Parasitology final Flashcards

1
Q

Which diagnostic methods are used to detect the presence of trypanosomes in
dried blood smears?

A

Giemsa staining

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2
Q

What is found in giardiasis?

A

(NOT Trypomastigotes Promastigotes Oocytes) Others

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3
Q

What is the main difference for detection of intestinal Trichomonas or Giardia
infection?

A

Giardia turn to cyst, Trichomonas not

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4
Q

What is an adequate method to detect Giardia cysts in the fresh feces?

A

Flotation

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5
Q

Which forms of Thrichomonas can be found in the outer environment?

A

Not any forms

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6
Q

Which is the non-cyclic Trypanosoma species among the next ones?

A

T. evansi

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7
Q

Which morphological form of the Leishmania can be found in the vertebrate?

A

Amastigote

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8
Q

What are the morphs of leishmanias that appear in macrophages?

A

Amastigotes

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9
Q

What species are susceptible for the disease of “mal de caderas”?

A

Horse and donkey

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10
Q

What is the Trypanosoma that infects host without vectors?

A

T. equiperdum

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11
Q

How many flagellums does a Giardia trophozite have?

A

8

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12
Q

Which method of staining can be applied to detect Histomonas in tissues?

A

PAS

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13
Q

Which has the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?

A

T. brucei brucei

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14
Q

What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?

A

Heart failure

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15
Q

Which species does the causative agent of dourine belong to?

A

T. equiperdum

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16
Q

Name of parasite found in closely related species.

A

Stenoxenous

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17
Q

Which has cutaneous and visceral forms?

A

Leishmaniosis

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18
Q

What is the animal obligatory for the completion of life cycle?

A

Definitive host

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19
Q

Parasite of cycle involves one species?

A

Monoxenous

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20
Q

Which does not cause nagana?

A

T. equiperdum

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21
Q

Which cysts can be found in the faeces of the animal?

A

Giardiasis

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22
Q

Which is monomorphic?

A

T. vivax

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23
Q

How do the clinical signs of Dourine follow each other?

A

Genital, skin, nerves

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24
Q

Which host is not needed to complete life cycle?

A

Paratenic host

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25
Q

Test used in dourine?

A

Complement fixation test

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26
Q

Which animal species have the general form of histomonosis?

A

Guinea fowl

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27
Q

What is the name of the Trichomoniasis species found in cattle?

A

Trichomonas fetus

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28
Q

Parasite can only be established in one host:

A

Stenoxenous

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29
Q

Can be detected in giardiasis?

A

Trophozoites

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30
Q

Which is not zoonotic?

A

Histomonosis

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31
Q

Flagellate form can be found in the caecal lumen?

A

Histomonosis

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32
Q

Who is pleomorphic?

A

T. brucei

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33
Q

In which faecal sample can you find cysts?

A

Giardiosis

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34
Q

What can you find in the blood smear of dourine?

A

Trypomastigotes

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35
Q

Which of these parasites can infect more than one host?

A

Euryxenous

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36
Q

Which species is found in old/new world America?

A

T. vivax

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37
Q

What is the vector of leishmaniosis?

A

Sandfly

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38
Q

What is the vector of nagana?

A

Tse-tse fly

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39
Q

What is the number of nuclei in infected cysts, of entamoebosis?

A

4

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40
Q

What can be detected in leishmaniasis?

A

Amastigotes

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41
Q

Which form of Histomonas is found in the caecum?

A

Flagellate

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42
Q

Which Trypanosoma needs a mechanical vector?

A

T. evansi

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43
Q

What species is primarily affected by Histomonas meleagridis?

A

Turkey

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44
Q

Which parasite species causes Black head?

A

Histomonas meleagridis

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45
Q

Which is the clinical form of leishmaniasis in dogs?

A

Cutaneous form

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46
Q

How do you detect leishmaniasis?

A

Smear with Giemsa staining. Detection of amastigotes

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47
Q

Which test can you use to detect Dourine?

A

Complement fixation test x2 with 3-week interval

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48
Q

Cellular organelle of leishmaniasis consists of?

A

Nucleus, kinetoplast, axoneme, or basal body

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49
Q

Which species is primarily affected by Histomonas meleagridis?

A

3-12 week old turkeys

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50
Q

Which parasites are pleomorphic?

A

T. brucei, Histomonas meleagridis

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51
Q

What can we detect in giardiasis?

A

Trophozoites (vegetative form) in the faecal smear

Cysts (infectious form) in faecal smear

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52
Q

Which cells carry leishmaniosis?

A

Macrophages

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53
Q

Which trypanosome is not involved in nagana?

A

T. cruzei, T. evansi

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54
Q

Which cellular organelle is present in Trypanosoma?

A

Kinetoplast

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55
Q

Which parasite release cysts into the faeces of animals?

A

Giardia duodenalis

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56
Q

What is the mechanical vector of nagana?

A

Stomoxys and Tabanus

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57
Q

Where does the merozoite develop?

A

Inside schizont

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58
Q

How many cells can be infected by a merozoite of Eimera?

A

1

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59
Q

How many gamonts can develop from one schizont?

A

Many

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60
Q

How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one schizont of
Eimera?

A

Many

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61
Q

How can we recognize chicken coccidia by species in the simplest way?

A

Based on necropsy findings

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62
Q

In order to identify the species of a sporulated oocyte, what of the following is
needed?

A

Size of oocyte

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63
Q

What does the unsporulated oocyst contain?

A

Zygote

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64
Q

What does the sporulated oocysts contain?

A

Sporocysts

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65
Q

Where does the sporozoite develop?

A

In the oocyst

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66
Q

Where does the sporogony of Eimera maxima take place?

A

In outer environment

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67
Q

Which animal species can be infected by Eimera acervulina?

A

Chickens

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68
Q

Where does the sporogony of Eimera acervulina take place?

A

In outer environment

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69
Q

Where do the Eimera acervulina gamonts develop?

A

Duodenum and jejunum

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70
Q

What can we observe on the surface of mucosa in case of E. necatrix infection?

A

Unclotted blood

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71
Q

Where does the sporogony of Eimera brunetti takes place?

A

In outer environment

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72
Q

Where do the Eimera brunetti schizonts develop?

A

Lower part of intestines

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73
Q

Where do the Eimera tenalla schizonts develop?

A

Caecum

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74
Q

Which symptom does not appear in case of renal coccidiosis?

A

Bloody faeces

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75
Q

Where is the E. truncata primarily located?

A

Renal tubules

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76
Q

Eimeria labbeanna occurs in?

A

Pigeon small intestines

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77
Q

What does the sporulated oocyst of coccidiosis contain?

A

4 sporocysts containing each 2 sporozoites

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78
Q

How many epithelial cells can become infected by 1 Eimeria oocyst at the
beginning of infection?

A

8 cells (4 sporocysts with 2 sporozoites each)

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79
Q

How many cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera oocyst?

A

8

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80
Q

How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera
sporocyst?

A

2

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81
Q

How many macrogametes can develop from one macrogamont?

A

1

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82
Q

The correct order in the life cycle of Eimera?

A

Sporongy (in environment), schizogeny (in intestinal cells), gametogony (in intestinal cells),
sporogony (of new oocysts in the enviroment)

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83
Q

Which species of Eimera are haemorrhagic?

A

E. tenella, E. necatrix and E. brunetti

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84
Q

Which species of Eimera are not haemorrhagic?

A

E. maxima, E. acervulina, E. mitis and E. praecox

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85
Q

Which 3 species are not characterized by blood in the intestines?

A

E. acervulina, E. mitis and E. praecox

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86
Q

Which method do you not use to identify the species in the chicken coccidosis?

A

McMaster method

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87
Q

Time lapse from infection of host to apperence of parasite sexual product in
faeces is called?

A

Praepatent period

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88
Q

During gametogony when the merozoites develop into the female gametocytes
they are called?

A

Macrogametocytes

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89
Q

Which animal species can be infected by Eimera maxima?

A

Chicken

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90
Q

What do you find on mucosa during an infection with E. maxima?

A

Petechiae (also on serosa)

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91
Q

Which statement is true:

A

E. maxima has a 30x20 μm oocyst that is characteristic

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92
Q

Size of oocyte can be used as identification for which of these species?

A

E. maxima or ”other” (oocysts of other species are not characteristic to identify species)

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93
Q

Which has slightly orange/salmon pink exudate in lumen?

A

E. maxima

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94
Q

Where does the schizogony of Eimera acervulina take place?

A

In epithel of duodenum and jejunum

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95
Q

Which one has discrete white foci or transverse bands which are ladder-like?

A

E. acervulina

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96
Q

Where do schizonts of Eimera necatrix develop?

A

In jejunum and ileum

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97
Q

Animals infected by E. brunetti?

A

Chickens

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98
Q

Which animal species can be infected by Eimera tenella?

A

Chickens

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99
Q

Where do schizonts of E. mitis develop?

A

In the jejunum

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100
Q

In the goose what species of Eimeria affects the kidneys?

A

E. truncata

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101
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of E. truncata?

A

Torticolis

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102
Q

Which is the most usual form of biliary coccidiosis in rabbit?

A

Symptomless

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103
Q

What organ is affected by bovine coccidiosis?

A

Large intestines

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104
Q

What size is the oocyst of Isospora suis?

A

20 µm

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105
Q

How can we increase the sensitivity of detection of I. suis oocyst in the microscope ?

A

With autofluorescence

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106
Q

Where are the pathologic lesions that occur in case of I. suis infection?

A

In caecum and ileum

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107
Q

What does the hepatic lesions contains in case of Eimeria infection?

A

Gamonts and oocysts

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108
Q

Which is the largest bw Neospora, Sarcocystis, Isospora burrowsi and Isospora felis ?

A

I. felis

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109
Q

What is the worst consequence of pig coccidiosis?

A

Dehydration

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110
Q

Diarrhoea caused by coccidiosis last for…in puppy.

A

1-2 weeks

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111
Q

Diarrhoea caused by coccidiosis last for…in kittens.

A

1-2 days

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112
Q

Which species can infect cats? (I. canis, E. stiedai, I. felis or E. canis)

A

I. canis

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113
Q

What symptom is not caused by I. felis (canis) in cat (dog)? (diarrhoea, anaemia, exsiccosis, myocarditis)

A

Myocarditis

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114
Q

What symptom is caused by E. stiedai in rabbit?

A

Cholangitis

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115
Q

What symptom is caused by I. suis in young pig?

A

Diarrhoea

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116
Q

Which species has the biggest oocyst in dogs?

A

I. canis

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117
Q

What age of cattle is the most susceptible for Eimeria infection?

A

2-5 months old

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118
Q

Which species affects the large intestines in rabbit?

A

E. flavescens

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119
Q

From what species do we not need to distinguish Isospora felis oocyst samples?

A

I. ohioensis

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120
Q

Which species has pinhead-sized nodules in the ileum?

A

E. magna

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121
Q

Who is infected by E. stiedai?

A

Rabbit

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122
Q

What does a sporulated oocyst of E. stiedai contain?

A

Sporocyst

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123
Q

What species of Eimeria can appear as a merozoite in the bloody faeces?

A

E. zuernii

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124
Q

What kind of extra-intestinal symptoms can occur during Eimeria infection in calves ?

A

CNS signs

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125
Q

In which species can you find E. intestinalis?

A

Rabbit

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126
Q

What can you find in fresh faeces?

A

Unsporulated oocysts

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127
Q

Coccidiosis infects pigs at what age?

A

8-15 days

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128
Q

What is affected in coccidiosis of carnivores?

A

Small intestines

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129
Q

What does the sporulated oocyst of E. stiedai contain?

A

4 sporocysts each containing 2 sporozoites

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130
Q

Which species of Eimeria can appear as merozoites in bloody faces?

A

E. zuernii of cattle

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131
Q

How many macrogametes develop from 1 micro-gamont?

A

21-30

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132
Q

How do you detect E. zuernii in the faeces?

A

Flotation test

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133
Q

Species of Eimeria found in the large intestine of the rabbit?

A

E. piriformis and E. flavescens

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134
Q

What is an unsporulated oocyst with regards to Eimeria?

A

Zygote

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135
Q

Which are the small intestine Eimeria species in the rabbit?

A

E. intestinalis, E. magna, E. irresidua

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136
Q

How do we detect an unsporulated Eimeria oocyst?

A

Flotation method

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137
Q

What do we see clinically when a rabbit has E. steidai?

A

Sub-clinical infection…

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138
Q

What form of oocysts can be found in the fresh faeces on the course of
E. stedai infection?

A

Unsporulated

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139
Q

Which animal can be infected by E. intestinalis?

A

Rabbit

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140
Q

What form of Eimeria zuernii might appear sometimes in mucous faeces of
calves?

A

Schizonts or merozoites

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141
Q

At what age are rabbits most susceptible for intestinal Eimeria infection?

A

1-2 months

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142
Q

Where does the sporogony of Eimeria zuernii take place?

A

In the environment

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143
Q

Where do calves usually get heavy infection with Coccidiosis?

A

In feed lots and yards

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144
Q

Which method is used for courting oocysts in the faces during an Eimeria
infection?

A

McMaster method

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145
Q

What is found in the faeces of animals infected by Eimeria?

A

Sporulated oocysts

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146
Q

What is unsporulated?

A

Zygote

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147
Q

What is the size of a Cryptosporidium oocyst?

A

5-8 µm

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148
Q

How can we characterize the host specificity of Cryptosporidia baileyi?

A

Euryxenous

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149
Q

What do the oocysts of Cryptosporidia contain?

A

4 sporozoites

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150
Q

What organ is never involved into C. baileyi infection of poultry?

A

Liver

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151
Q

Which organ is not involved during a C. Bailyei infection of Poultry?

A

Brain

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152
Q

How do we detect usually the oocysts of Cryptosporidia in faeces?

A

Flotation method

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153
Q

Which animal species can be infected by Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Many mammals and birds

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154
Q

How many sporocysts do the Toxoplasma oocysts have?

A

2

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155
Q

What kind of pathological signs can we see on the surface of placenta of
aborted foetus by consequence of Toxoplasma infection?

A

Necrotic spots

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156
Q

What method is not applicable to detect antibodies against Toxoplasma
infection?

A

PCR

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157
Q

Which species of host of Toxoplasma do not abort their foetus during infection?

A

Cat

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158
Q

What is the size of Toxoplasma cyst that contains tachyzoites?

A

20-100 µm

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159
Q

What is the sign that does not appear in the chronic form of Besnoitiosis of
cattle?

A

Itching

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160
Q

What type of Sarcocystis oocyst can be found in fresh faeces?

A

Sporulated

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161
Q

What type of Sarcocystis oocyst can be found in fresh faeces?

A

Sporulated form with two sporocysts

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162
Q

What is the usual consequence of Sarcocystis in final host animals?

A

No clinical signs

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163
Q

What can we usually detect in the faeces during Sarcocystiosis in definite host?

A

Sporocysts

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164
Q

What is the most frequent clinical form of Sarcocystiosis of the dog?

A

Subclinical

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165
Q

What animals are susceptible for Besnoitia besnoiti?

A

More spp. of ruminants

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166
Q

Which is the method used to detect Cryptosporidium?

