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POD 3 > Parasitology > Flashcards

Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

How does ascaris lumbricoides infect?

A

children ingest eggs from contaminated soil, hatch in small intestine, larva penetrate intestine and get to the lung, and then back to small intestine

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2
Q

What is the clinical presentation of ascaris (round worm)?

A

pneumonitis-like condition with eosinophilia (Loffler’s syndrome)
can cause blockages

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3
Q

What else is transmitted by ascaris eggs?

A

dientamoeba flagilis and pinworm eggs

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4
Q

How is ascaris diagnosed and treated?

A

stool for opx3

albendazole and mebendazole

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5
Q

How is visceral larva migrans (toxocariasis) transmitted?

A 
dog poop (kids eat dirt contaminated with the eggs)
hatch in the small intestine, travel to liver, then lungs (eggs are not produced in humans)
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6
Q

What is the clinical presentation of visceral larva migrans?

A 
retinal lesion (resembles retinoblastoma)
asthma like attacks (elevated eosinophils)
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7
Q

How is visceral larva migrans diagnosed and treated?

A

diagnosed with ELISA

treat with albendazole and mebendazole

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8
Q

How is whipworm (trichuriasis) transmitted?

A

ingesting eggs in soil, take up residence in large intestine

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9
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of whipworm?

A

abdominal discomfort

can lead to rectal prolapse (high parasite load)

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10
Q

How is whipworm diagnosed and treated?

A

barrel shaped eggs, no elevation in eosinophils

treat with mebendazole and albendazole

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11
Q

What does the capillariasis egg resemble?

A

trichuriasis

capillariasis found in the Philippines

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12
Q

What causes angiostrongyliasis and what does it cause?

A

snails or slugs
causes human eosinophilic meningitis
can also cause RLQ pain like appendicitis

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13
Q

What form causes hookworm and how does it infect?

A

filariform larvae penetrate bare skin

goes to lungs and then the stomach/small intestine

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14
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hookworm?

A

Loffler’s syndrome

hypochromic anemia-tired

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15
Q

How is hookworm diagnosed and treated?

A

diagnosed with microscopic examination of stool
mebendazole and albendazole
ivermectin or pyrantel pamoate can also be used

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16
Q

What causes cutaneous larva migrans and how does it present clinically?

A

non-human hookworm that causes a red larva track that moves slowly
treat with albendazole

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17
Q

How does strongyloidiasis infect?

A

larvae from contaminated food or water or in feces transmitted by sexual activity, also breast milk
entry through feet lung and eventually to small intestine

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18
Q

Which organisms are capable of autoinfection?

A

pinworm
strongyloides
capillaria
hymenolepsis nana

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19
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of strongyloides?

A

Loffler’s syndrome
larva currens-fast moving
hyperinfection with dissemination can cause hyperinfection

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20
Q

How is strongyloides diagnosed and treated?

A

blood eosinophil
larvae not eggs in the stool
PCR or EIA
can be treated with Ivermectin or Albendazole

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21
Q

How is pinworm transmitted?

A

humans are only host

fecal to oral

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22
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of pinworm?

A

intense itching (particularly at night)

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23
Q

How is pinworm diagnosed and treated?

A

scotch tape test

everyone in family must be treated with mebendazole or albendazole (pyrantel pamoate alsoe)

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24
Q

How is trichinellosis transmitted?

A

undercooked meat from domestic pigs, bear, or wild boar

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25
Q

What is the life cycle of trichinella?

A

intestinal phase-mucosal irritation

muscle-invades masseters, diaphragm, gastrocnemius

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26
Q

How is trichinellosis diagnosed and treated?

A

muscle biopsy

treated with steroids and mebendazole

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27
Q

What are the adequate temperatures for cooking pig?

A

below -15 and above 77

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28
Q

How is scabies transmitted and what is different about Norwegian scabies?

A

skin to skin contact through infective mites (female mite burrows)
Norwegian-hyperinfestation and immunodeficient individuals

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29
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of scabies?

A

intense itching, especially at night

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30
Q

How can scabies be diagnosed?

A

apply blank ink and wipe off looking for the ink to remain in the burrow

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31
Q

How is scabies treated?

A

ivermectin or permethrin

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32
Q

What is the side effect for lindane?

A

aplastic anemia

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33
Q

What are the characteristics of lice?

A

physical contact
results in itchy scalp
nits are hard to remove (attached at angle on the shaft of hair)

34
Q

What is the first choice treatment for lice?

A

permethrin

35
Q

How are crab louse transmitted, described, and treated?

A

sexual contact
moving freckles
permethrin or malathion

36
Q

What is tungiasis?

A

Central and South America jigger flea infestation causing white papule with central dark dot on feet

37
Q

How is myiasis transmitted?

