larvated eggs
874
Paratenic host might be involved in the life cycle in these worms:
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Dictyocaulus
Capillaria
875
Their intermediate hosts are the earthworms:
| A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Dictyocaulus
Metastrongylus
876
Angiostrongylys worms live in…
A: Pulmonary arteries B: Ventricle of heart
C: Bronchi D: Lung parenchyma
A: Pulmonary arteries B: Ventricle of heart
877
The best way of detection of Oslerus infection is…
A: Radiography or CT B: Fecal examination of larvae
C: Endoscopy of trachea D: Fecal examination of eggs
Trachea endoscopy
878
Dictyocaulus eckerti lives in…
| A: Deer B: Horse C: Cattle D: Sheep
Deer
879
Syngamus worms occur mainly in…
| A: Chickens B: Geese C: Ducks D: Pheasants
Chickens, pheasants
880
Canids are susceptible to infection by these worms:
A: Crenosoma vulpis B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
C: Oslerus rostratus D: Dictyocaulus canis
A: Crenosoma vulpis B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
881
Oslerus osleri lives in…
| A: Pulmonary artery B: Trachea C: Bronchi D: Lung parenchyma
Trachea, bronchi
882
These infections cannot be detected by flotation of eggs in fecal sample:
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Angiostrongylus
Crenosoma, Angiostrongylus
883
Metastrongylus apri appears as… in fresh feces.
| A: Larva B: Larvated egg C: Egg with zygote D: Morulated egg
Larvated egg
884
Intermediate hosts are not required for the life cycle in these worms:
A: Metastrongylus pudendotectus B: Oslerus rostratus
C: Crenosoma vulpis D: Dictyocaulus filaria
D: Dictyocaulus filaria
885
Their intermediate hosts are snails:
| A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Dictyocaulus
Crenosoma
886
Metastrongylus worms live in…
| A: Pulmonary arteries B: Ventricle of heart C: Bronchi D: Lung parenchyma
Bronchi
887
A commercial serology test can be applied to detect this infection…
A: Aelurostrongylosis B: Dictyocaulosis
C: Angiostrongylosis D: Filaroidosis
A: Aelurostrongylosis
888
Dictyocaulus viviparous lives in…
| A: Deer B: Horse C: Cattle D: Sheep
Deer, cattle
889
Syngamus worm lay…
| A: Operculated egg B: L1 larva C: Egg with larva D: L2 larva
Operculated egg
890
Small ruminants are susceptible to infection by these worms:
A: Dictyocaulus viviparous B: Dictyocaulus filaria
C: Dictyocaulus eckerti D: Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
B: Dictyocaulus filaria
891
Their intermediate hosts are snails:
| A: Filaroides B: Capillaria C: Angiostrongylus D: Dictyocaulus
Angiostrongylus
892
Syngamus worms may occur in…
| A: Cat B: Geese C: Ducks D: Pheasants
Pheasants
893
These infections can be detected by flotation of eggs in fecal sample:
A: Metastrongylus B: Protostrongylids C: Crenosoma D: Angiostrongylus
Metastrongylus
894
Syngamus worms may occur in…
| A: Chickens B: Geese C: Ducks D: Humans
Chickens
895
Which cannot be the intermediate hosts of Syngamus trachea?
| A: Earthworm B: Snail C: Slug D: None of them
None of them
896
What kind of parasitosis can occur in horses?
| A: Metastrongylosis B: Dictyocaulosis C: Capillariosis D: A + C
Dictyocaulosis
897
Which develops directly?
| A: C. vulpis B: Ae. abstrusus C: A. vasorum D: C. aerophila
C. aerophila
898
What can you find in the fecal sample of a sheep infected with Dictyocaulus
filaria?
A: L1 B: L2 C: L3 D: Larvated egg
L1
899
What is the size of the French heartworm?
| A: 0.2-0.8 cm B: 1.4-2.5 cm C: 3.5-5.5 cm D: 20-30 cm
B: 1.4-2.5 cm
900
What can you find in the fecal sample of a dog infected with Oslerus rostratus?
A: Egg B: L1 C: L3 D: None of them
L1
901
The earthworms are the intermediate hosts of…
A: Metastrongylus spp. B: Capillaria aerophila
C: Syngamus trachea D: B + C
Metastrongylus spp.