A

Kinyoun staining

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167
Q

What method is not used to detect Toxoplasma tachyzoites during infection?

A

IFAT staining

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168
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 4 free sporozoites?

A

Cryptosporidium

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169
Q

Which genus has sporulated oocysts without sporocysts?

A

Cryptosporidium

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170
Q

What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidium meleagridis oocysts?

A

5 µm, spherical

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171
Q

Which form is not characteristic of avian Cryptosporidiosis?

A

Hepatic form (Crypto has intestinal, respiratory and renal form)

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172
Q

Host range of Cryptosporidiosis?

A

Euryxenous (mammals and birds)

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173
Q

Host range of Cryptosporidium baileyi?

A

Anseriform

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174
Q

Life Cycle of Cryptosporidia parvum?

A

Homoxenous

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175
Q

Which species of Cryptosporidium occurs in birds?

A

C. balleyi (C. galli, C. meleagridis)

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176
Q

Where is Cryptosporidium mainly found?

A

Small intestines (ileum), or abomasum in case of C. muris and C. andersoni

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177
Q

Which bird species are susceptible for C. bailyei infection?

A

Many species

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178
Q

What is the causative agent of Cryptosporidiosis in mammals?

A

C. muris (C. parvum, C. andersoni and C. bovis, C. felis, C. canis, C. hominis)

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179
Q

Which parasite are homoxenous but not host specific?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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180
Q

What are the clinical signs for C. baileyi?

A

Dyspnoea and diarrhoea (also: coughing, sneezing, nasal discharges and conjunctivitis)

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181
Q

What are the characteristics of Cryptosporidium baileyi oocysts?

A

6-7 μm, oval

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182
Q

What form of Cryptosporidium can be found in fresh faeces?

A

Oocysts containing 4 sporozoites

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183
Q

Which form of Cryptosporidiosis has the most severe outcome in broilers?

A

Respiratory

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184
Q

In which location will Cryptosporidium baileyi not establish?

A

Stomach

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185
Q

Which is not true?

A

Toxoplasma oocysts are 5-8 μm (they are 10x12 μm)

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186
Q

Host range of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Cats, dogs, birds and humans and other mammals

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187
Q

Which symptom does not occur during Toxoplasmosis infection in cats?

A

Abortion

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188
Q

How can we characterize the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Facultative heteroxenous

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189
Q

In which animal can we find Toxoplasma oocysts in the faeces?

A

Cats (maximum 20 days/only for 1-2 weeks)

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190
Q

What kind of host is the cat in Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Final Host/definitive host

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191
Q

For how long does a cat pass Toxoplasma oocysts in the faeces?

A

1-2 weeks

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192
Q

Which animals shed oocysts in Toxoplasmosis?

A

All species of cats as the definitive/final host

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193
Q

What can be found in sporulated oocysts of Toxoplasmosis?

A

2 sporocysts each containing 4 sporozoites

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194
Q

What is the patency period for Toxoplasmosis?

A

20 days

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195
Q

Oocyst of Toxoplasma gondii is indistinguishable from that of?

A

Hammondia hammondi

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196
Q

What is the size of Toxoplasma gondii cyst?

A

20-100 µm

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197
Q

In which species does T. gondii cause necrotic foci and granuloma in liver,
spleen, lungs and brain?

A

Rabbit

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198
Q

Which clinical sign can be seen in dogs infected by Toxoplasma?

A

CNS symptoms (along with anorexia, pneumonia and diarrhoea)

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199
Q

What method is not used to detect Toxoplasma tachyzoites during infection?

A

Sabin-Feldman dye test

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200
Q

Besnoitia besnoiti species are?

A

Obligatory heteroxenous

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201
Q

Which statement is not true for Besnoitia besnoiti?

A

It´s most important intermediate host is the cat. It can be transmitted by vectors, the cyst is
visible to the naked eye, develops in the endothel

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202
Q

What type of host of Sarcocystiosis can give the intestinal form of infection?

A

Final hosts – dog, cat, wild carnivores and man

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203
Q

What is the Sarcocystiosis species of cattle among these following ones?

A

S. hirsuta

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204
Q

What is the Sacrocystiosis species of sheep among these following ones?

A

S. gigantean

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205
Q

What can be found in sections of vascular endothelium of heart, kidney etc. in
Sarcosporidiosis?

A

Groups of merozoites or small schizonts

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206
Q

Intestinal Sarcosporidiosis can occur in?

A

Dog, cat, wild carnivores and man

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207
Q

Wheat-pea sized and greyish-yellow sarcocysts of … are found in the wall of
esophagus?

A

S. gigantea (in sheep)

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208
Q

Muscle sarcosporidiosis can be found in?

A

Sheep, cattle, sheep, swine, horse and rabbit

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209
Q

What does the human need to ingest to get infected with Sarcocystiosis?

A

Cystozoites

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210
Q

What is the vector of Hepatozoon canis?

A

Other than flea, lice, fly

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211
Q

What are the vertebrates susceptible for Babesiosis?

A

Birds and mammals

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212
Q

What is the animal that may abort its foetus in consequence of Babesiosis:

A

Cattle

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213
Q

What are the host that does not show haemoglobinuria during Babesia-infection?

A

Horses

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214
Q

What word is correct to describe certain form of Babesia?

A

Sporozoite

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215
Q

What is the Babesia species that can infect dog among the following ones?

A

B. gibsoni

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216
Q

In what cells does the Theileria begin to develop inside first vertebrate host?

A

Lymphocytes

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217
Q

What is the species among the following ones that has not any zoonotic
significance?

A

Theileria annulata

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218
Q

In what cells do the Koch bodies occur?

A

Lymphocytes

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219
Q

What is the correct term to describe the host preferences of Encephalitozoon?

A

Euryxenous

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220
Q

What is the staining method that cannot be applied to detect Encephalitozoon
spores in tissues?

A

Hematoxyllin eosin staining

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221
Q

Correct term for host range of Hepatozoonosis:

A

Obligate heteroxenous

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222
Q

In which cells do gamonts of Hepatozoon develop?

A

Neutrophil granulocytes

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223
Q

Which form of Hepatozoon canis can be found in the neutrophil granulocytes?

A

Gamont

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224
Q

Which symptom is not present in the dog affected with Babeiosis:

A

Abortion

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225
Q

In which animal does Babeiosis infection affect the eyes?

A

Dog

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226
Q

Which Babesia has zoonotic significance?

A

B. bingemina

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227
Q

What is the difference between the cell preference of Babesia and Theileria?

A

Theileria can develop in lymphocytes, Babesia does not

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228
Q

What is the species of Babesia that have zoonotic character?

A

B. divergens of cow

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229
Q

What type of animals does Babeiosis affect?

A

Mammals

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230
Q

Babesia vogeli can infect:

A

Dogs

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231
Q

Which cells does Babesia first infect?

A

RBCs

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232
Q

Which species can occur in cattle?

A

B. divergens

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233
Q

Which is “small babesia”?

A

B.canis

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234
Q

Form of Theileria that occurs in RBCs:

A

Piroplasm

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235
Q

Theleria annulata is seen in which species?

A

Cattle

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236
Q

What is the size of Koch bodies?

A

10-12 µm

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237
Q

Koch bodies are:

A

Schizonts in WBCs

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238
Q

Vertebrate animals susceptible to Encephalitozoonosis:

A

Many mammals

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239
Q

Which staining can’t you use in the detection of Encephalitozoa?

A

HE staining

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240
Q

In Encephalitozoonosis, eye disorders are seen in which species?

A

Fox, dog

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241
Q

During the necropsy, thickened and nodular vessels in arteries of viscera can be
seen with the naked eye in:

A

Encephalitozoonosis

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242
Q

Spores of E. cuniculi can be detected where in rabbits?

A

In the urine

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243
Q

What size are the Encephalitozoon spores?

A

1.5 x 2.5 µm, elliptical or Oval

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244
Q

Which staining is used for Encephalitozoonosis?

A

Gram +

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245
Q

What kind of organ is affected by Encephalitozoon cuniculi?

A

Kidney

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246
Q

What is the name of the development for lice?

A

Epimorphosis

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247
Q

How many nymphal stages do the lice have?

A

3

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248
Q

How long do the blood sucking lice survive without a host?

A

Some days only

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249
Q

What is the blood sucking louse of cats?

A

It does not exist

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250
Q

Which hosts are the blood sucking lice live on?

A

Mammals

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251
Q

How many abdominal segments do lice have?

A

9

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252
Q

One of the anoplura louse species of cattle is the Linognathus…?

A

Vituli

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253
Q

What does a cocoon of a flea contain?

A

Pupa

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254
Q

Which way do the flea devevelop?

A

Holometamorphosis

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255
Q

Which is characteristic for a cat infected with fleas?

A

Miliary dermatitis

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256
Q

How many larval stages do the flea have?

A

3

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257
Q

How big is an adult louse?

A

1-14 mm

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258
Q

Which gender are the biggest lice?

A

Female

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259
Q

How are the eyes of the lice?

A

Reduced or absent

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260
Q

How many antennae does the Amblycera/Ischnocera have?

A

3-5 segmented antennae

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261
Q

How many antennae does the Anoplura have?

A

5 segmented antennae

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262
Q

How long do chewing/biting lice survive without a host?

A

1-2 weeks

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263
Q

How do the lice spread?

A

By contact, phoresy

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264
Q

Which suborder does Felicola subrostratus belong to?

A

Ichnocera (chewing or biting lice)

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265
Q

Which suborder does Solenopotes capillatus belong to?

A

Anopleura (blood-sucking lice)

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266
Q

Which is the blood sucking louse of dogs?

A

Linognathus setosus

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267
Q

Which is the blood sucking louse of sheep?

A

Linognathus stenopsis, Linognathus ovillus, Linognathus pedalis

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268
Q

Which are the blood sucking lice of birds?

A

Does not exist

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269
Q

Which are the chewing/biting lice of rabbits?

A

Does not exist

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270
Q

Which are the chewing/biting lice of pigs?

A

Does not exist

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271
Q

Which are the chewing/biting lice of humans?

A

Does not exist

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272
Q

What is the blood-sucking lice species of cattle?

A

Linognathus vituli, Hematopinus eurysternus, Solenopotes capillatus

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273
Q

How many spiracles do lice have?

A

6 pairs

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274
Q

How many abdominal segments do fleas have?

A

10

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275
Q

Genus of the rat flea?

A

Xenopsylla cheopis

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276
Q

Genus of the human flea?

A

Tunga penetrans

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277
Q

What is special about Tunga penetrans (jigger)?

A

Only male sucks blood

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278
Q

Which is characteristic for a dog infected with fleas?

A

Hotspots on lumbosacral and gluteal region

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279
Q

How big is an adult flea?

A

1-6 mm

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280
Q

How big are the eggs of flea?

A

0,5 mm

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281
Q

In flea infestation, which are the clinical signs?

A

Correct: Restlessness, scratching, intense grooming, anaemia, fleabite allergy, hot spot in dog,
military dermatitis in cat

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282
Q

How does fleas develop?

A

Holometamorphosis

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283
Q

Choose the scientific name of the horsefly species.
A: Tababus bromlus B: Culicoides imicola
C: Culex pipies D: Phlebotumum neglectus

A

Tabanus

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284
Q

Choose the developmental cycle typical for bedbugs.
A: Anamoprhosis B: Holometamorphosis
C: Hemimetamorphosis D: Epimetamorphosis

A

Epimetamorphosis

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285
Q

Choose the developmental cycle typical for diptherans.
A: Anamoprhosis B: Holometamorphosis
C: Hemimetamorphosis D: Epimetamorphosis

A

Holometamorphosis

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286
Q

This species never consumes blood.
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Lipoptena cervi
C: Haematobia irritans D: Fannia canicularis

A

Fannia canicularis

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287
Q

This species never consumes blood.
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Lipoptena cervi
C: Haematobia irritans D: Musca domestica

A

Musca domestica

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288
Q

This species never consumes blood.
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Lipoptena cervi
C: Haematobia irritans D: Muscina stabulans

A

Muscina stabulans

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289
Q

Both sexes are haematophagus?
A: Stomoxys calcitrans B: Musca autumnalis
C: Fannia canicularis D: Musca domestica

A

Stomoxys calcitrans

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290
Q

Both sexes are haematophagus?
A: Hematobius irritans B: Musca autumnalis
C: Fannia canicularis D: Musca domestica

A

Hematobius irritans

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291
Q

How many nymphal stages do bugs have?

A

5

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292
Q

What does the pupa of bugs look like?

A

No pupa, since they develop via epimorphosis

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293
Q

What does the male bedbug feed on?

A

Blood

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294
Q

Which bug causes anaemia?

A

Cimex lectularis (bed bug)

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295
Q

Where are the respiratory spiracles of bugs located?

A

Ventrally on the abdomen

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296
Q

Respiratory spiracles lay on:

A

Stigma plate

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297
Q

How many nymphal stages are there in the Darkling beetle?

A

None (have larvae)

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298
Q

Diptera whose antenna has only 3 segments?

A

Tabanus

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299
Q

Their antenna has only 3 segments?

A

Tabanus

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300
Q

Tsetse fly gives birth to:

A

One fully-grown 3rd stage larvae

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301
Q

Size of the Tsetse fly:

A

6-15 mm

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302
Q

Which lay fully-grown larvae?

A

Tse-tse fly

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303
Q

Adult species of this genus are always wingless?

A

Melophagus ovinus

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304
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the mouthparts?

A

Antennae

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305
Q

Their larvae are able to chew into solid materials?

A

Alphitobius diaperinus

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306
Q

Development of Family Culicidae:

A

(Holo)metamorphosis

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307
Q

Life cycle of Heteroptera (Hemiptera)?

A

Epimorphosis

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308
Q

What is characteristic of the Family Simuliidae?

A

Pupa is in a slipper-shaped cocoon that is reddish-brown

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309
Q

Which group pupates inside a cocoon capsule?

A

Simuliidae

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310
Q

What order does the Fannia canicularis belong to?

A

Cyclorrhapha

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311
Q

Which genus does not belong to the group of mosquitoes?

A: Alphitoblus B: Aedes C: Culex D: Anopheles

A

Alphitobius

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312
Q

Choose the insect group where development in stagnant water is typical?
A: Horseflies B: Mosquitoes C: Bedbugs D: Sandflies

A

Mosquitoes

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313
Q

Choose the group where both sexes feed on blood.

A: Blackflies B: Mosquitoes C: Bedbugs D: Sandflies

A

Bedbugs

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314
Q

Reduced wings are characteristic for.

A: Blackflies B: Hornflies C: Biting midges D: Bedbugs

A

Bedbugs

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315
Q

Choose the insect that is not haematophagous.

A: Bedbug B: Lesser mealworm C: Horsefly D: Sandfly

A

Lesser mealworm

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316
Q

Choose the scientific name of a Blackfly species?
A: Simulium damnosum B: Aedes vexans
C: Culex pipiens D: Anopheles

A

Simulium damnosum

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317
Q

Mottled wings are characteristic for?

A: Biting midges B: Blackflies C: Sanflies D: Bedbugs

A

Biting midges

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318
Q

Larvae and puparia of this species have lateral projections.