A 
tumbu fly (Africa) or bot fly (Central America)
female captures mosquito and glues eggs to abdomen, larva into hole in host skin and burrows
38
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of myiasis?

A

nodule with central opening for breathing

petroleum jelly or meat can be applied over the pore to bring it to the surface

39
Q

What attracts bed bugs?

A

carbon dioxide and warmth

bite only at night

40
Q

How can parasitophobia be treated?

A

ORAP (pimozide) or olanzapine

41
Q

How is Chagas transmitted?

A

bug bites man, takes a dump, man rubs in the feces (reduvid bugs)
can cross the placenta

42
Q

How does Chagas present clinically?

A

Romana sign-unilateral swelling
RBBB
megacolon and megaesophagus

43
Q

How can Chagas be diagnosed?

A

blood films

xeno-diagnosis

44
Q

What is the treatment for Chagas?

A

nifurtimox and benznidazole

45
Q

What causes African sleeping sickness?

A

tsetse fly

46
Q

What is the difference between Gambian and Rhodesian sleeping sickness?

A

Gambian-slower, enlarged lymph nodes

Rhodesian-from bushbuck, faster onset

47
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of sleeping sickness?

A

boil
delayed sensation to pain (Kerandel sign)
Winterbottom sign-Gambian only

48
Q

How is sleeping sickness diagnosed?

A

Mot cells in CSF

xeno-diagnosis

49
Q

How is sleeping sickness treated?

A

suramin

50
Q

How is leishmaniasis transmitted?

A

bite of sandfly

phelbotomus or lutzomyia

51
Q

How do the lesions for cutaneous differ globally?

A

dry in Middle East

wet in New World

52
Q

Where would you aspirate from in a leishmaniasis lesion?

A

margin of ulcer

53
Q

What form causes musculocutaneous leishmaniasis?

A

Brazilienis

leads to tapir nose

54
Q

What are the characteristics of visceral leishmaniasis?

A

enlarged spleen and liver
gray color ans sores
low white count

55
Q

How is leismaniasis treated?

A

stibogluconate sodium or liposomal ampho B

56
Q

How can malaria be transmitted?

A

blood transfusions, IV drug abuse, mother to fetus

57
Q

Which forms of malaria are most common?

A

vivax and falciparum

58
Q

What forms a protection from malaria?

A 
sickle trait
melanesian ovalocytosis
G6PD deficiency
thalassemia
duffy negative (particularly for vivax)
59
Q

What is the life cycle of malaria?

A

female anopheles carries sporozoites

invade heaptocytes and release as merozoites and then infect RBC

60
Q

Which forms of malaria can become dormant? What can they be treated with?

A

vivax and ovale

treat with primaquine

61
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of malaria?

A

cyclic fever and chills (not in falciparum)
falciparum-flu like
can lead to hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis
severe anemia

62
Q

Which form causes microvascular sequestration?

A

falciparum

leads to seizures (high cause of mortality in pregnancy)

63
Q

How is malaria diagnosed?

A

thick and thin blood smears

64
Q

How is malaria treated?

A

chloroquine in Central America (psoriasis flare)
malarone
mefloquine-paranoia
doxy-can lead to vaginal yeast infection

65
Q

When should you hospitalize a patient with malaria?

A

greater than 3% or falciparum

66
Q

When can artemesinin be used?

A

uncomplicated falciparum

67
Q

What causes babesiosis?

A

bite of tick

common in NE and WI

68
Q

How can babesiosis be diagnosed?

A

Giemsa-stained thick and thin blood smears

69
Q

How is babesiosis treated?

A

clina and quinine or atovaquone and azithro

70
Q

What is suppressive therapy?

A

elimination of parasite responsible for acute symptoms

71
Q

What is the clinical cure?

A

removal of all parasites from blood

72
Q

What is the radical cure?

A

elimination of all parasites from blood

73
Q

What is causes resistance to chloroquine?

A

pfcrt gene-codes for trnasport protein in membrane of acidic vacuole

74
Q

What is a risk of primaquine treatment?

A

must check for G6PD before treatment

75
Q

What is a side effect of quinine treatment?

A

tinnitus (cinchonism)

76
Q

What is the MOA for pyrimethanmine?

A

irreversibly inhibits DHF reductase

77
Q

What is a side effect of metronidazole? When is it used?

A

amebiasis

causes alcohol intolerance

78
Q

What is the MOA for mebendazole?

A

inhibits tubulin

79
Q

What is the MOA for Ivermectin?

A

GABA receptor agonist causing paralysis

80
Q

What is the MOA of pyrantel pamoate?

A

depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent

POD 3 (4 decks)

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