902
What is the size of Syngamus trachea?
| A: 0.5-3.0 cm B: 1.4-2.5 cm C: 3.5-5.5 cm D: 20-30 cm
0.5-3 cm
903
You can find Capillaria aerophila in…
| A: Cattle B: Cat C: Sheep D: Horse
Cat
904
You can find barrel shaped eggs in the fecal sample of?
| A: Oslerosis B: Aelurostrongylus C: Crenosomosis D: Capillariosis
Capillariosis
905
How can you recognise Syngamus adults?
Y shaped, red females and white males in permanent copulation
906
How are birds infected with Syngamus?
L3 larvated eggs
907
What can we find in the faeces of pigs infected with lungworm?
Eggs containing L1
908
Life cycle of Protostrongylids?
Indirect
909
Lungworm of pigs?
M. salmi, M. pudendotectus and M. apri
910
Shape of Syngamus eggs?
Ellipsoidal
911
How can a dog become infected with Filaroides?
L1 in vomit, saliva or feces
912
Which diagnostic method can detect A. vasorum?
Larval isloation
913
Name of cat lungworm?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
914
Which lungworm has lemon shaped eggs?
Capillaria aerophila
915
How do we detect Crenosoma vulpis?
L1 in the feces
916
What is the correct route for ascaroid type roundworms:
A: Small intestine – trachea – lungs – pharynx – small intestine
B: Small intestine – liver – lungs – blood circulation
C: Small intestine – liver – lungs – trachea – small intestine
D: Small intestine – liver – lungs – trachea – pharynx – small intestine
D: Small intestine – liver – lungs – trachea – pharynx – small intestine
917
Zygote containing egg of F. hepatica develops into?
A: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 4 weeks
B: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 1 week
C: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 2 weeks
D: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 4 weeks
C: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 2 weeks
918
What is the intermediate host of the rumen flukes?
A: Galba truncatula for all species
B: Planorbids for all species
C: Galba truncatula for Calicophoron species and shells of planorbids act as
intermediate hosts for Paramphistomum species
None of them
C: Galba truncatula for Calicophoron species and shells of planorbids act as
intermediate hosts for Paramphistomum species
919
Where does the larva of the lancet fluke develops?
A: In the definite host
B: In the body cavity of the intermediate host to sporocyst
C: In body cavity of intermediate host to redia
D: Neither
B: In the body cavity of the intermediate host to sporocyst
920
Difference between rumen flukes and liver flukes. 'Rumen flukes...:
A: Never leave intestinal canal during their route from small intestine to the fore
stomach
B: Have cercariae and metacercariae stages
C: Body contains genitals
D: Have 1 intermediate host
A: Never leave intestinal canal during their route from small intestine to the fore
stomach
921
What is the size of the eggs of F. hepatica?
A: 150-180 μm B: 120-150 μm
C: 100-120 μm D: 130-160 μm
B: 120-150 μm
922
How long is the praepatent period of rumen flukes?
A: 16-18 weeks B: 10-12 weeks
C: 8-10 weeks D: 18-20 weeks
16-18 weeks
923
Juvenile form of rumen flukes is found in?
A: Jejuneum C: Duodenum
C: Rumen D: Reticulum
Duodenum
924
When is the miracidium able to hatch in the lancet flukes?
A: If ants consume egg B: Is water snail consumes egg
C: Without any consumption D: If a land snail consumes the egg
D: If a land snail consumes the egg
925
Where does juvenile lancet flukes develop into adults?
A: Liver, through portal vein B: Biliary duct only
C: Liver, through biliary ducts D: Neither
C: Liver, through biliary ducts
926
What is the second intermediate host of the lancet flukes?
| A: Ants B: Galba truncatula C: Planorbids D: All of them
Ants
927
How long do the infected ants of the lancet flukes survive for?
A: Maximum 1 month B: Over a year C: Maximum 1 year D: 1 day
C: Maximum 1 year
928
Which of the following can cause dermatitis in percutan infection?
A: Ancylostomosis B: Strongyloidosis C: Parascariosis D: Ascaridiosis
A: Ancylostomos
929
Eggs of Roundworms are … (choose correct answers)
| A: Elongated B: Thick-shelled C: Ovoid D: Thin-shelled
Thick-shelled, Ovoid
930
Which of the following are hosts of Strongloidosis westeri?
| A: Pig B: Fox C: Horse D: Donkey
Horse, Donkey
931
Which of the following is 0.5-2 cm in length?
| A: Strongylus vulgaris B: Strongylus equinus C: Strongylus edentatus D: Triodontophorus
Triodontophorus
932
What is the predilection site of adult Strongylidosis?