A: Fannia B: Stomoxys C: Musca D: Haematobia

A

Fannia

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319
Q

Larvae of species of this genus are able to feed outside the adults?
A: Lipoptena B: Hippobosca C: Melophagus D: Stomoxys

A

Stomoxys

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320
Q

Both sexes of this species consume blood?
A: Musca domestica B: Fannia canicularis
C: Haematobia irritans D: Musca autumnalis

A

Haematobia irritans

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321
Q

Blowfly..
A: Lay eggs B: Lays second instar
C: Lays first instar D: Lays pupa

A

Lay eggs

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322
Q

A freshfly lays…

A: Eggs B: Third instars C: First instars D: Pupa

A

First instars

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323
Q

Hypoderma lineatum imagos feeds on..

A: Blood B: Plant tissue C: Nothing D: Connective tissue

A

Nothing

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324
Q

First stage larva of Hypoderma bovis migrate into the?

A: Spinal canal B: Kidney C: Esophagus D: Gluteal region

A

Spinal canal

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325
Q

The female mosquitoes need blood for?

A

Ovarian development

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326
Q

Most of the mosquitoes species are?

A

Nocturnal or crepuscular

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327
Q

What does the female mouthparts of the mosquitoes have?

A

Piercing-sucking mouthparts (fleshy labium), paired maxilla and mandibles, hypopharynx, labrum

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328
Q

Which part of the mosquitoes is entering the skin?

A

Labrum

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329
Q

Which part of the mosquitoes is not entering the skin?

A

Fleshy labium

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330
Q

How big are the mosquitoes?

A

2-10 mm

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331
Q

What is characteristic for the male mosquitoes?

A

Reduced or absent maxilla

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332
Q

How is the antenna in female mosquitoes?

A

Pilose (hairy)

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333
Q

How is the antenna in male mosquitoes?

A

Plumose (feathery)

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334
Q

How does the Anopheles look like?

A

Characteristically straight, acute angle with the surface

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335
Q

How does Culex, Aedes look like?

A

Bended at thorax and body is parallel with the surface

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336
Q

How do the eggs of the mosquitoes look like?

A

Elongated, ovoid or boat shaped

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337
Q

Which mosquitos lay eggs on water?

A

Anopheles

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338
Q

Which mosquitoes lay eggs in groups?

A

Culex

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339
Q

How many larval instars are there in still freshwater Anopheles?

A

4

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340
Q

How do the mummy-like pupae look like?

A

Comma-shaped, distinct cephalothorax and abdomen with respiratory trumpets

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341
Q

Most of the species of Blackflies is?

A

Diurnal

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342
Q

When is the Blackflies most active?

A

During the morning or early evening

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343
Q

How does the female Blackfly suck blood?

A

Lacerates the tissues until a pool of blood is formed and then takes it up

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344
Q

Which ones are species of the Blackfly?

A

Simulium columbaschense, S. damnosum

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345
Q

How are the eyes of the female Blackfly?

A

Distinctly separated (dichoptic)

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346
Q

How are the eyes of the male Blackfky?

A

Closer (holoptic)

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347
Q

Where are the eggs of the Blackfly laid?

A

In batches on stones or vegetation near running water

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348
Q

How many larval instars of the Blackfly?

A

6-9

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349
Q

What is a clinical sign of Blackfly in cattle?

A

Acute syndrome: simuliotoxicosis

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350
Q

What is characteristic for both sexes of Sandflies?

A

Feed on plant juices

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351
Q

How is the colour of the Sandfly?

A

Dull coloured

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352
Q

How big is the Sandfly?

A

5 mm

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353
Q

How are the wing veins of the Sandfly?

A

In straight lines

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354
Q

How are the eggs of the Sandfly laid?

A

In cracks, burrows or holes in the ground

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355
Q

How many larval instars does the Sandfly have?

A

4

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356
Q

How big are the Biting midges?

A

1.5-5 mm

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357
Q

How many larval instars do the Biting midges have?

A

4

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358
Q

What are the Muscoid flies called which is associated with man?

A

Synathropic

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359
Q

What are the Muscoid flies called which is associated with the stables?

A

Endophilic

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360
Q

What are the Muscoid flies called which is associated with pastures?

A

Exophilic

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361
Q

Which muscoid flies are exophilic?

A

Musca Automnalis and Hematobius Irritans

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362
Q

What is in the first segment of Muscoid flies?

A

Inner cephalopharyngeal skeleton

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363
Q

How many larval instars do the Muscoid flies have?

A

3

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364
Q

How is the shape of the puparium of the Muscoid flies?

A

Barrel shaped

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365
Q

How big is the Musca domestica/housefly?

A

7-8 mm

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366
Q

How many segments do the larvae of the Musca domestica/housefly have?

A

12 segments

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367
Q

How many generations per year does the housefly have?

A

10-30 generations

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368
Q

How big is the Fannia canicularis/lesser housefly?

A

4-6 mm

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369
Q

What order does Fannia canicularis belong to?

A

Cyclorrhapha of the Suborder Brachycera

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370
Q

Which have a closed peritreme?

A

Blowfly

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371
Q

How does the first two abdominal segments of the Fannia canicularis/lesser
housefly look like?

A

Yellowish spots

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372
Q

How big is the Stomoxys calcitrans/stable fly?

A

6-7 mm

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373
Q

Where does the Stomoxys calcitrans/stable fly attack their host?

A

On the lower parts (belly, limbs)

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374
Q

How big is Musca autumnalis/face fly?

A

5-7 mm

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375
Q

Which species have biological and mechanical vector?

A

Musca autumnalis or face fly

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376
Q

What does the Musca autumnalis feed on?

A

Secretions around the eyes (nose, mouth and wounds)

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377
Q

How big is the Haematobia irritans/horn fly?

A

4 mm

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378
Q

What does the horn fly cause?

A

Intense irritation and blood loss

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379
Q

Larvae of Hypoderma lineatum migrate into?

A

Oesophagus

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380
Q

Where do the Warble flies pupate?

A

On the ground

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381
Q

Which one has a 3rd instar larvae called a warble/grub?

A

None (correct answer is Warble flies, Hypodermatinae)

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382
Q

Which fly lays larvae on mammals?

A

Oestrus ovis

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383
Q

Where can we find the larvae of O. ovis?

A

In the nasal cavity

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384
Q

Where does Gastrophilus nasalis finally develop?

A

Pylorus

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385
Q

Where the Gasterophilus intestinalis lays its egg?

A

On shoulders

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386
Q

How long do the larva of sheep nasal botfly develop inside host?

A

10-12 months

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387
Q

Members of this genus are facultative parasites?

A

Lucilia sericata, Lucilia cuprina

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388
Q

Where does Lucilla spp. belong?

A

Calliphoridae

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389
Q

Which have an open peritreme?

A

Fleshflies

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390
Q

Which one has a 3rd instar larvae called a maggot?

A

None (correct answer is Sarcophagidae Wohlfahrtia spp.)

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391
Q

Where does Wohlfahrtia spp. belong?

A

Sarcophagidae

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392
Q

Which adult female is larviparous?

A

Wohlfahrtia spp.

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393
Q

Wohlfahrtia Magnifica lays what?

A

Females lay first instar larvae, they are larviparous and obligate parasites

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394
Q

Which adult female is honeybee like?

A

Botflies

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395
Q

How does a Botfly reproduce?

A

Female attach their eggs to hairs on the upper parts of the body and then they develop with
Holometamorphosis

396
Q

Sheep nasal botfly

A

First stage larvae are laid at the nostrils

397
Q

Host of Gastrophilus nasalis?

A

Equids

398
Q

Fly where both sexes are haematophagous?

A

Haematoba irritans, Stomoxys Calcitrans

399
Q

This species of mites burrows into the skin.
A: Otodectes cynotis B: Chorioptes bovis
C: Psoroptes cuniculi D: Knemidokoptes mutans

A

D: Knemidokoptes mutans

400
Q

This species causes the scaly leg of poultry.

A: K. pillae B: K. mutans C: K. gallinae D: K. pedalis

A

K. mutans

401
Q

This species causes the scaly face of poultry.

A: K. pillae B: K. mutans C: K. gallinae D: K. pedalis

A

K. pillae

402
Q

This host can be infected by only one species of mange mites?
A: Rabbit B: Swine C: Cat D: Goat

A

Swine

403
Q

This species occurs mainly in the lower parts of the legs?

A: Knemidokoptes pilae B: Chorioptes bovis C: Notoedres muris D: Psorptes cuniculi

A

Chorioptes bovis

404
Q

What chemicals are applied to dissolve the keratinous part of skin scrapings?
A: Alkalines B: Salt solutions C: Washing soda D: Formalin

A

Alkalines

405
Q

Which of them has segmented pedicels on the end of its legs?

A: Otodectes B: Notoedres C: Chorioptes D: Psorptes

A

Psoroptes

406
Q

Species of this genus of mites are able to survive off the host for a few days
only.
A: Chorioptes B: Otodectes C: Sarcoptes D: Psorptes

A

Sarcoptes

407
Q

These mites have no respiratory openings on the body.

A: Mange mites B: Hair follicle mites C: Red mites D: Ticks

A

Mange mites

408
Q

Where do Sarcoptes mites belong?

A

Order Acariformes, sub-order Astigmata, Burrowing mites

409
Q

Where do Psoroptes mites belong?

A

Order Acariformes, sub-order Astigmata, Non-burrowing mites

410
Q

Which mites have short legs?

A

Burrowing mites (Sarcoptes, Knemidokoptes, Notoedres spp.)

411
Q

Which mites have long legs?

A

Non-burrowing mites (Choriptes, Otodectes, Psoroptes spp.)

412
Q

Which have Otodectic mange?

A

Cat

413
Q

Which have Sarcoptic mange?

A

Pig

414
Q

Which is the causative agent of depluming itch?

A

Knemidokoptes gallinae

415
Q

Which method is used for the diagnosis of Sarcoptic mange?

A

Skin scraping since they are burrowing mites

416
Q

Which methods are used for the diagnosis of Notoedric mange?

A

Skin scraping since they are burrowing mites.

417
Q

The species of mites that burrow into skin?

A

Sarcoptes, Knemidokoptes, Notoedres spp.

418
Q

These mites are able to consume tissue fluids:

A

Psoroptic mites

419
Q

These mites can sometimes cause anaemia during heavy infection:

A

Psoroptic mites

420
Q

How many nymph stages are there during the development of mange mites?

A

2 nymph stages

421
Q

Which mite is viviparous?

A

Knemidokoptes spp.

422
Q

Which species has Notoedric mange?

A

Dog

423
Q

What developmental stage of chigger mites feed on vertebrates?
A: Nymphs B: Adults C: Larvae D: None of them

A

Larvae

424
Q

It feeds only at one once.

A: Female soft tick B: Male soft tick C: Female hard tick D: Male hard tick

A

Female hard tick

425
Q

What species of Cheyletiella occurs in rabbits?

A: C. blakei B: C. parasitivorax C: C. yasguri D: C. cuniculi

A

C. parasitivorax

426
Q

Their larva is not able to feed anything.

A: Red mites B: Harvest mite C: Soft ticks D: Hard ticks

A

Red mites

427
Q

Hard ticks have…,blood feeding developmental stages.

A: 2 B: 5 C: 4 D: 3

A

3

428
Q

How many times do the nymphs of hard ticks feed on blood?

A: Several times B: Only once C: They do not feed D: 2-3 times

A

Only once

429
Q

Where do the soft ticks lay their eggs?
A: At the host B: Into the soil
C: Cracks and crevices D: They are viviparous

A

Cracks and crevices

430
Q

It is not true for Demodex.
A: Their eggs are pear shaped B: They are permanent parasites
C: They live on hair D: They are viviparous

A

They live on hair

431
Q

Their larvae never feed.

A: Dermanyssus B: Dermacentor C: Demodex D: Trombicula

A

Dermanyssus

432
Q

They lay their eggs on hair.

A: Hard ticks B: Cheyletiella C: Red mites D: Soft ticks

A

Cheyletiella

433
Q

This species lives on eyelids?

A

Demodex caballi

434
Q

Where does the red mite belong?

A

Mesostigmatid mites

435
Q

For which species are huge palps characteristic?

A

Cheyletiella

436
Q

Which animals have D. Phylloides?

A

Pig

437
Q

Which is the smallest overall?

A

Hair follicle mite

438
Q

For which do you collect with scotch tape?

A

Cheyletiella

439
Q

Where do hair follicle mites belong?

A

Prostigmatid mites

440
Q

For which species are ciliated setae characteristic?

A

Trombicula autumnalis

441
Q

Which animals have “Argas persicus”?

A

Poultry, wild birds

442
Q

Which is the largest overall?

A

Female ixodes

443
Q

Dragging and flagging is suitable collection for?

A

Dermacentor marginatus (Hard ticks)

444
Q

How many forms of Fasciola larvae appear only inside the body of intermediate
host? A: 4 B: 2 C: 3 D:1

A

2

445
Q

What is the most important intermediate host of F. hepatica in Europe?
A: Galba truncatula B: Lymnaea peregra
C: Radix labiata D: Succinella oblongata

A

Galba truncatula

446
Q

Which animal is the most susceptible for Fasciola infection?

A: Roe deer B: Horse C: Sheep D: Cattle

A

Sheep

447
Q

What is the best way to detect lancet fluke eggs in faeces?

A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation

A

Flotation

448
Q

What is the larval stage of Paramphistomum that can swim in water?
A: Miracidium B: Redia C: Sporocyst D: Cercaria

A

Cercaria

449
Q

What age of sheep is most susceptible for acute Fasciolosis?
A: Lambs under 8 months B: After 8 months
C: After 1 year D: After 4 years

A

Lambs under 8 months

450
Q

54
What is the most frequent consequence of Dicrocoelium infection in cattle?
A: Swelling of the liver B: Symptomless infection
C: Oedema D: Anaemia

A

Symptomless infection

451
Q

What term characterizes rumen flukes?
A: Flat body B: Pinkish body
C: Suckers at both ends D: Bisexual

A

B,C,D

452
Q

What term characterizes rumen flukes?
A: Flat body B: Pinkish body
C: Suckers at both ends D: Hermaphrodite

A

B,C,D

453
Q

What larval form is missing during development of lancet flukes?
A: Miracidium B: Redia C: Sporocyst D: Cercaria

A

Redia

454
Q

How many larval forms of lancet fluke appear only inside the body of snail?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 1 D: 3

A

4

455
Q

What snail can be an intermediate host of Paramphistomum cervi?
A: Galba truncatula B: Planorbis planorbis
C: Radix labiate D: Succinella oblonga

A

Planorbis planorbis

456
Q

Which animal is least susceptible for Fasciola infection?

A: Cat B: Goat C: Hare D: Cattle

A

Cat

457
Q

What is the way to detect fluke eggs in feces?

