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Parasitology & Mycology > Parasitology Exam > Flashcards

Parasitology Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The roundworm that causes anal itching, common in children, and can be identified in the lab with a scotch tape prep examined under the microscope:

a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Trichuris trichiura
e. Fuligo septica

A

c. Enterobius vermicularis

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2
Q

Which of the following helminths produces an elongate barrel-shaped (football shaped) egg approximately 50 u long with a colorless polar plug at each end?

a. Ascaris lubricoides
b. Hookworm
c. Hymenolepsis nana
d. Trichuris trichiura
e. Strongyloides

A

d. Trichuris trichiura

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3
Q

The most common human helminth infection (other than pinworm)

a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Schistosome haematobium
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Loa loa
e. Burgia malayi

A

c. Ascaris lumbricoides

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4
Q

Match the helminth on the left to the description that fits on the right:

a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Loa loa
c. Necator americanus
d. Onchocerca volvulus

  1. Hookworm: Adult mouth has two pairs of teeth
  2. Hookworm: Adult mouth has cutting plates
  3. Microfilaria does not have a sheath and is found in skin
  4. Microfilaria has a sheath and is found in blood
A

a. Ancylostoma duodenale: Hookworm: Adult mouth has two pairs of teeth
b. Loa loa: Microfilaria has a sheath and is found in blood
c. Necator americanus: Hookworm: Adult mouth has cutting plates
d. Onchocerca volvulus: Microfilaria does not have a sheath and is found in skin

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5
Q

Match the genus/species of the Microfilariae below to the diagnostic morphology in this image:

  1. Brugia malayi
  2. Loa loa
  3. Onchocrca volvulus
  4. Wuchereria bancrofti

a. Sheath, no nuclei at top of tail
b. Sheath, 2 distinct nuclei in tip of tail
c. Sheath; nuclei extending to the top of tail
d. No sheath; no nuclei in the tip of tail

A
  1. Brugia malayi: B
  2. Loa loa: C
  3. Onchocrca volvulus: D
  4. Wuchereria bancrofti: A
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6
Q

This intestinal nematode adult can be up to 12 inches in length and can actively migrate to other areas of the body such as the mouth and sinus area:

a. Taenia saginata
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Trichuris thrichiura
d. Hookworm
e. Giardia lamblia

A

b. Ascaris lumbricoides

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7
Q

The tapeworm/cestode that is unique in that the egg has an operculum:

a. Hymenolepis diminuta
b. Taenia solium
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Echinococcus granulosus
e. Clornorchis sinesis

A

c. Diphyllobothrium latum

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8
Q

Modified acid fast stains are used to detect:

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Cryptosporidium and Cyclospora
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Taenia saginata
e. None of the above

A

b. Cryptosporidium and Cyclospora

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9
Q

The Plasmodium species that has gametocytes that are crescent or banana shaped:

a. P. vivax
b. P. malariae
c. P. falciparum
d. P. ovale

A

c. P. falciparum

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10
Q

Which organism best fits the description for the following:

Gravid proglottid has 7-13 uterine branches on one side

Scolex has 4 suckers and a rostellum with a double row of hooklets

a. Taenia saginata
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Loa loa
d. Taenia solium
e. Giardia lamblia

A

d. Taenia solium

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11
Q

Which of the following bests fits the description for the following:

Male and females live in the veins of the bladder

The eggs are found in the urine and have a prominent terminal spine at the base of the egg.

a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Wuchereria bancrofti
e. Schistosoma japonicum

A

c. Schistosoma haematobium

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12
Q

A stool sample arrives in the lab from the pediatric floor on a Friday evening. It had been collected 30 minutes earlier. The physician has ordered a full O&P work up. No one on the evening shift is cross-trained in parasitology. The lab parasitologist won’t be in until the following Monday.

What is the best way to handle this specimen?

a. Put the sample in the refrigerator
b. Put sample in PVA preservative and mix well
c. Put sample in formalin preservative and mix well
d. Split sample and put in formalin and PVA preservatives and mix well
e. Leave at room temperature until the next shift

A

d. Split sample and put in formalin and PVA preservatives and mix well

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13
Q

Individuals whose RBC’s are Duffy Antigen negative are resistant to infection by:

a. Plasmodium ovale
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Trypanosoma cruzi
e. Leishmania tropica

A

c. Plasmodium vivax

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14
Q

Match the descriptions on the left to the correct organism on the right:

a. Lung Fluke
b. Intestinal Fluke
c. Liver Fluke
d. Blood Fluke

  1. Schistosoma mansoni
  2. Paragonimus westermani
  3. Fasciolopsis buski
  4. Fasciola hepatica
A

a. Lung Fluke: Paragonimus westermani
b. Intestinal Fluke: Fasciolopsis buski
c. Liver Fluke: Fasciola hepatica
d. Blood Fluke: Schistosoma mansoni

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15
Q

The eggs of the tapeworm Diphyllobothrium species can be confused with the fluke eggs of Paragonimus westermani due to:

a. Egg contains developed miracidia
b. Knob at posterior end of egg (abopercular knob)
c. Operculum at anterior end of egg
d. Mammilated egg surface