A: Muscle B: Stomach
C: Colon and duodenum D: Caecum and colon
Caecum and colon
933
Diagnosis by faecal exam is not possible in which of the following?
A: Strongylosis B: Strongylidosis C: Ascaridiosis D: Toxocarosis
Strongylosis
934
Adult Strongylus vulgaris worm has…
A: A buccal capsule B: 4 tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: A long tail D: 32 gut cells of the intestine
A buccal capsule
935
What are the size of the eggs of the Dwarf worms?
| A: 20-30 μm B: 70-80 μm C: 90-100 μm D: 40-50 μm
40-50 µm
936
What is characteristic of S. vulgaris?
| A: Slender, medium B: Slender, large C: Stumpy, short D: Stumpy, medium
Stumpy, short
937
Strongyles may cause which symptoms in case of disease?
| A: Oedema B: Colic C: Blood in faeces D: Alopecia
Colic
938
Eggs of common pinworm are:
| A: Symmetrical B: Colourless C: Thick shelled D: Yellow
Thick shelled, yellow
939
Heterakis dispar infects:
| A: Goose B: Turkey C: Duck D: Quail
Duck
940
These worms cannot infect swine:
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms
C: Whipworms D: All of them do not infect pigs
Pinworms
941
We inspect pinworms’ presence by:
| A: Flotation B: Sedimentation C: Adhesive tape D: Necropsy
Adhesive tape
942
The surface of Heterakis eggs is:
| A: Smooth B: Mamillated C: Sticky D: All of them
Smooth
943
Whipworms can cause…
| A: Itching B: Anaemia C: Obstipation D: Typhilitis
Anaemia, typhlitis
944
Which species can occur in rabbit?
| A: T. vulpis B: T. leporis C: T. globules D: All of them
T. leporis
945
Which species cannot occur in ruminants?
| A: T. leporis B: T. discolour C: T. globulosa D: T. ovis
T. leporis
946
What can you find in the eggs of O. equi?
| A: Zygote B: L1 C: L2 D: Morula
Morula
947
Has a golden yellow egg, with zygote in it:
| A: Liver fluke B: Rumen fluke C: Lancet fluke D: Tapeworm
Liver fluke
948
This species has 2 intermediate hosts:
| A: Paramphistomum B: D. dendriticum C: Calicophoron D: F hepatica
D. dendriticum
949
Dendriticum is commonly found in:
A: Small grazing ruminants B: Dog
C: Fish D: Ants
Small grazing ruminants
950
Galba truncata is the intermediate host for:
| A: Paramphistomum B: F hepatica C: Calcicophoron D: D. Dendriticum
Calicophoron
951
Planorbids is the intermediate host for:
| A: Paramphistomum B: F. hepatica C: Calcicophoron D: D. dendriticum
Calicophoron
952
Most susceptible, artificial host of F hepatica:
| A: Human B: Goat C: Cow D: Mouse
Mouse
953
Rediae are:
A: The third larval form in Fasciola B: Genitilia of trematodes
C: Radiating mouthparts in Fasciola D: Found in the body of snail
The third larval form in Fasciola
954
What is the latin name of the red stomach worm?
A: Hyostrongylus rubidus B: A. anseris
C: T. colubriformis D: Haemonchus contortus
Hyostrongylus rubidus
955
What is the cell stage of Hyostrongylus eggs in vomitus?
A: 8-16 cell stage B: 4-8 cell stage
C: 32 cell stage or morula stage D: 16-32 cell stage
4-8 cell stage
956
Which morphological character is true for Haemonchus contortus?
A: Looks like barber's pole B: Buccal lancet in the mouth
C: Haemorrhagic gastritis in necropsy D: Smaller than 1 cm
A: Looks like barber's pole B: Buccal lancet in the mouth
957
What is the barber's pole worm?
| A: Trichostrongylus B: Teledorsagia C: C. Nematodirus D: Haemonchus
Haemonchus
958
Which size is the eggs of A. anseris?
A: 130-260 micrometer B: 90-100 micrometer
C: 60-80 micrometer D: 40-50 micrometers
90-100 µm
959
Which worms can cause villanous atrophy and erosions in jejunum?
A: Cooperia B: Nematodirus C: Haemonchus D: Strongylus
A: Cooperia B: Nematodirus D: Strongylus
960
Which organ can be part of the body of nematodes?
| A: Uterus B. Acetabulum C: Bursa copulatrix D: Spiculum
A: Uterus C: Bursa copulatrix D: Spiculum
961
Which worms can produce umbilicated nodules on the surface of mucosae?