A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation

A

Sedimentation & Flotation

458
Q

What is the larval stage of Dicrocoelium that develops in ants?
A: Miracidium B: Metacercaria C: Sporocyst D: Cercaria

A

Metacercaria

459
Q

Which age of sheep is the most affected by chronic Fasciolosis?
A: At age of 6 moths B: 12 months C: After 1 year D: New-borns

A

After 1 year

460
Q

What is the colour of mucosa of lips during acute Fasciolosis?
A: Normal, pink B: Red C: Pale D: Yellowish

A

Normal, pink

461
Q

What characterizes lancet flukes?
A: Flat body B: Pink body
C: Suckers at both ends D: Hermaphrodite

A

Flat body, hermaphrodite

462
Q

What organ do the young rumen fluke attach to first, on the course of infection?
A: Abomasum B: Ileum C: Fore stomach D: Duodenum

A

Duodenum

463
Q

How many larval stages of Dicrocoelium can actively move in the environment?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 0 D: 3

A

0

464
Q

What are the intermediate hosts for both Fasciola and Calicophoron flukes?
A: Galba truncatula snails B: Lymneaea peregra snails
C: Planorbis planorbis snails D: Succinella oblonga snails

A

Galba truncatula snails

465
Q

What are the second intermediate host of lancet flukes?
A: Galba truncatula amphibious snail B: Ant species
C: They do not need any D: Succunella oblonga land snail

A

Ant species

466
Q

How many Fasciola metacercariae are needed to cause acute infection in cattle?
A: It does not depend on the quantity of worms B: More than 1000 are enough
C: Some hundreds is enough D: Many thousands larva is required

A

More than 1000 are enough

467
Q

What does the fresh egg of Calicophoron fluke contain?
A: Zygote B: Miracidium
C: Blastomers D: Morula stage of larvae

A

Zygote

468
Q

What is the colour of liver fluke egg?

A: Yellow B: Brown C: Colourless D: Pink

A

Yellow

469
Q

What genus has the longest praepatent period in the final host?
A: Fascioloides B: Paramphistomum C: Dicrocoelium D: Fasciola

A

Paramphistomum

470
Q

What is the species that never causes acute form of a disease?
A: Dicrocoelium dendriticum B: Fasciola hepatica
C: Paramphistomum cervi D: Calicophoron daubneyi

A

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

471
Q

Which term characterizes Fasciola flukes?
A: Flat body B: Head cone
C: Suckers on both ends D: Sexes are separated

A

Flat body, head cone

472
Q

This is not absolutely necessary for the development of lancet fluke.
A: Redia stage B: Water
C: Second intermediate host D: Freshwater snail

A

Redia stage, water, freshwater snail

473
Q

Which fluke is the largest?
A: F. hepatica B: Dicrocoelium dendriticum
C: Paramphistomum cervi D: Calicophoron daubneyi

A

F. hepatica

474
Q

What are the steps of the lifecycle of F. hepatica?
A: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE B: MI - SPO - RE - CE
C: MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - RE - CE C: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE

A

A: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE

475
Q

How big is Fasciola hepatica adult?

A: 3-6 mm B: 2-3 mm C: 2-3 cm D: 8-10 mm

A

2-3 cm

476
Q

How is the shape of the Fasciola hepatica?

A: Lemon shaped B: Leaf-like C: Rectangular D: Heart shaped

A

Leaf-like

477
Q

The life cycle of … is MI - SPO - RE - CE.

A: F. hepatica B: D. dendriticum C: P. ichikawai D: F. magna

A

P. ichikawai

478
Q

Which species develops with two intermediate hosts?

A: F. hepatica B: D. dendriticum C: P. ichikawai D: F. magna

A

D. dendriticum

479
Q

Which species has 40-50 μm, sized, brownish eggs?
A: Paramphistomum cervi B: Schistosoma japonicum
C: Fascioloides magna C: Other

A

Other

480
Q

How can you diagnose acute Fasciolosis?
A: With sedimentation B: With flotation
C: With necroscopy D: With other

A

With necropsy

481
Q

You can find a few mm long worms in the liver parenchyma. This is…
A: D. dendriticum B: F. hepatica
C: Schistosoma spp. D: D. dendriticum and F. hepatica

A

F. hepatica

482
Q

The life cycle of … MI-SPO-RE1-RE2-CE.

A: F. hepatica B: D. dendriticum C: P. ichikawai D: F. magna

A

F. hepatica

483
Q

Which species is 140-150 μm long, and colourless?
A: Paramphistomum cervi B: Schistosoma japonicum
C: Fascioloides magna C: Other

A

P. cervi

484
Q

How can you diagnose chronic paramphistomatidosis?
A: With sedimentation B: With flotation
C: With necroscopy D: With other

A

With sedimentation

485
Q

You can find a few mm long worms in ductus choleductus. This is…
A: D. dendriticum B: F. hepatica
C: Schistosoma spp. D: D. dendriticum and F. hepatica

A

D: D. dendriticum and F. hepatica

486
Q

What is the intermediate host of Paramphistomum species?
A: Galba truncatula B: Lymnaea peregra
C: Radix labiata D: Planorbids

A

Planorbids

487
Q

What is the intermediate host of Calicophoron daubneyi?
A: Galba truncatula B: Lymnaea peregra
C: Radix labiata D: Succinella oblonga

A

Galba truncatula

488
Q

What is the lifecycle of F. hepatica in Lymnaea peregra snail?
A: MI - SPO - RE1 - RE2 - CE B: MI - SPO - RE - CE
C: MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - RE - CE D: None

A

None

489
Q

What is the family of the Fascicola?

Trematodes

A

Trematodes

490
Q

What technique do you use to measure the size of the parasites?

A

Micrometry

491
Q

Which technique concentrates fluke eggs?

A

Sedimentation

492
Q

What is the host spectrum of Fasciola hepatica?

A

Wide, mostly herbivorous mammals and humans

493
Q

What is another name for Fasciola hepatica?

A

Common liver fluke

494
Q

What kind of method is used to detect Fasciola hepatica egg?

A

Sedimentation or flotation method

495
Q

Where can you find the adult form of Fasciola hepatica?

A

In the bile duct and gallbladder

496
Q

Where can you find the juvenile form of Fasciola hepatica?

A

Penetrates the intestine and migrates to the liver via abdominal cavity

497
Q

After the death of F. hepatica flukes what can be found?

A

Fibrotic tracts or necrotic areas in liver

498
Q

What are special about the diagnosis of acute Fasciolosis?

A

There are no eggs in the faeces

499
Q

How can you treat the Fasciolosis?

A

Triclabendazol

500
Q

What is the main source of heavy Fasciolosis?

A

Secondary biotopes

501
Q

What is the size of the eggs of F. hepatica?

A

120-150 µm

502
Q

Which colour of the eggs does Fasciola hepatica have?

A

Golden yellow

503
Q

What does the Fasciola hepatica eggs contain?

A

Zygote

504
Q

What surrounds the egg of the F. hepatica?

A

Granulated yolk

505
Q

Zygote containing egg of F. hepatica develops into?

A

Ciliated larva (miracidium)

506
Q

F. hepatica: in the body of snail the first larva turns into?

A

Bladder-like sporocyst

507
Q

In which stage does the F. hepatica shed their tail?

A

Cercariae

508
Q

How long takes the migration in the liver parenchyma of F. hepatica?

A

4-6 weeks

509
Q

Approximately how long is the praepatent period of F. hepatica?

A

10 weeks

510
Q

What are the definitive hosts of F. hepatica?

A

All kinds of ruminants, mainly the hollow-horned ones (bovidae)

511
Q

What are the most susceptible species for Fasciola hepatica?

A

Sheep, goat, rabbit and hare + (artificially: mouse, rat)

512
Q

What are the moderately susceptible species of Fasciola hepatica?

A

Cattle, deer, roe-deer, moufflon, buffalo and camel + (artificially: guinea pig)

513
Q

What are the least susceptible species for Fasciola heptica?

A

Horse, pig, dog, cat and humans

514
Q

What can be the symptoms of acute form of Fasciola hepatica?

A

Rapid weight loss, sudden death

515
Q

What can be the symptoms of sub acute form of Fasciola hepatica?

A

Severe anaemia, bottle jaw

516
Q

What can be the symptoms of chronic form of Fasciola hepatica?

A

Submandibular oedema, cachexia

517
Q

F. hepatica: in case of acute form the young flukes can be found in?

A

Parenchyma

518
Q

F. hepatica: in case of chronic form the flukes can be found?

A

In the biliary ducts and gallbladder

519
Q

How big is Fascioloides magna?

A

2-10 cm

520
Q

What is another name for Fascioloides magna?

A

Large liver fluke

521
Q

What is the size of Fascioloides magna eggs?

A

110-160 μm

522
Q

Mixed infections with F. magna and F. hepatica can occur in?

A

Cattle

523
Q

What is the definite host of the Fascioloides magna?

A

Deer

524
Q

What is the aberran host of the Fascioloides magna?

A

Sheep, goat

525
Q

What is the paratenic host of the Fascioloides magna?

A

Cattle

526
Q

What are the steps of the lifecycle in rumen fluke?

A

MI - SPO - RE1 - CE (Miracidium, Sporocysts, Redia and Cercaria)

527
Q

Where does the development take place for paramphistomid?

A

On land and in water

528
Q

Which snail species is amphibious?

A

Planorbis species

529
Q

How long is the praepatent period of rumen flukes?

A

16-18 weeks

530
Q

Where can you find immature rumen flukes?

A

Duodenum and abomasum

531
Q

Juvenile form of rumen flukes is found in?

A

Duodenum

532
Q

What colour does the eggs of rumen flukes have?

A

Colourless

533
Q

What is special about the juvenile rumen flukes?

A

They never leave the intestinal canal during their route from small intestine to the fore stomach

534
Q

In which animals is the rumen fluke common?

A

In wild animals

535
Q

What is the genus name for rumen fluke?

A

Calicophoron

536
Q

Where does the rumen fluke take place?

A

Rumen and reticulum

537
Q

What is the size of the rumen fluke?

A

1-2 cm

538
Q

What is the shape of the rumen fluke?

A

Bean-like/conical

539
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic or rumen paramphistomatidosis?

A

No symptoms

540
Q

Adult rumen flukes are found … during acute paramphistomatidosis?

A

Nowhere, because adult rumen flukes aren’t present in acute form

541
Q

To diagnose rumen fluke we can use?

A

Sedimentation method or flotation

542
Q

How can you diagnose acute form of rumen fluke?

A

No eggs in faeces, juvenile flukes in faeces and microscopy

543
Q

How can you diagnose the chronic form?

A

Faecal egg count and necroscopy

544
Q

How to treat the acute form of rumen flukes?

A

Stop grazing, fluke-free pastures, Niclosamide

545
Q

How to treat the chronic form of rumen flukes?

A

Levamizol, Oxikolzanid

546
Q

What is the main difference between the eggs of rumen fluke and F. hepatica?

A

Colour

547
Q

What is the size of the eggs of lancet flukes?

A

40-48 μm long

548
Q

Which fluke is the smallest?

A

Dicrocoelium dendriticum (0.5-1 cm)

549
Q

What is the development of Dicrocoelium dendriticum in ants?

A

CE - ME

550
Q

What is the life cycle of Dicrocoelium dendriticum in snails?

A

MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - RE - CE

551
Q

When is the miracidium able to hatch in the lancet flukes?

A

If the egg is consumed by a land snail

552
Q

Acute form was never mentioned in?

A

Dicrocoeliosis

553
Q

Where does the larva of the lancet fluke hatch?

A

In the intestines of the snails

554
Q

Where does the larva of the lancet fluke develops?

A

In the body cavity of the intermediate host to sporocyst

555
Q

What does the sporocyst of the lancet fluke produce?

A

Several generations of other sporocysts (so called daughter sporocyst)

556
Q

Cercariae of the lancet fluke have a sharp spine on the tip of the head, what is
it called?

A

Stylet

557
Q

How do the cercariae of the lancet fluke leave the snail?

A

With the expelled mucus

558
Q

Where does juvenile lancet flukes develop into adults?

A

Liver, through biliary ducts

559
Q

Approximately how long is the praepatent period in the lancet flukes?

A

About 7-9 weeks

560
Q

What is the intermediate host of lancet flukes?

A

Small land snails may act as first intermediate host

561
Q

For how long does the infected snail survive in the lancet flukes?

A

1-4 years

562
Q

What is the second intermediate host of the lancet flukes?

A

Ants

563
Q

How long do the infected ants of the lancet flukes survive for?

A

Maximum 1 year

564
Q

Which biotope is important in dicrocoeliosis?

A

None, not primary or secondary

565
Q

Where does Schistosomatidosis (blood fluke disease) occur?

A

In the vessels

566
Q

How is the male of the Schistosomiasis?

A

Broad, flat and inwardly curved forming a groove

567
Q

How big is the Schistosomiasis?

A

0.5-3.0 cm long

568
Q

How is the lifecycle of Schistosomiasis?

A

MI - SPO1 - SPO2 - CE

569
Q

What is the infective stage of the Schistosomiasis?

A

Furcocercaria

570
Q

How is the shape of Schistosomiasis?

A

Thread-like

571
Q

Which of the Schistosoma is most pathologic?

A

Japonicum

572
Q

Which of the Schistosoma is the biggest?

A

Female

573
Q

Schistosoma bovis occurs in which species?

A

Cattle, sheep and goat

574
Q

Schistosoma bovis can be found in?

A

Portal, mesenteric and urogenital veins

575
Q

Schistosoma mattheei occurs in which species?

A

Domestic and wild ruminants, zebra, occasionally humans

576
Q

Schistosoma mattheei can be found in?

A

Intestinal, hepatic and bladder veins

577
Q

Schistosoma japonicum occurs in which species?

A

Most domestic and wild animals and humans

578
Q

Schistosoma japonicum can be found in?

A

Portal and mesenteric veins

579
Q

Schistosoma mansoni occurs in which species?

A

Humans

580
Q

Schistosoma mansoni will cause?

A

Bladder schistosomiasis

581
Q

Schistosoma haematobium occurs in which species?

A

Human

582
Q

Schistosoma haematobium will cause?

A

Urinary or bladder schistosomiasis

583
Q

How big are the eggs of Schistosomiasis?

A

130-280 mm

584
Q

How is the shape of the Schistosomiasis?

A

Spindle-shaped or spiny

585
Q

What does the eggs of the Schistosomiais contain?

A

Miracidium when passed out in faeces or urine

586
Q

What are characteristics about the eggs of Schistosomiasis?

A

They are covered in microbarbs, which cling to vascular endothelium

587
Q

During acute infection of Schistosomiasis what does cercariae do?

A

Penetrate skin and causes rash (schistosome or swimmer’s itch)

588
Q

Eggs of Schistosomiasis, which is laid in target organs, release antigens and will
cause?

A

Katayama fever

589
Q

How can you treat Schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

590
Q

Alariosis is not very common in?

A

Dogs and cats, but prevalence in wild carnivores

591
Q

How big is the Alaria alata?

A

2-6 mm

592
Q

How many intermediate hosts does the Alaria alata have?

A

2

593
Q

What are the intermediate hosts of the Alaria alata?

A

Snails, Tadpoles

594
Q

What are the paratenic hosts (mesocercaria) of Alaria alata?