A

c. Operculum at anterior end of egg

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16
Q

Match the organism on the left with the disease or common name on the right:

a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Trichuris trichiura

  1. Kala-azar
  2. Hydatid disease
  3. Pinworm
  4. Whipworm
A

a. Echinococcus granulosus: Hydatid disease
b. Leishmania donovani: Kala-azar
c. Enterobius vermicularis: Pinworm
d. Trichuris trichiura: Whipworm

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17
Q

Match the organism on the left with the disease or common name on the right:

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Brugia malayi
d. Clonorchis sinensis

  1. Amoebiasis
  2. Chinese liver fluke
  3. Dwarf tapeworm
  4. Elephantiasis
A

a. Entamoeba histolytica: Amoebiasis
b. Hymenolepis nana: Dwarf tapeworm
c. Brugia malayi: Elephantiasis
d. Clonorchis sinensis: Chinese liver fluke

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18
Q

Match the cestode (tapeworm) genus on the left with the proglottid description on the right.

a. Taenia
b. Diphyllobothrium
c. Hymenolepis
d. Ascaris

  1. Proglottids wider than long. Genital pore on the center of the top of the proglottid
  2. This genus does not have proglottids. It is a nematode
  3. Very small tapeworm, therefore don’t usually see individual proglottids
  4. Mature proglottid longer than wide. One genital pore on the side of the proglottid
A

a. Taenia: Mature proglottid longer than wide. One genital pore on the side of the proglottid
b. Diphyllobothrium: Proglottids wider than long. Genital pore on the center of the top of the proglottid
c. Hymenolepis: Very small tapeworm, therefore don’t usually see individual proglottids
d. Ascaris: This genus does not have proglottids. It is a nematode

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19
Q

This tapeworm can skip the intermediate insect host, so can be passed from human to human and continue replication within one human.

Because of this it is the most common cestode:

a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Hymenolepis dimunata
d. Hymenolepis nana
e. Diphyllobothrium latum

A

d. Hymenolepis nana

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20
Q

Which one of the following organisms best fits this description:

Amoeba trophozoite

Size: 10 - 20 um

Cytoplasm is fine and granular (may contain RBC’s)

Nucleus has fine central karyosome with thin and even peripheral chromatin

a. Blastocystis hominis
b. Entamoeba coli
c. Chilomastix mesnili
d. Iodamoeba butschilii
e. Entamoeba histolytica/dispar

A

e. Entamoeba histolytica/dispar

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21
Q

What is the typical clinical significance for Chilomastix mesnili?

a. Gastroenteritis
b. Vaginitis
c. Lymphadenopathy
d. Pneumonitis
e. Non-pathogenic

A

e. Non-pathogenic

22
Q

Match the morphology terminology to the image anatomy:

  1. Scolex
  2. Sucker(s)
  3. Immature proglottid
  4. Rostellum
  5. Gravid proglottid
A

a. Rostellum
b. Sucker(s)
c. Scolex
d. Immature proglottid
e. Gravid proglottid

23
Q

Which of the following findings in a peripheral blood smear is often associated with tissue invading helminths, but may also be found in a variety of allergic conditions and other diseases?

a. Leukopenia
b. Neutropenia
c. Eosinophilia
d. Lymphocytosis
e. Poikilocytosis

A

c. Eosinophilia

24
Q

A medical laboratory scientist working in Urinalysis (UA) may encounter the following parasites when performing urine microscopic exams:

a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
e. Both Schistosoma haemabobium and Trichomonas vaginalis

A

e. Both Schistosoma haemabobium and Trichomonas vaginalis

25
Q

A medical laboratory scientist working in Hematology may encounter the following parasites when performing manual differentials:

a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Babesia microti
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Trypanosoma cruzi
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

26
Q

The diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus infection in humans can be made by identification of:

a.Adult worms in the intestine
b. Eggs in the feces
c. Adult worms in the tissues (also serology)
d. Hydatid cysts in the tissues (also serology)

A

d. Hydatid cysts in the tissues (also serology)

27
Q

The diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercorales seen in the stool is the rhabditiform larvae. Identifying characteristics of this larval stage includes:

a. Long buccal cavity
b. Short buccal cavity
c. Prominent genital primordium
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

e. B and C

28
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant for collecting blood for preparing smears for malaria diagnosis?

a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. Red top tube (no anticoagulant)
d. Sodium Citrate
e. Sodium Fluoride

A

b. EDTA

29
Q

Sanitary disposal of human feces is a key factor in decreasing the incidence of many parasitic infections.

Which of the following diseases/transmissions would NOT be affected by proper sewage sanitation?

a. Giardiasis
b. Hookworm infection
c. Trichinosis
d. Taeniasis

A

c. Trichinosis

30
Q

Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused by:

a. Trypanosoma brucei
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Trypanosoma chagensis
d. Dracuncula medinensis
e. Leishmania braziliensis

A

b. Trypanosoma cruzi

31
Q

Which stage of Taenia solium is infective for humans?

a. Cysticerci larva
b. Embryonated egg
c. Filariform larva
d. Rhabdidtiform larva
e. A and B

A

a. Cysticerci larva

32
Q

For which of the following diseases is close contact with an infected human the main mechanism of disease transmission?

a. Schistosomiasis
b. Trichinosis
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Giardiasis

A

c. Trichomoniasis

33
Q

Which nematode species has eggs with different size ranges depending on whether the egg is fertile or infertile?