A: Cooperia B: Ostertagia C: Nematodirus D: Haemonchus
Ostertagia
962
Which is the Gizzard worm?
A: A. anseris B: H. contortus
C: H. rubidius D: Ostertagia ostertagi
A. anseris
963
Clinical signs of hyostrongylosis infection:
A: Catarrhal gastritis B: Asymptomatic
C: Submandibular oedema D: Haemorrhagic diarrhoea
Asymptomatic
964
Host of Bunostomum phlebotomum:
| A: Cattle B: Swine C: Sheep and goat D: Geese
Cattle
965
Characteristics of male nematodes:
A: Pair of testes B: Ejaculatory duct
C: Cloaca D: Copulatory bursa
B: Ejaculatory duct
C: Cloaca D: Copulatory bursa
966
Necropsy findings of Amidostomosis:
A: Inflammation of the cloaca B: Haemorrhages on mucosa of gizzard
C: Hyperemic small intestinal mucosa D: Horny lining of gizzard is loosened
B: Haemorrhages on mucosa of gizzard
D: Horny lining of gizzard is loosened
967
Predilection site of T. axei:
A: Abomasum of cattle B: Abomasum of sheep and goat
C: Small intestine of cattle D: Small intestine of sheep and goat
A: Abomasum of cattle B: Abomasum of sheep and goat
968
What i the shape of threadworms in general?
| A: Cylindrical B: Round C: Rectangular D: Flat
Cylindrical
969
Is the life cycle of threadworms:
| A: Indirect B: Direct C: Both D: None
Both
970
What species can the red stomach worm affect:
| A: Pig B: Wild boar C: Goat D: Cattle
A: Pig B: Wild boar
971
What species are host for Amidostomum anseris?
| A: Chickens B: Ducklings C: Goslings D: Rabbits
B: Ducklings C: Goslings
972
What is the predilection site of Qllulanus tricuspis?
| A: Small intestine B: Caecum C: Stomach D: Gizzard
Stomach
973
How long is the Haemonchus contortus?
| A: >1 cm B: 1-3 cm C: 0.3-3 cm D: 0.4-1 cm
1-3 cm
974
Where do the eggs of Haemonchus contortus hatch?
A: In the small intestines B: In the oesophagus
C: In the caecum D: In the environment
In the environment
975
What are the clinical signs for acute Haemonchosis?
A: Anaemia B: Submandibular oedema
C: Dermatitis D: Enteritis
A: Anaemia B: Submandibular oedema
976
Which threadworm causes chronic catarrhal croutons diphtheric gastritis?
A: Amidostomum anseris B: Haemonchus contortus
C: Hyostrongylus rubidus D: Teladorsagia circumcincta
C: Hyostrongylus rubidus
977
“Milk spots” can be found on the surface of the liver because of which
roundworm spp.?
A: Ascaridia columbae B: Parascaris equorum
C: Toxocara vitulorum D: Ascaris suum
D: Ascaris suum
978
Choose the incorrect answer:
A: Roundworms are spindle shaped B: Roundworms have a buccal capsule
C: Roundworm eggs are thick shelled D: Roundworms have three lips
B: Roundworms have a buccal capsule
979
What is bovine toxocarosis caused by?
A: Toxascaris leonina B: Toxocara bovis
C: Ascaris suum D: Toxocara vitulorum
D: Toxocara vitulorum
980
Which of the following is correct about roundworm eggs:
A: Thin-shelled B: Have 4 layers
C: Have one-cell stage D: They are round
C: Have one-cell stage
981
Which roundworms have a direct lifecycle:
| A: Parascaris equorum B: Toxocara vitulorum C: Ascaridia dissimilis D: All of them
All of them
982
How big are T. canis eggs?
| A: 75-90 μm B: 65-75 μm C: 70-85 μm D: 50-70 μm
A: 75-90 μm
983
Which species have ascaroid type PE-2?
A: Ascardia gallinae B: Ascaris suum
C: Toxocara canis D: Toxoascaris leonina
B: Ascaris suum
C: Toxocara canis
984
Which species have similar eggs to Heterakis eggs?
A: Parascaris equorum B: Ascaridia columbae
C: Toxocara cati D: Ascaris suum
B: Ascaridia columbae
985
Which species causes an acetone-like odour as a clinical sign?
A: Toxocara vitulorum B: Ascaris suum
C: Ascaridia dissimilis D: Torascaris leonina
A: Toxocara vitulorum