A

Wild boar, pig, poultry, human (lung, eye)

595
Q

How can you diagnose Alariosis?

A

Sedimentation, flotation, necroscopy

596
Q

What is the colour of the Alaria alata?

A

Yellow

597
Q

How can you treat Alariosis?

A

Praziquantel

598
Q

How many suckers does the scolex of Moniezia expansa have? 1,2,3 or 4 ?

A

4

599
Q

What is the intermediate host of Anoplocephala worms?

A: Ant B: Box mite C: Hay mite D: Harvest mite

A

Box mite

600
Q

What does the egg of Moniezia benedeni contain?
A: Zygote B: Blastomers
C: Five-hooked oncosphaera D: Six-hooked oncosphaera

A

Six-hooked oncosphera

601
Q

Which animals are susceptible for Diphyllobothrium infection?
A: Bears B: Dogs C: Cats D: Cattle

A

Bears, dogs

602
Q

What is the best way to detect flea tapeworm eggs in faeces?

A: Flotation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Sedimentation

A

Flotation

603
Q

What is the name of the cestode larva that can swim in water?
A: Procercoid B: Coracidium C: Plerocercoid D: Oncosphaera

A

Coracidium

604
Q

The species of this genus can act as intermediate host for Diphilidium.
A: Ctenocephalides B: Linognathus C: Haemodipsus D: Trichodectes

A

Ctenocephalides

605
Q

These tapeworms can occur in large intestine.

A: Diphylidium B: Moniezia C: Diphyllobothrium D: Anoplocephala

A

Anoplocephala

606
Q

What statement is true for a segment of a cestode?
A: It can produce eggs B: It has a digestive organ
C: It has 2 sets of hermaphroditic sexual organs D: It is hermaphroditic

A

It is hermaphroditic

607
Q

How many suckers does the scolex of Diphyllobothrium worm have?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 1 D: 3Plerocercoid

A

2

608
Q

What are the intermediate hosts of Diphylidium worms?

A: Ants B: Fleas C: Copepods D: Hair lice

A

Fleas, hair lice

609
Q

What is the best way to detect Moniezia eggs in faeces?

A: Flotation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Sedimentation

A

Flotation

610
Q

This larva always live in arthropods:

A: Procercoid B: Coracidium C: Cysticercoid D: Oncosphaera

A

Cysticercoid

611
Q

These animals can act as intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium:
A: Mites B: Fish C: Crustaceans D: Insects

A

Crustaceans

612
Q

This organ never occurs in tapeworms.

A: Oral sucker B: Rostellum C: Proglottis D: Cephalic cone

A

Cephalic cone

613
Q

This organ never occurs in tapeworms.

A: Oral sucker B: Rostellum C: Proglottis D: Acetabulum

A

Acetabulum

614
Q

This stage is missing on the course of life cycle of Anoplocephala worms:
A: Gravide B: Cysticercoid C: Oncosphaera D: Plerocercoid

A

Plerocercoid

615
Q

How many hooks does the scolex of Diphyllobothrium worms have?
A: 0 B: Many C: Few D: 1

A

0

616
Q

What is the size of an egg coccon of flea tapeworms?
A: About 10 microns B: About 100 microns
C: About 2-3 mm D: About 500 microns

A

About 500 µm

617
Q

What does the mature proglottids of a Moniezia benedeni worm contain?
A: One set of sexual organs B: Many testicles
C: Central genital opening D: Two sets of sexual organs

A

Two sets of sexual organs

618
Q

Which tapeworm can infect humans?

A: Diphyllobothrium B: Moniezia C: Anoplocephala D: Diphilidium

A

Diphyllobothrium and Diphilidium

619
Q

What kind of worms produces eggs without oncosphaera?

A: Diphyllobothrium B: Moniezia C: Anoplocephala D: Diphilidium

A

Diphyllobothrium

620
Q

Which tapeworm produces eggs with angular shape?

A: Diphyllobothrium B: Moniezia C: Anoplocephala D: Diphilidium

A

Monienzia, Anoplocephala

621
Q

Even if they are infected with cestode larva, the following intermediate host are
not able to infect humans.
A: Fleas B: Copepods C: Box mites D: Fish

A

Copepods, Box mites

622
Q

These tapeworms have armed rostellum.

A: Diphylidium B: Moniezia C: Diphyllobothrium D: Anoplocephala

A

Diphylidium

623
Q

What organ is missing from the body of an adult cestode?

A: Copulatory organ B: Sucker C: Digestive tract D: Proglottid

A

Digestive tract

624
Q

What is the most preferred site of Echinococcus multilocularis larva in sheep?
A: Liver B: Lung C: Intestine D: Skeletal muscle

A

Lung

625
Q

The name of Taenia hydatigena larva is:
A: Cysticercus tenuicollis B: Cysticercus Longicollis
C: Cycticercus ovis D: Cycsticercus fasciolaris

A

Cysticercus tenuicollis

626
Q

Where do the larvae of Taenia hydatigena worms develop?

A: On the mesentery B: On the liver C: In the lung D: In muscles

A

On the liver

627
Q

Which hosts are susceptible for the larval Taenia crassiceps infection?
A: Rodents B: Rabbit C: Hares D: Dogs

A

Rodents

628
Q

This kind of Cysticercus occurs in skeletal muscles:

A: C. longicollis B: C. ovis C: C. cellulosae D: C. cervi

A

B: C. ovis C: C. cellulosae D: C. cervi

629
Q

What is the size of an Echinococcus worm?
A: Around 30-60 micrometers B: Around 3-6 centimeters
C: Around 0.5-1 decimeters D: Around 3-6 millimeters

A

D: Around 3-6 millimeters

630
Q

Intermediate host for Taenia pisiformis:

A: Sheep B: Hare C: Mouse D: Rabbit

A

Hare, rabbit

631
Q

What do the fertile cysticerci of Taenia worms contain?

A: One scolex B: Some scolices C: Many scolices D: Protoscolices only

A

One scolex

632
Q

In case of accidental ingestion, these larvae can infect humans:
A: Cysticercus bovis B: Cysticercus ovis
C: Cysticercus cellulosae D: Echinococcus hydatidosus

A

A: Cysticercus bovis, C: Cysticercus cellulosae

633
Q

This larvae has three layered wall:

A: Cysticercus B: Coenurus C: Strobilocercus D: Hydatid cyst

A

D: Hydatid cyst

634
Q

Echinococcus worms have:

A: Rostellum B: Hooks C: Two genital openings D: Many segments

A

Rostellum, hooks

635
Q

The name of Taenia taeniaformis larva is:

A: Coenurus B: Strobilocercus C: Cysticercus D: Hydatid cyst

A

Strobilocercus

636
Q

How many proglottids does the Echinococcus multilocularis worm have?
A: 3 B: 4 C: 5 D: Many

A

3

637
Q

Which hosts are susceptible for the larva Echinococcus granulosus infection?
A: Mammals B: Warm blooded animals
C: Birds D: Ungulates only

A

Mammals

638
Q

Larval stage of Taenia saginata is also called:
A: Cysticercus longicollis B: Cysticercus hydatidosus
C: Cysticercus cellulosae D: Cysticercus bovis

A

Cysticercus bovis

639
Q

What is the size of a Taenia type of egg?
A: Around 30-40 micrometers B: Around 100 micrometers
C: Around 5-10 micrometers D: Around 200-300 micrometers

A

A: Around 30-40 micrometers

640
Q

The species of this genus can act as intermediate host for Taenia saginata.
A: Bos B: Sus C: Mouse D: Cat

A

Bos

641
Q

What do the fertile caverns of Echinococcus multilocularis contain?
A: Tissue fluid only B: Protoscolices and gelatinous mass
C: Scolices and gelatinous mass D: Protoscolices only

A

Protoscolices and gelatinous mass

642
Q

Adult Taenia saginata worms have:
A: Scolex B: Hooks
C: Rostellum D: 2 sets of genital organs in each segment

A

Scolex

643
Q

Larva of this Taenia lives in subcutaneous and intermuscular connective tissue:
A: T. saginata B: T. serialis C: T. multiceps D: T. taeniaformis

A

T. serialis

644
Q

Larval stage of Taenia worms never include:

A: Coracidium B: Cysticercus C: Cysticercoid D: Coenurus

A

A : Coracidium, C : Cysticercoid

645
Q

What are the intermediate hosts of Taenia saginata?
A: Many ruminant species B: Cattle
C: Swine D: Sheep

A

Cattle

646
Q

What does the egg of Echinococcus multilocularis contain?
A: Zygote B: Blastomers
C: Five-hooked oncosphaera D: Six-hooked oncosphaera

A

Six hooked oncosphera

647
Q

This animal can carry larval Taenia taeniaeformis infection:

A: Mouse B: Rat C: Cat D: Cattle

A

Mouse, rat

648
Q

What is the adequate way to detect Taenia type of eggs in faeces?
A: Flotation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Sedimentation

A

Flotation

649
Q

What is the name of cestode larva that develops in the central nervous system?
A: Coenurus B: Cysticercus C: Plerocercoid D: Hydatid cyst

A

Coenurus

650
Q

This species of this genus can act as intermediate host for Taenia solium.
A: Bos B: Sus C: Mus D: Homo

A

Sus

651
Q

What does the sterile hydatid cyst contain?
A: Tissue fluid only B: Protoscolices and tissue fluid
C: Scolices and tissue fluid D: Protoscolices only

A

Tissue fluid only

652
Q

Where can we find genital opening on the mature segment of Taenia species?
A: In the middle B: On both sides
C: No openings on the mature segment D: On one side

A

On one side

653
Q

Tapeworm detected by the naked eye:

A

All of them

654
Q

How do you diagnose metacestodes?

A

Necropsy

655
Q

Cestode larvae in immature stage is called?

A

Cysticercus

656
Q

How do we differentiate the eggs of Echinococcus granulosa and Taenia
multiceps?

A

Cannot differentiate

657
Q

What is the Coracidium?

A

Ciliated oncosphere larvae

658
Q

If you detect Taenia type eggs in a faecal sample of a dog, it could be infected
with:

A

Taenia multiceps, Dipylidium caninum, Echinococcus granulosus

659
Q

How do you detect Cysticercus bovis?

A

Necropsy and meat inspection

660
Q

The eggs of these parasites cannot be detected:

A

E. alveolaris, C. pisiformis, C. cellulose (metacestodes)

661
Q

What kind of tapeworms is in the bile ducts of sheep?

A

None. They are in the intestine.

662
Q

Symptoms by Moniezia can be seen:

A

Under 6 months old

663
Q

What is the shape of Moniezia benedeni eggs?

A

Quadrangular

664
Q

How do we recognise eggs of M. expansa?

A

Triangular shape

665
Q

What is the most effective drug against Echinococcus?

A

Praziquantel

666
Q

What is the metacestode form of E. granulosa?

A

E. hydatidosus

667
Q

What is the metacestode form of E. multilocularis?

A

E. alveolaris

668
Q

How many times do the nematodes moult during their ontogenic development?

A

4

669
Q

What is the most important host of Haemonchus contortus?

A

Sheep

670
Q

What is the rate of mortality in case of type II ostertagiosis?

A

High

671
Q

Which of the trichostrongylid worms have the largest eggs?

A

Nematodirus

672
Q

What is the best way to detect eggs of trichostrongylids in faeces?

A

Flotation

673
Q

What is the name of the expanded chitinous mouthpart of the nematodes?

A

Buccal capsule

674
Q

What genera of worms can cause villous atrophy and erosion in the jejunum?
A: Haemonchys B: Cooperia C: Nematodirus D:Trichostrongylus

A

B: Cooperia C: Nematodirus D:Trichostrongylus

675
Q

What is the method to separate the different trichostrongylid worms in faecal
sample?
A: Flotation of eggs B: Sedimentation of eggs
C: Faecal egg count D: Faecal culture of larvae

A

Faecal culture of larvae

676
Q

Eggs of the gastrointestinal worms are:

A: Spherical B: Thin-shelled C: Contains zygote D: Thick-shelled

A

Thin-shelled

677
Q

Which worms can cause haemorrhagic gastritis amount the following ones?

A

Haemonchus

678
Q

What term is correct for the nematodes?
A: They are usually hermaphroditic B: Sexes usually are separated
C: They are covered by cutile D: They have syncytial epithel

A

B: Sexes usually are separated
C: They are covered by cutile

679
Q

What species can be found in abomasum of cattle?
A: Cooperia curticei B: Nematodirus helvetianus
C: Ostertagia ostertagi D: Nematodirus battus

A

Ostertagia ostertagi

680
Q

What kind of morphologic character does not fit for Haemonchus contortus?
A: Red-white mottled body B: Prominent cervical papillae on head
C: Smaller than 1 cm D: Buccal lancet in the mouth

A

Smaller than 1 cm

681
Q

What worms can cause submandibular oedema within the group of
trichostrongylids?
A: Cooperia B: Haemonchus C: Trichostrongylus D: Nematodirus

A

Haemonchus

682
Q

Where does the third molt of trichostrongylid larvae take place?
A: On pasture B: In lumen of gut C: In mucosa D: In blood

A

In mucosa

683
Q

What organ can be the part of the body of nematodes?

A: Spiculum B: Bursa copulatrix C: Uterus D: Acetabulum

A

Spiculum

684
Q

Which worms can produce umbilicated nodules on the surface of mucosa?
A: Ostertagia B: Cooperia C: Haemonchus D: Nematodirus

A

Ostertagia

685
Q

What type of diarrhoea can be observed during the winter form of ostertagiosis?
A: Intermittent B: Persistent C: Watery D: Profuse

A

Intermittent

686
Q

What is a correct term that characterizes the Hyostrongylus worms?
A: 5 cm B: Reddish body
C: Small cephalic vesicle D: Bisexual

A

Reddish body, small cephalic vesicle

687
Q

How long is the praepatent period of the gastrointestinal worms usually?
A: 1 week B: 3 weeks C: At least 1 month D: 3 months

A

3 weeks

688
Q

How many larval stages do nematodes have on the course of their ontogeny?
A: 4 B: 2 C: 5 D: 3

A

4

689
Q

What species can be found in jejunum of sheep?
A: Cooperia curticei B: Nematodirus helvetianus
C: Ostertagia ostertagi D: Namatodirus battus

A

A: Cooperia curticei, D: Namatodirus battus

690
Q

What morphological character does not fit for Nematodirus worms?
A: Red-white mottled body B: Coiled posture
C: Very long spicules D: Striated cephalic vesicle

A

A: Red-white mottled body B: Coiled posture

691
Q

These worms live in the stomach:

A: Cooperia B: Haemonchus C: Hyostrongylus D: Nematodirus

A

Haemonchus

692
Q

Where does the first molt of trichostrongylid larvae take place?
A: On pasture B: In lumen of gut C: In gastric gland D: In blood

A

On pasture

693
Q

What can be the name of larvae of gastrointestinal worms after second molt?
A: Infective larvae B: Pre-infective larvae C: Hypobiotic larvae D: Third larvae

A

A: Infective larvae, D. third larvae

694
Q

Which worms can produce diphtheritic gastritis?