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Hymenolepis dimunata
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichuris trichiura
e. A and B

A

c. Ascaris lumbricoides

34
Q

TRUE or FALSE. For PVA preserved stool a stain that can be used instead of Trichrome stain is the Iron Hematoxylin stain:

A

TRUE

35
Q

Match the parasites to it’s ‘common name’ or site it is found:

Paragonimus westermani
Schistosoma haematobium
Schistosoma mansoni

a. Bladder fluke
b. Lung fluke
c. Blood fluke

A

Paragonimus westermani: lung fluke
Schistosoma haematobium: Bladder fluke
Schistosoma mansoni: Blood fluke

36
Q

The amoeba that are free living but can invade and infect the central nervous system (brain and CSF) are:

a. Giardia, Chilomastix and Cyclospora
b. Naegleria, Acanthamoeba, and Balamuthia
c. Iodamoeba and Endolimax
d. A and C
e. B and C

A

b. Naegleria, Acanthamoeba, and Balamuthia

37
Q

Dientamoeba fragilis is a(n):

a. Amoeba
b. Flagellate
c. Ciliate
d. Coccidia
e. Cestode

A

b. Flagellate

38
Q

Which of the following is the preservative, and main solution, for the FEA sediment concentration method?

a. PVA
b. Formalin
c. Zinc Sulfate
d. Methyl alcohol
e. Fructose

A

b. Formalin

39
Q

The one Plasmodium species that is unique in that it has a fever/paroxysm cycle that shows quartan periodicity:

a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. P. malariae

A

d. P. malariae

40
Q

Which of the following, if seen in a stool trichrome stain, can be confused with Entamoeba histolytica?

a. Entamoeba coli
b. Entamoeba dispar
c. WBC’s
d. Giardia lamblia
e. A, B, and C

A

b. Entamoeba dispar

41
Q

Match the acid fast intestinal coccidia on the left to the size and description on the right.

Cyclospora oocysts
Cryptosporidium oocysts
Cystoisospora (Isospora) oocysts

  1. 4-6 micrometers; round
  2. 8-10 micrometers; round
  3. 12-30 micrometers; football shaped
A

Cyclospora oocysts: 8-10 micrometers; round
Cryptosporidium oocysts: 4-6 micrometers; round
Cystoisospora (Isospora) oocysts: 12-30 micrometers; football shaped

42
Q

Match the following terms to the correct definition/description:

a. Definitive host
b. intermediate host
c. Vector
d. Malarial relapse

  1. An arthropod carrier/ transmitter of infectious disease
  2. The host in which the adult parasite undergoes sexual reproduction
  3. Hypnozoites dormant in the liver emerge to cause active disease, often years later. Seen in P. vivax and P. ovale
  4. The host in which asexual reproduction occurs
A

a. Definitive host: The host in which the adult parasite undergoes sexual reproduction
b. intermediate host: The host in which asexual reproduction occurs
c. Vector: An arthropod carrier/ transmitter of infectious disease
d. Malarial relapse: Hypnozoites dormant in the liver emerge to cause active disease, often years later. Seen in P. vivax and P. ovale

43
Q

Which of the following intestinal protozoa is NOT identified as a causative agent of diarrhea?

a. Entamoeba histolytic
b. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Giardia lamblia/duodenalis
d. Balantidium coli
e. Entamoeba coli

A

e. Entamoeba coli

44
Q

Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by finding:

a. Eggs in perianal specimens
b. Larvae in perianal specimens
c. Larvae in feces
d. Eggs in the feces

A

a. Eggs in perianal specimens

45
Q

The disease most commonly associated with Acanthamoeba spp. is:

a. Diarrhea
b. Keratitis
c. Liver abscess
d. Meningoencephalits

A

b. Keratitis

46
Q

Which species of Plasmodium is characterized by the presence of Schuffner’s dots in the infected erythrocytes?

a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Plasmodium knowlesi
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium ovale

A

d. Plasmodium ovale

47
Q

Which of the following is the vector for Babesia?

a. Fleas
b. Lice
c. Ticks
d. Mosquitoes

A

c. Ticks

48
Q

A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is:

a. Dientamoeba fragilis
b. Entamoeba coli
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Naegleria fowleri

A

d. Naegleria fowleri

49
Q

A 15 micrometer pear-shaped flagellate with a visible parabasal body and ‘falling leaf’ motility in a direct saline mount of a diarrheal stool specimen is most probably:

a. Balantidium coli
b. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Giardia duodenalis/lamblia
d. Trichomonas hominis

A

c. Giardia duodenalis/lamblia

50
Q

A parasite that is transmitted sexually and can lead to adverse pregnancy outcomes:

a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Trypanosoma brucei
c. Taenia solium
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

d. Trichomonas vaginalis

Parasitology & Mycology (5 decks)

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