A: Ostertagia B: Cooperia C: Hyostrongylus D: Nematodirus

A

Hyostrongylus

695
Q

What is the rate of morbidity in case of type 1 (summer form) of ostertagiosis?
A: High B: Low C: Does not occur D: Middle

A

High

696
Q

Where do the eggs of trichostrongylids hatch?

A: In the faeces B: On pasture C: In the gut D: In the mucosa

A

On pasture

697
Q

Hypobiotic period of larvae is always…,than normal praepatent period.
A: More variable B: Longer C: As long as D: Shorter

A

Longer

698
Q

Which adult worm is the smallest?

A

Hyostrongylus rubidus

699
Q

What is the cell stage of Hyostrongylus egg in vomitus?

A

4-8 cells stage

700
Q

What is the infective stage of Hyostrongylus rubidus?

A

L3 infective larvae

701
Q

What is the Latin name of gizzard worm?

A

Amidostomum anseris

702
Q

Which adult worm is the largest (max. size)?

A

Amidostomum anseris

703
Q

Gizzard worms effect:

A

Goslings, ducklings, young aquatic fowls

704
Q

Ascarid roundworms in general are…
A: Spindle shaped B: With two lips on mouth
C: Pinkish bodies D: With large buccal capsule

A

Spindle shaped

705
Q

Parascaris worms may cause…

A: Peritonitis B: Diarrhoea C: Coughing D: Ulcers

A

A: Peritonitis B: Diarrhoea C: Coughing

706
Q

What is the shape of the eggs of Parascaris worms?

A: Oval B: Elliptic C: Spherical D: Elongated

A

Spherical

707
Q

Which of the roundworms have eggs with not elongated, but ovoid shape?
A: Ascaris B: Parascaris C: Toxocara D: Ascaridia

A

Ascaris

708
Q

What is the best way to detect the eggs of Toxocara vitulorum?
A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation

A

Flotation

709
Q

Ascarid roundworms always produce…

A: Thick shelled eggs B: Oval eggs C: Thin shelled eggs D: Butyric acid

A

Thick shelled eggs

710
Q

typical autopsy/necroscopy finding on the course of acariosis is…
A: Hyperaemia B: Acetone-like odour
C: Cloudy, whitish spots on the liver D: Pneumonia

A

C: Cloudy, whitish spots on the liver D: Pneumonia

711
Q

The eggs of Toxocara canis are…

A: Subglobular B: Brown shelled C: Colourless D: Thick walled

A

A: Subglobular B: Brown shelled D: Thick walled

712
Q

The type of the life cycle for Toxocara cati can be…

A: Acaroid B: Toxocaroid C: Ascaridioid D: Parascaroid

A

A: Acaroid B: Toxocaroid

713
Q

Which roundworms occur in very young aged final hosts only, but not in adults?
A: Acaris B: Parascaris C: Toxocara vitulorum D: Ascaridia

A

Toxocara vitulorum

714
Q

Ascarid roundworms in general have…
A: Three lips on the mouth B: Two lips on the mouth
C: Pinkish body D: Buccal capsule

A

Three lips on the mouth

715
Q

Ascaris worms may cause…

A: Enteritis B: Dyspnea C: Coughing D: Obstipation

A

A: Enteritis B: Dyspnea C: Coughing

716
Q

What is the shape of the eggs of Ascaridia worms?

A: Broad oval B: Asymmetrical C: Spherical D: Elongated

A

Elongated

717
Q

Which of the roundworms have eggs with three-layered shell?

A: All of them B: Parascaris only C: Ascaris only D: Ascaridia only

A

All of them

718
Q

What is the best way to detect the eggs of Parascaris equi?

A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation

A

Flotation

719
Q

Ascarid roundworms always…
A: Produce zygote containing eggs B: Are hermaphroditic
C: Produce thin shelled eggs D: Have large bursa copulatrix

A

A: Produce zygote containing eggs

720
Q

A typical necroscopy finding on the course of toxocariosis of young animals is…
A: Enteritis B: Acetone-like odour
C: Whitish spots on the liver D: Haemorrhages in the lungs

A

A: Enteritis D: Haemorrhages in the lungs

721
Q

The eggs of Toxascaris leonina are…

A: Subspherical B: Brown shelled C: Colourless D: Thin walled

A

Subspherical, colourless

722
Q

The type of the life cycle for Toxocara canis can be…

A: Ascaroid B: Toxocaraoid C: Ascaridioid D: Parascaroid

A

A: Ascaroid B: Toxocaraoid

723
Q

A dog can be infected with…

A: Ascaris B: Parascaris C: Toxocara D: Toxascaris

A

Toxocara Tocascaris

724
Q

Ascarid roundworms in general…
A: Have three lips on the mouth B: Have no lips
C: Have separate sexes D: Have buccal capsule

A

A: Have three lips on the mouth C: Have separate sexes

725
Q

What is the surface of the eggs of Toxoscaris worms like?

A: Pitted B: Smooth C: Mamillated D: Rough

A

Smooth

726
Q

What host is susceptible for Ascaridia galli?

A: Duck B: Chicken C: Guinea fowl D: Pigeon

A

Duck, chicken, guinea fowl

727
Q

What is the best way to detect eggs of Toxocara canis?

A: Sedimentation B: Isolation C: Suspendation D: Flotation

A

Flotation

728
Q

Ascarid roundworms in general…
A: Produce morulated eggs B: Have three forms of life cycle
C: Produce thin shelled eggs D: Have large buccal capsule

A

Have three forms of life cycle

729
Q

Signs on the course of Toxocara vitulorum infection…
A: Enteritis B: Acetone-like odour
C: Whitish spots on the liver D: Abdominal pain

A

A: Enteritis B: Acetone-like odour D : abdominal pain

730
Q

The eggs of Ascaris suum have…
A: Three layers of wall B: A zygote inside when they are fresh
C: Mamillated surface D: Smooth surface

A

A: Three layers of wall B: A zygote inside when they are fresh
C: Mamillated surface

731
Q

This worm can settle in histotrop phase in the mucosa of the intestine:
A: Ascaridia B: Toxascaris C: Ascaris D: Toxocara

A

A: Ascaridia B: Toxascaris

732
Q

A cat can be infected with…

A: Ascaridia B: Parascaris C: Toxocara D: Toxascaris

A

C: Toxocara D: Toxascaris

733
Q

The size of Ascaridia eggs is…
A: 90 μm B: 100 μm
C: Less than 80 μm D: More than 100 μm

A

90 µm

734
Q

Based on the morphology of the eggs you can recognise these roundworm
species?
A: T. leonina B: T. canis
C: T. cati D: T. canis and T. cati

A

T. leonina

735
Q

PE-2 of Parascaris equorum is…

A: Toxocaroid B: Ascaroid C: Indirect D: Ascaridioid

A

Ascaroid

736
Q

Toxocara canis adult is about … long?

A: 6-10 cm B: 10-18 cm C: 20-40 cm D: 3-5 cm

A

10-18 cm

737
Q

Somatic migration of larva is related to this kind of PE-2.

A: Direct B: Ascaroid C: Ascaridioid D: Other

A

Other

738
Q

The odour of meat can be aceton-like in…

A: Calf B: Horse C: Pig D: Cow

A

Calf

739
Q

The surface of egg is smooth of this species…

A: T. canis B: T. mystax C: T. leonina D: A + B

A

T. leonina

740
Q

You can detect Toxocara vitulorum eggs from these cattle.

A: <4 months old B: 5-4 months old C: >6 months old D: B + C

A

<4 months old

741
Q

Turkeys can be infected with…

A: Ascaridia galli B: A. columbae C: A. dissimilis D: A + C

A

D : A + C

742
Q

What is the size of Ascaris suum

A

50-70 µm

743
Q

PE-2 of Toxocara vitulorum is…

A: Toxocaroid

A

Toxocaroid

744
Q

The female roundworm is…

A: Oviparous B: Ovoviviparous C: Larviparous D: B + C

A

Oviparous

745
Q

PE-2 of this/these species is not toxocaroid type?

A

Toxascaris leonina (also Ascaridia galli)

746
Q

How many ways of infection are there in roundworms of dogs?

A

4 (prenatal, galactogenically, via paratenic host and per os)

747
Q

What is the name of the roundworm species, which is PE-2 is ascaridioid type?

A

T. leonina, A. galli

748
Q

How are cats infected with roundworm?

A

Per os, paratenic host and galactogenically

749
Q

Toxocara Vitolorum cannot infect?

A

Horse, dog and cat

750
Q

What is the difference between the infection of cat and dog with roundworms?

A

Cat has no prenatal route

751
Q

What kind of methods are used for detecting roundworm eggs of piglets?

A

None

752
Q

What is the PE-2 of Parascaris equorum?

A

Ascaroid type migration (entero-hepato-pulmonary migration)

753
Q

What kind of eggs can be mixed with the eggs of A. Galli?

A

Heterakis gallinarum

754
Q

How can the birds become infected with roundworms?

A

Two ways: infection by larvated eggs or by eating paratenic host

755
Q

How many eggs of roundworms can be found in the feces of heifers?

A

No eggs in heifers as we never detect the eggs in adults

756
Q

Which method of transmission results in patency in a T. vitulorum infection?

A
Galactogenic infection (per os there is no eggs in the feces as the larvae hatch and migrate
elsewhere in the body)
757
Q

How big is the egg of Parascaris equorum?

A

90-100 μm

758
Q

What is the shape of the eggs of Parascaris equorum?

A

Spherical

759
Q

What is the color of the egg of Parascaris equorum?

A

Yellowish brown

760
Q

Roundworm that does not cause liver or lung lesions?

A

Ascaridia galli

761
Q

Which eggs have similar maximal size to Troches vulpis egg?

A

Toxocara canis

762
Q

Which roundworm species can also be found in lions?

A

T. leonina

763
Q

Symptoms of hookworm infection are the following ones:
A: Erythema B: Obstipation
C: Hyperkeratosis D: Bloody feces

A

Erythema, bloody faeces

764
Q

Freshly laid eggs of Bunostomum have…

A: Thick wall B: Blastomers C: Larva D: Zygote

A

Blastomers

765
Q

Strongyloides worms can live in the…

A: Ileum B: Abomasum C: Caecum D: Jejunum

A

Jejunum

766
Q

Adult Strongylus vulgaris worm has…
A: A buccal capsule B: 4 tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: A long tail D: 32 gut cells of the intestine

A

A buccal capsule

767
Q

Strongylidosis can be caused by worms in genus of…

A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus

A

B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus

768
Q

Strongylus equinus larvae develop in…
A: Subserosa B: Submucosa
C: Wall of arteriae D: Membrane of peritoneum

A

Subserosa

769
Q

Symptoms of disease, which is caused by dwarf worms, can be the following
ones:
A: Hyperaemia B: Oedema C: Anaemia D: Exsiccosis

A

Anaemia, Exsiccosis

770
Q

The eggs of Strongyloides in feces are…

A: Thick shelled B: Always larvated C: Always morulated D: Thin shelled

A

B: Always larvated, D: Thin shelled

771
Q

Certain species of these genera can infect the definitive host percutaneous:
A: Bunostomum B: Strongylus C: Strongyloides D: Cyathostomum

A

Bunostomum, Strongyloides

772
Q

Ancylostomes can cause haemorrhages in the…

A: Colon B: Duodenum C: Jejunum D: Ileum

A

Duodenum, Jejunum

773
Q

Symptoms of hookworm infection are the following ones:
A: Diarrhoea B: Renal failure
C: Icterus D: Circulatory collapse

A

Diarrhoea, Circulatory collapse

774
Q

Strongyloides worms can live in the…

A: Ileum B: Abomasum C: Duodenum D: Caecum

A

Duodenum

775
Q

Strongylosis can be caused by worms in genus of…

A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus

A

Strongylus

776
Q

Strongylus edentatus larvae develop in…
A: Subserosa of the gut B: Submucosa of the caecum
C: Wall of vena portae D: Liver

A

C: Wall of vena portae D: Liver

777
Q

Symptoms of disease, which is caused by small strongyles can be the following
ones:
A: Hyperaemia B: Oedema C: Colic D: Bloody feces

A

Colic

778
Q

The freshly laid eggs of Ancylostoma caninum…
A: Are thick shelled B: Contain larvae
C: Contain some blastomers D: Are thin shelled

A

C: Contain some blastomers D: Are thin shelled

779
Q

Certain species of these genera can infect the definitive host percutaneous:
A: Uncinaria B: Strongylus C: Strongyloides D: Cylicocyclus

A

Uncinaria, Strongyloides

780
Q

Uncinaria can cause hemorrhages in the…

A: Stomach B: Duodenum C: Jejunum D: Ileum

A

Duodenum Jejunum

781
Q

We can detect this type of infection by fecal inspection:
A: Strongylidosis B: Strongylosis
C: Acute cyathostomosis D: Strongyloidosis

A

Strongylidosis, Strongyloidosis

782
Q

Larvae of strongyles can be identified usually…
A: Inside the eggs B: Obtained from fecal culture
C: Obtained from fresh feces D: Obtained from mucosa

A

Obtained from fecal culture

783
Q

Male Strongyloides worms live…

A: Outside of host B: In duodenum C: In ileum D: In jejunum

A

Outside from host

784
Q

Adult Strongylus edentatus worm has…
A: Two speculums B: 2 tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: A long tail D: 20 gut cells of the intestine

A

Two speculums

785
Q

These worms live in the small intestine…

A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Bunostomum D: Uncinaria

A

A: Strongyloides C: Bunostomum D: Uncinaria

786
Q

Strongylus equinus larva has … gut cells.

A: 16 B: 32 C: 20 D: 8

A

16

787
Q

Strongyloides westeri live in…

A: Pigs B: Rabbits C: Horses D: Dogs

A

Horses

788
Q

These worms can live as adults outside the host:

A: Strongylus B: Strongyloides C: Bunostomum D: Ancylostoma

A

Strongyloides

789
Q

Species of these groups of worms can cause respiratory signs:
A: Hookworms B: Large Strongyles C: Small Strongyles D: Dwarf worms

A

Hookworms, dwarf worms

790
Q

These worms can cause clinical symptoms in young animals only:
A: Strongylus B: Strongyloides C: Ancylostoma D: Cyathostomes

A

Strongyloides

791
Q

Symptoms of hookworm infection are the following ones:

A: Hyperaemia B: Obstipation C: Hyperkeratosis D: Bloody Feces

A

Bloody faeces

792
Q

Strongylidosis cannot be caused by worms in genera of:

A: Strongyloides B: Strongylus C: Cyathostomum D: Cylicocyclus

A

Strongyloides

793
Q

The freshly laid eggs of Ancylostoma caninum are…
A: Thick shelled B: Always larvated
C: Always morulated D: Thin shelled

A

Always morulated, thin shelled

794
Q

Which species cannot infect dog?

A: A. caninum B: A. tubaeforme C: A. braziliense D: U. stenocephala

A

B: A. tubaeforme

795
Q

There are 2 tooth-like projections in the buccal capsule. This is?
A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. edentatus D: S. equinus

A

S. vulgaris

796
Q

What is the size of the eggs of the Dwarf worms?

A: 20-30 μm

A

D : 40-50µm

797
Q

The larva of this species occurs in the liver.

A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. edentatus D: S. westeri

A

S. edentatus

798
Q

You can find 8 gut cells in the L3 strongyle. This is

A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. equinus D: S. edentatus

A

Small strongyles

799
Q

The host of Bunostomosis trigonocephalum is…

A: Horse B: Pig C: Cattle D: Other

A

Other

800
Q

What is the size of the strongyle type egg of horses?

A: 20-30 μm B: 70-80 μm C: 90-100 μm D: 40-50 μm

A

70-80 µm

801
Q

What is the size of Strongyloides spp.?

A: 2-8 mm B: 5-10 cm C: 20-30 cm D: Other

A

2-8 mm

802
Q

You cannot find tooth-like projections in the buccal capsule. This is?
A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. edentatus D: S. equinus

A

S. edentatus

803
Q

Which is the longest strongyle L3?

A: S. vulgaris B: Small strongyles C: S. equinus D: S. edentatus

A

S. vulgaris

804
Q

During necropsy where can we find hookworms in the dog and cat?

A

Small intestine

805
Q

Where and how do we recognise a hookworm?

A

Small intestine, big buccal capsule with teeth like projections

806
Q

How does hookworms cause host damage?

A

They are blood feeders, and they change location causing blood loss, clotted/unclotted blood in
the feces

807
Q

How are puppies infected with hookworms?

A

Per os, percutan, galactogenic infection, prenatal and by paratenic host

808
Q

What is the difference between the infection of cat and dog with hookworms?

A

Cat has no prenatal route

809
Q

What can you detect in the fecal samples of the 2 day old piglets infected with
Strongyloides ransomi?

A

Nothing (PP is 3 days)

810
Q

During the necropsy, where can you find the adults of the Strongyloides?

A

Duodenum

811
Q

How can horses become infected with Dwarf worms?

A

Colostral and lactogenic infection

812
Q

Which animals can become infected with Dwarf worms?

A

Eq, Sus, Ru and Car

813
Q

The size of Heterakis eggs is…
A: 50-60 micrometer B: 5-80 millimeter
C: 65-80 micrometer D: 90 micrometer

A

65-80 µm

814
Q

Oesophagostomum worms have…
A: Cephalic vesicle B: Speculums
C: Large buccal capsule D: Suckers

A

A: Cephalic vesicle B: Speculums

815
Q

The length of female common pinworm is…

A: 1-2 cm B: 1-2 mm C: 4-15 cm D: 4-15 mm

A

C : 4-15 cm

816
Q

Adult whipworm has…
A: A buccal capsule B: Tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: Tapered anterior part D: Broad posterior part

A

C: Tapered anterior part D: Broad posterior part

817
Q

Whipworms can cause…

A: Typhlitis B: Itching C: Anaemia D: Obstipation

A

Typhlitis, anaemia

818
Q

The size of Ascaridia eggs is…

A: 90 μm B: 100 μm C: Less than 80 μm D: More than 100 μm

A

90 µm

819
Q

Noduluar worms live in…

A: Jejunum B: Caecum C: Abomasum D: Colon

A

Caecum

820
Q

The body of female common pinworm is…
A: Grey-white B: Pinkish
C: Equipped with short tail D: Brown

A

Grey-white

821
Q

How long are the whipworms?

A: 2-3 cm B: 2-8 mm C: 10-15 mm D: 3-8 cm

A

3-8 cm

822
Q

Eggs of these worms have polar plugs:

A: Oesophagostomum B: Oxyuris C: Capillaria D: Trichuris

A

Capilaria, Trichuris

823
Q

The surface of the Heterakis eggs is…

A: Sticky B: Smooth C: Mamillated D: Pitted

A

Smooth

824
Q

Oesoophagosomum worms have…
A: Cephalic denticles B: One ovary
C: Shallow buccal capsule D: Large buccal capsule

A

Shallow buccal capsule

825
Q

Eggs of common pinworm are…

A: Colourless B: Thin shelled C: Yellow D: Symmetrical

A

Yellow

826
Q

How many species of whipworms live in domestic ruminants?

A: 4 B: Many C: 1 D: 5

A

4

827
Q

Whipworms can cause…

A: Gastritis B: Ithcing C: Colitis D: Ulcers

A

Colitis, ulcers

828
Q

Surface of Ascaridia eggs is…

A: Sticky B: Smooth C: Mamillated D: Pitted

A

Smooth

829
Q

Adult nodular worms live in…

A: Jejunum B: Wall of intestine C: Abomasum D: Colon

A

Colon

830
Q

Eggs of common pinworm are…
A: Flattened on one side B: Thick shelled
C: White D: Larvated

A

A: Flattened on one side B: Thick shelled

831
Q

The freshly laid eggs of these worms contain morula or blastomers:
A: Pinworms B: Nodular worms C: Trichuris D: Capillaria

A

A: Pinworms B: Nodular worms

832
Q

The size of eggs of whipworms is:

A: 40-80 μm B: 20-40 μm C: 10-20 μm D: 80-100 μm

A

A: 40-80 μm

833
Q

The length of Heterakis worms is…

A: About 2-3 cm B: About 1 cm C: 0.3-0.6 cm D: 5 cm

A

About 1 cm

834
Q

Oesophagostomum venulosum lives in…

A: Cattle B: Buffalo C: Pig D: Goat

A

Goat

835
Q

Eggs of common pinworm are…

A: Spherical B: Operculated C: White D: Asymmetrical

A

Operculated, asymmetrical

836
Q

We inspect the presence of pinworms by…
A: Adhesive tape B: Flotation of eggs
C: Sedimentation of the eggs D: Fecal culture

A

Adhesive tape

837
Q

These worms have thin-shelled eggs:
A: Oesophagostomum B: Trichuris
C: Capillaria D: Oxyuris

A

A: Oesophagostomum

838
Q

Heterakis dispar infects…

A: Duck B: Pigeon C: Goose D: Turkey

A

Duck, goose

839
Q

Oesophagostomum columbianum lives in…

A: Cattle B: Sheep C: Pig D: Buffalo

A

Sheep

840
Q

Eggs of common pinworms are frequently found…

A: In feces B: On the ground C: Around the anus D: In the dung

A

Around the anus

841
Q

Species of these groups of worms can cause hemorrhagic enteritis:
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms
C: Heterakis worms D: Whipworms

A

A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms D: Whipworms

842
Q

These worms can infect pigs:
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms
C: Whipworms D: Gastrointestinal worms

A

A: Nodular worms
C: Whipworms D: Gastrointestinal worms

843
Q

Eggs of these worms have polar plugs:

A: Oesophagostomum B: Oxyuris C: Ascaridia D: Trichuris

A

Trichuris

844
Q

Which species can occur in ducks?

A: H. dispar B: H. isolonche C: H. gallinarum D: A + B

A

H. dispar

845
Q

Which species can be found in the ileum?

A: Oe. dentatum B: Oe. radiatum C: Oe. venulosum D: Oe. columbianum

A

Oe. radiatum

846
Q

What can you find in the eggs of O. equi?

A: Zygote B: L1 C: L2 D: Morula

A

Morula

847
Q

What kind of infection cannot be diagnosed with flotation method?
A: Heterakiosis B: Oesophagostomosis C: Oxyuriasis D: Trichuriosis

A

Oxyuriasis

848
Q

What is the size of Trichuris vulpis?

A: 0.1-1.0 cm B: 1.0-2.5 cm C: 3.0-8.0 cm D: >10 cm

A

3-8 cm

849
Q

Which species can occur in rabbit?

A: T. vulpis B: T. leporis C: T. discolor D: T. globulosa

A

T. leporis

850
Q

What is the size of Oxyuris equi male?

A: 0.1-1.0 cm B: 1.0-2.0 cm C: 3.0-8.0 cm D: 4.0-15.0 c

A

1-2 cm

851
Q

The eggs of H. gallinarum are very similar to…?

A: Nematodirus B: Teladorsagia C: Ascaridia D: Trichuris

A

Ascaridia

852
Q

T. discolor can infect?

A: Hare B: Sheep C: Fox D: Cat

A

Sheep

853
Q

You can find ”Lemon shaped” eggs. These are the eggs of…

A: Oesophagostomum B: Trichuris C: Heterakis D: Oxyuris

A

Trichuris

854
Q

Which species can occur in geese?

A: H. dispar B: H. isolonche C: H. gallinarum D: A + B

A

H. dispar

855
Q

The eggs are 40x90 μm in size, oviod, yellow, slightly flattened on one side
(asymmeytical, thick shelled, seemingly operculated, in the stage of morula.
This is?
A: Oe. dentatum B: T. vulpis C: O. equi D: H. gallinarum

A

O. equi

856
Q

The eggs of Oe. dentatum are very similar to…?

A: Nematodirus B: Teladorsagia C: H. rubidus D: Trichuris

A

H. rubidus

857
Q

What kind of species cannot be infected with T. vulpis?

A: Cat B: Hare C: Fox D: Dog

A

Hare

858
Q

What is the size of the minute pinworm?
A: 0.1-0.3 cm (0.2-0.3 cm) B: 1.0-2.5 cm
C: 3.0-8.0 cm D: >10 cm

A

A: 0.1-0.3 cm (0.2-0.3 cm)

859
Q

Which species cannot occur in ruminants?

A: T. ovis B: T. leporis C: T. discolor D: T. globulosa

A

T. leporis

860
Q

What is the size of Heterakis worms?

A: 0.1-1.0 cm B: 0.7-1.5 cm D: 3.0-8.0 cm D: 4.0-15.0 cm

A

0.7 - 1.5 cm

861
Q

What kind of method is used for detection O. equi infection?

A: Flotation B: Sedimentation C: Bermann D: Other

A

Other

862
Q

The eggs of Trichuris spp. are similar to the eggs of…

A: Oxyuris B: Capillaria C: Heterakis D: Other

A

Capillaria

863
Q

Which species can infect the wild boar?

A: Oe. venulosum B: Oe. suis C: Oe. columbianum D: Other

A

Other

864
Q

Names of nodular worm infections in Pigs?

A

Oe. dentatum and Oe. quadrispinulatum

865
Q

How many Oesophagostomum species exist in the pig?

A

2

866
Q

Passalurus ambiguus is what worm?

A

Pinworm of rabbits and hare

867
Q

Crenosoma worms live in…
A: Pulmonary artery B: Trachea
C: Bronchi D: Lung Parenchyma

A

Trachea, bronchi

868
Q

Metastrongylus salmi delivers…
A: 1st stage larvae B: Morulated egg
C: Eggs with larva D: Egg with zygote

A

Eggs with larva

869
Q

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi lives in…

A: Deer B: Horse C: Cattle D: Sheep

A

Horse

870
Q

Syngamus worms are most infective for hosts, which are…
A: Younger than 2-3 months B: Older than 2-3 months
C: Younger than 2-3 weeks C: Older than 1 year

A

A: Younger than 2-3 months

871
Q

Felids are susceptible to infection by these worms:
A: Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
C: Oslerus rostratus D: Dictycaulus cati

A

A: Aelurostrongylus abstrusus B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
C: Oslerus rostratus

872
Q

These infections can be detected by flotation of eggs in fecal sample:
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Angiostrongylus

A

A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria

873
Q

Dichycaulus arnfieldi appears as… in fresh feces.

A: Larva B: Larvated egg C: Egg with zygote D: Morulated egg

A

Larvated eggs

874
Q

Paratenic host might be involved in the life cycle in these worms:
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Dictyocaulus

A

Capillaria

875
Q

Their intermediate hosts are the earthworms:

A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Dictyocaulus

A

Metastrongylus

876
Q

Angiostrongylys worms live in…
A: Pulmonary arteries B: Ventricle of heart
C: Bronchi D: Lung parenchyma

A

A: Pulmonary arteries B: Ventricle of heart

877
Q

The best way of detection of Oslerus infection is…
A: Radiography or CT B: Fecal examination of larvae
C: Endoscopy of trachea D: Fecal examination of eggs

A

Trachea endoscopy

878
Q

Dictyocaulus eckerti lives in…

A: Deer B: Horse C: Cattle D: Sheep

A

Deer

879
Q

Syngamus worms occur mainly in…

A: Chickens B: Geese C: Ducks D: Pheasants

A

Chickens, pheasants

880
Q

Canids are susceptible to infection by these worms:
A: Crenosoma vulpis B: Angiostrongylus vasorum
C: Oslerus rostratus D: Dictyocaulus canis

A

A: Crenosoma vulpis B: Angiostrongylus vasorum

881
Q

Oslerus osleri lives in…

A: Pulmonary artery B: Trachea C: Bronchi D: Lung parenchyma

A

Trachea, bronchi

882
Q

These infections cannot be detected by flotation of eggs in fecal sample:
A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Angiostrongylus

A

Crenosoma, Angiostrongylus

883
Q

Metastrongylus apri appears as… in fresh feces.

A: Larva B: Larvated egg C: Egg with zygote D: Morulated egg

A

Larvated egg

884
Q

Intermediate hosts are not required for the life cycle in these worms:
A: Metastrongylus pudendotectus B: Oslerus rostratus
C: Crenosoma vulpis D: Dictyocaulus filaria

A

D: Dictyocaulus filaria

885
Q

Their intermediate hosts are snails:

A: Metastrongylus B: Capillaria C: Crenosoma D: Dictyocaulus

A

Crenosoma

886
Q

Metastrongylus worms live in…

A: Pulmonary arteries B: Ventricle of heart C: Bronchi D: Lung parenchyma

A

Bronchi

887
Q

A commercial serology test can be applied to detect this infection…
A: Aelurostrongylosis B: Dictyocaulosis
C: Angiostrongylosis D: Filaroidosis

A

A: Aelurostrongylosis

888
Q

Dictyocaulus viviparous lives in…

A: Deer B: Horse C: Cattle D: Sheep

A

Deer, cattle

889
Q

Syngamus worm lay…

A: Operculated egg B: L1 larva C: Egg with larva D: L2 larva

A

Operculated egg

890
Q

Small ruminants are susceptible to infection by these worms:
A: Dictyocaulus viviparous B: Dictyocaulus filaria
C: Dictyocaulus eckerti D: Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

A

B: Dictyocaulus filaria

891
Q

Their intermediate hosts are snails:

A: Filaroides B: Capillaria C: Angiostrongylus D: Dictyocaulus

A

Angiostrongylus

892
Q

Syngamus worms may occur in…

A: Cat B: Geese C: Ducks D: Pheasants

A

Pheasants

893
Q

These infections can be detected by flotation of eggs in fecal sample:
A: Metastrongylus B: Protostrongylids C: Crenosoma D: Angiostrongylus

A

Metastrongylus

894
Q

Syngamus worms may occur in…

A: Chickens B: Geese C: Ducks D: Humans

A

Chickens

895
Q

Which cannot be the intermediate hosts of Syngamus trachea?

A: Earthworm B: Snail C: Slug D: None of them

A

None of them

896
Q

What kind of parasitosis can occur in horses?

A: Metastrongylosis B: Dictyocaulosis C: Capillariosis D: A + C

A

Dictyocaulosis

897
Q

Which develops directly?

A: C. vulpis B: Ae. abstrusus C: A. vasorum D: C. aerophila

A

C. aerophila

898
Q

What can you find in the fecal sample of a sheep infected with Dictyocaulus
filaria?
A: L1 B: L2 C: L3 D: Larvated egg

A

L1

899
Q

What is the size of the French heartworm?

A: 0.2-0.8 cm B: 1.4-2.5 cm C: 3.5-5.5 cm D: 20-30 cm

A

B: 1.4-2.5 cm

900
Q

What can you find in the fecal sample of a dog infected with Oslerus rostratus?
A: Egg B: L1 C: L3 D: None of them

A

L1

901
Q

The earthworms are the intermediate hosts of…
A: Metastrongylus spp. B: Capillaria aerophila
C: Syngamus trachea D: B + C

A

Metastrongylus spp.

902
Q

What is the size of Syngamus trachea?

A: 0.5-3.0 cm B: 1.4-2.5 cm C: 3.5-5.5 cm D: 20-30 cm

A

0.5-3 cm

903
Q

You can find Capillaria aerophila in…

A: Cattle B: Cat C: Sheep D: Horse

A

Cat

904
Q

You can find barrel shaped eggs in the fecal sample of?

A: Oslerosis B: Aelurostrongylus C: Crenosomosis D: Capillariosis

A

Capillariosis

905
Q

How can you recognise Syngamus adults?

A

Y shaped, red females and white males in permanent copulation

906
Q

How are birds infected with Syngamus?

A

L3 larvated eggs

907
Q

What can we find in the faeces of pigs infected with lungworm?

A

Eggs containing L1

908
Q

Life cycle of Protostrongylids?

A

Indirect

909
Q

Lungworm of pigs?

A

M. salmi, M. pudendotectus and M. apri

910
Q

Shape of Syngamus eggs?

A

Ellipsoidal

911
Q

How can a dog become infected with Filaroides?

A

L1 in vomit, saliva or feces

912
Q

Which diagnostic method can detect A. vasorum?

A

Larval isloation

913
Q

Name of cat lungworm?

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

914
Q

Which lungworm has lemon shaped eggs?

A

Capillaria aerophila

915
Q

How do we detect Crenosoma vulpis?

A

L1 in the feces

916
Q

What is the correct route for ascaroid type roundworms:
A: Small intestine – trachea – lungs – pharynx – small intestine
B: Small intestine – liver – lungs – blood circulation
C: Small intestine – liver – lungs – trachea – small intestine
D: Small intestine – liver – lungs – trachea – pharynx – small intestine

A

D: Small intestine – liver – lungs – trachea – pharynx – small intestine

917
Q

Zygote containing egg of F. hepatica develops into?
A: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 4 weeks
B: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 1 week
C: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 2 weeks
D: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 4 weeks

A

C: Ciliated larva (miracidium) in water usually within 2 weeks

918
Q

What is the intermediate host of the rumen flukes?
A: Galba truncatula for all species
B: Planorbids for all species
C: Galba truncatula for Calicophoron species and shells of planorbids act as
intermediate hosts for Paramphistomum species
None of them

A

C: Galba truncatula for Calicophoron species and shells of planorbids act as
intermediate hosts for Paramphistomum species

919
Q

Where does the larva of the lancet fluke develops?
A: In the definite host
B: In the body cavity of the intermediate host to sporocyst
C: In body cavity of intermediate host to redia
D: Neither

A

B: In the body cavity of the intermediate host to sporocyst

920
Q

Difference between rumen flukes and liver flukes. ‘Rumen flukes…:
A: Never leave intestinal canal during their route from small intestine to the fore
stomach
B: Have cercariae and metacercariae stages
C: Body contains genitals
D: Have 1 intermediate host

A

A: Never leave intestinal canal during their route from small intestine to the fore
stomach

921
Q

What is the size of the eggs of F. hepatica?
A: 150-180 μm B: 120-150 μm
C: 100-120 μm D: 130-160 μm

A

B: 120-150 μm

922
Q

How long is the praepatent period of rumen flukes?
A: 16-18 weeks B: 10-12 weeks
C: 8-10 weeks D: 18-20 weeks

A

16-18 weeks

923
Q

Juvenile form of rumen flukes is found in?
A: Jejuneum C: Duodenum
C: Rumen D: Reticulum

A

Duodenum

924
Q

When is the miracidium able to hatch in the lancet flukes?
A: If ants consume egg B: Is water snail consumes egg
C: Without any consumption D: If a land snail consumes the egg

A

D: If a land snail consumes the egg

925
Q

Where does juvenile lancet flukes develop into adults?
A: Liver, through portal vein B: Biliary duct only
C: Liver, through biliary ducts D: Neither

A

C: Liver, through biliary ducts

926
Q

What is the second intermediate host of the lancet flukes?

A: Ants B: Galba truncatula C: Planorbids D: All of them

A

Ants

927
Q

How long do the infected ants of the lancet flukes survive for?
A: Maximum 1 month B: Over a year C: Maximum 1 year D: 1 day

A

C: Maximum 1 year

928
Q

Which of the following can cause dermatitis in percutan infection?
A: Ancylostomosis B: Strongyloidosis C: Parascariosis D: Ascaridiosis

A

A: Ancylostomos

929
Q

Eggs of Roundworms are … (choose correct answers)

A: Elongated B: Thick-shelled C: Ovoid D: Thin-shelled

A

Thick-shelled, Ovoid

930
Q

Which of the following are hosts of Strongloidosis westeri?

A: Pig B: Fox C: Horse D: Donkey

A

Horse, Donkey

931
Q

Which of the following is 0.5-2 cm in length?

A: Strongylus vulgaris B: Strongylus equinus C: Strongylus edentatus D: Triodontophorus

A

Triodontophorus

932
Q

What is the predilection site of adult Strongylidosis?
A: Muscle B: Stomach
C: Colon and duodenum D: Caecum and colon

A

Caecum and colon

933
Q

Diagnosis by faecal exam is not possible in which of the following?
A: Strongylosis B: Strongylidosis C: Ascaridiosis D: Toxocarosis

A

Strongylosis

934
Q

Adult Strongylus vulgaris worm has…
A: A buccal capsule B: 4 tooth-like projections in the mouth
C: A long tail D: 32 gut cells of the intestine

A

A buccal capsule

935
Q

What are the size of the eggs of the Dwarf worms?

A: 20-30 μm B: 70-80 μm C: 90-100 μm D: 40-50 μm

A

40-50 µm

936
Q

What is characteristic of S. vulgaris?

A: Slender, medium B: Slender, large C: Stumpy, short D: Stumpy, medium

A

Stumpy, short

937
Q

Strongyles may cause which symptoms in case of disease?

A: Oedema B: Colic C: Blood in faeces D: Alopecia

A

Colic

938
Q

Eggs of common pinworm are:

A: Symmetrical B: Colourless C: Thick shelled D: Yellow

A

Thick shelled, yellow

939
Q

Heterakis dispar infects:

A: Goose B: Turkey C: Duck D: Quail

A

Duck

940
Q

These worms cannot infect swine:
A: Nodular worms B: Pinworms
C: Whipworms D: All of them do not infect pigs

A

Pinworms

941
Q

We inspect pinworms’ presence by:

A: Flotation B: Sedimentation C: Adhesive tape D: Necropsy

A

Adhesive tape

942
Q

The surface of Heterakis eggs is:

A: Smooth B: Mamillated C: Sticky D: All of them

A

Smooth

943
Q

Whipworms can cause…

A: Itching B: Anaemia C: Obstipation D: Typhilitis

A

Anaemia, typhlitis

944
Q

Which species can occur in rabbit?

A: T. vulpis B: T. leporis C: T. globules D: All of them

A

T. leporis

945
Q

Which species cannot occur in ruminants?

A: T. leporis B: T. discolour C: T. globulosa D: T. ovis

A

T. leporis

946
Q

What can you find in the eggs of O. equi?

A: Zygote B: L1 C: L2 D: Morula

A

Morula

947
Q

Has a golden yellow egg, with zygote in it:

A: Liver fluke B: Rumen fluke C: Lancet fluke D: Tapeworm

A

Liver fluke

948
Q

This species has 2 intermediate hosts:

A: Paramphistomum B: D. dendriticum C: Calicophoron D: F hepatica

A

D. dendriticum

949
Q

Dendriticum is commonly found in:
A: Small grazing ruminants B: Dog
C: Fish D: Ants

A

Small grazing ruminants

950
Q

Galba truncata is the intermediate host for:

A: Paramphistomum B: F hepatica C: Calcicophoron D: D. Dendriticum

A

Calicophoron

951
Q

Planorbids is the intermediate host for:

A: Paramphistomum B: F. hepatica C: Calcicophoron D: D. dendriticum

A

Calicophoron

952
Q

Most susceptible, artificial host of F hepatica:

A: Human B: Goat C: Cow D: Mouse

A

Mouse

953
Q

Rediae are:
A: The third larval form in Fasciola B: Genitilia of trematodes
C: Radiating mouthparts in Fasciola D: Found in the body of snail

A

The third larval form in Fasciola

954
Q

What is the latin name of the red stomach worm?
A: Hyostrongylus rubidus B: A. anseris
C: T. colubriformis D: Haemonchus contortus

A

Hyostrongylus rubidus

955
Q

What is the cell stage of Hyostrongylus eggs in vomitus?
A: 8-16 cell stage B: 4-8 cell stage
C: 32 cell stage or morula stage D: 16-32 cell stage

A

4-8 cell stage

956
Q

Which morphological character is true for Haemonchus contortus?
A: Looks like barber’s pole B: Buccal lancet in the mouth
C: Haemorrhagic gastritis in necropsy D: Smaller than 1 cm

A

A: Looks like barber’s pole B: Buccal lancet in the mouth

957
Q

What is the barber’s pole worm?

A: Trichostrongylus B: Teledorsagia C: C. Nematodirus D: Haemonchus

A

Haemonchus

958
Q

Which size is the eggs of A. anseris?
A: 130-260 micrometer B: 90-100 micrometer
C: 60-80 micrometer D: 40-50 micrometers

A

90-100 µm

959
Q

Which worms can cause villanous atrophy and erosions in jejunum?
A: Cooperia B: Nematodirus C: Haemonchus D: Strongylus

A

A: Cooperia B: Nematodirus D: Strongylus

960
Q

Which organ can be part of the body of nematodes?

A: Uterus B. Acetabulum C: Bursa copulatrix D: Spiculum

A

A: Uterus C: Bursa copulatrix D: Spiculum

961
Q

Which worms can produce umbilicated nodules on the surface of mucosae?
A: Cooperia B: Ostertagia C: Nematodirus D: Haemonchus

A

Ostertagia

962
Q

Which is the Gizzard worm?
A: A. anseris B: H. contortus
C: H. rubidius D: Ostertagia ostertagi

A

A. anseris

963
Q

Clinical signs of hyostrongylosis infection:
A: Catarrhal gastritis B: Asymptomatic
C: Submandibular oedema D: Haemorrhagic diarrhoea

A

Asymptomatic

964
Q

Host of Bunostomum phlebotomum:

A: Cattle B: Swine C: Sheep and goat D: Geese

A

Cattle

965
Q

Characteristics of male nematodes:
A: Pair of testes B: Ejaculatory duct
C: Cloaca D: Copulatory bursa

A

B: Ejaculatory duct
C: Cloaca D: Copulatory bursa

966
Q

Necropsy findings of Amidostomosis:
A: Inflammation of the cloaca B: Haemorrhages on mucosa of gizzard
C: Hyperemic small intestinal mucosa D: Horny lining of gizzard is loosened

A

B: Haemorrhages on mucosa of gizzard
D: Horny lining of gizzard is loosened

967
Q

Predilection site of T. axei:
A: Abomasum of cattle B: Abomasum of sheep and goat
C: Small intestine of cattle D: Small intestine of sheep and goat

A

A: Abomasum of cattle B: Abomasum of sheep and goat

968
Q

What i the shape of threadworms in general?

A: Cylindrical B: Round C: Rectangular D: Flat

A

Cylindrical

969
Q

Is the life cycle of threadworms:

A: Indirect B: Direct C: Both D: None

A

Both

970
Q

What species can the red stomach worm affect:

A: Pig B: Wild boar C: Goat D: Cattle

A

A: Pig B: Wild boar

971
Q

What species are host for Amidostomum anseris?

A: Chickens B: Ducklings C: Goslings D: Rabbits

A

B: Ducklings C: Goslings

972
Q

What is the predilection site of Qllulanus tricuspis?

A: Small intestine B: Caecum C: Stomach D: Gizzard

A

Stomach

973
Q

How long is the Haemonchus contortus?

A: >1 cm B: 1-3 cm C: 0.3-3 cm D: 0.4-1 cm

A

1-3 cm

974
Q

Where do the eggs of Haemonchus contortus hatch?
A: In the small intestines B: In the oesophagus
C: In the caecum D: In the environment

A

In the environment

975
Q

What are the clinical signs for acute Haemonchosis?
A: Anaemia B: Submandibular oedema
C: Dermatitis D: Enteritis

A

A: Anaemia B: Submandibular oedema

976
Q

Which threadworm causes chronic catarrhal croutons diphtheric gastritis?
A: Amidostomum anseris B: Haemonchus contortus
C: Hyostrongylus rubidus D: Teladorsagia circumcincta

A

C: Hyostrongylus rubidus

977
Q

“Milk spots” can be found on the surface of the liver because of which
roundworm spp.?
A: Ascaridia columbae B: Parascaris equorum
C: Toxocara vitulorum D: Ascaris suum

A

D: Ascaris suum

978
Q

Choose the incorrect answer:
A: Roundworms are spindle shaped B: Roundworms have a buccal capsule
C: Roundworm eggs are thick shelled D: Roundworms have three lips

A

B: Roundworms have a buccal capsule

979
Q

What is bovine toxocarosis caused by?
A: Toxascaris leonina B: Toxocara bovis
C: Ascaris suum D: Toxocara vitulorum

A

D: Toxocara vitulorum

980
Q

Which of the following is correct about roundworm eggs:
A: Thin-shelled B: Have 4 layers
C: Have one-cell stage D: They are round

A

C: Have one-cell stage

981
Q

Which roundworms have a direct lifecycle:

A: Parascaris equorum B: Toxocara vitulorum C: Ascaridia dissimilis D: All of them

A

All of them

982
Q

How big are T. canis eggs?

A: 75-90 μm B: 65-75 μm C: 70-85 μm D: 50-70 μm

A

A: 75-90 μm

983
Q

Which species have ascaroid type PE-2?
A: Ascardia gallinae B: Ascaris suum
C: Toxocara canis D: Toxoascaris leonina

A

B: Ascaris suum
C: Toxocara canis

984
Q

Which species have similar eggs to Heterakis eggs?
A: Parascaris equorum B: Ascaridia columbae
C: Toxocara cati D: Ascaris suum

A

B: Ascaridia columbae

985
Q

Which species causes an acetone-like odour as a clinical sign?
A: Toxocara vitulorum B: Ascaris suum
C: Ascaridia dissimilis D: Torascaris leonina

A

A: Toxocara vitulorum