Paramedic Pearls Flashcards
1
Q
A build up of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac that puts pressure on the heart, which may prevent it from pumping correctly.
A
Cardiac Tamponade
2
Q
S/S- Dyspnea and orthopnea, clear lung sounds, rapid and weak pulse, decrease in systolic BP, pulsus paradoxus, narrowing pulse pressure, muffled heart tones.
A
Cardiac Tamponade
3
Q
S/S- Acute onset of chest pain or SOB, altered mental status or unconsciousness, general weakness, restlessness, confusion, coma, dyspnea, productive cough, labored breathing, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, tripoding, tachycardia.
A
Cardiogenic Shock
4
Q
Treatment for flailed chest?
A
Stabilize flail segment with a bulky dressing. Do not use a sandbag.
5
Q
Treatment for a sucking chest wound?
A
Occlusive dressing sealed on 3 sides. Monitor for loss of compliance while bagging.
6
Q
High HR, Low BP, think?
A
Bleed or dehydration
7
Q
Flat jugular veins when supine?
A
Bleed, dehydration, or HHNK
8
Q
Hot skin in a shock patient, think?
A
Septic Shock
9
Q
Female patient on birth control and/or smoking with SOB, think?
A
Pulmonary Embolism
10
Q
Hives and laryngeal edema, think?
A
Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock
11
Q
Cool, clammy skin, think?
A
Shock
12
Q
Sudden onset of vomiting or diarrhea, think?
A
Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock
13
Q
S/S- Cool, clammy skin above, warm dry skin below, low BP, low HR.
A
Neurogenic Shock
14
Q
Difference between Neurogenic Shock and Spinal Shock?
A
Spinal Shock is temporary
15
Q
Hives? Think?
A
Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock
16
Q
Person on ACE inhibitor with laryngeal edema and stridor, think?
A
Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock
17
Q
Black, tarry stools, think?
A
Lower GI bleed
18
Q
Bright red blood in stool (hematochezia), think?
A
Hemorrhoid
19
Q
Patient states “My heart is beating out of my chest”, think?
A
SVT
20
Q
Most common cause of SVT?
A
Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome (WPW)
21
Q
Crushing substernal chest pain, think?
A
Myocardial Infarction
22
Q
Treatment for MI?
A
MONAMorphine 2-4mg IVPOxygenNitro .3-.4mg sublingualAspirin 160-325mg PO
23
Q
Sudden onset of SOB?
A
Pulmonary Embolism
24
Q
Patient has JVD, think?
A
Right side failure
25
Any female of child bearing age with abdominal pain, think?
Ectopic pregnancy
26
Tall, skinny males with sudden onset of SOB, think?
Spontaneous Pneumothorax
27
Tall, skinny people affected. Genetic disease that presents with weakness in arterial walls. Often aneurysm history, think?
Marfrans Syndrome
28
#1 cause of pulmonary edema?
Left side failure
29
#1 cause of left side failure?
Myocardial Infarction
30
#1 cause of right side failure?
Left side failure
31
Only reason not to disrobe a trauma patient?
The environment
32
S/S- Vaginal bleeding with pain, sudden sharp, tearing pain, stiff, boardlike abdomen, massive hemorrhage, 3rd trimester.
Abruptio Placentae
33
S/S- Lightheadedness, breathlessness, weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, @6600ft.
Acute Mountain Sickness
34
S/S- Progressive weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite, weight loss, hyper pigmentation of the skin, vomiting or diarrhea.
Addison's Disease (Hypoadrenalism)
35
S/S- Short term memory loss, shuffling gait, stiffness of body muscles, aphasia, psychiatric disturbances, decorticate.
Alzheimers
36
Angina caused by artery spasm?
Prinzmetals angina
37
S/S- Sudden onset of chest discomfort, radiating pain, epigastric pain, SOB, elevated BP during episode, pain lasting 3-5 minutes as long as 15 minutes.
Angina Pectoris
38
Angina that occurs with activity and is relieved by rest?
Stable angina
39
Angina that occurs with rest and lasts beyond 15 minutes?
Unstable angina
40
S/S- dyspnea, wheezing, cough, one or two word dyspnea, pulsus paradoxus, tachycardia, decreased O2 saturation, agitated, anxious?
Asthma
41
2 stages of asthma?
Stage 1- Bronchospasm| Stage 2- Inflammatory response
42
Treatment for asthma?
AlbuterolOxygenEpinephrine
43
S/S- Localized bite, redness, swelling, muscle spasms of large muscle groups, nausea and vomiting, sweating, seizures, paralysis, decreased LOC?
Black Widow spider bite
44
Treatment for muscle spasms in Black Widow bite?
Diazepam (Valium) 2.5-10mg IVPCalcium Gluconate .1-.2mg/kg of 10% solution IVAnti venom if available
45
S/S- Painless, small erythematous macula surrounded by a white ring, chills, fever, nausea and vomiting, joint pain, tissue necrosis days, to weeks after bite?
Brown Recluse spider bite
46
S/S- Headache, nausea and vomiting, confusion, tachypnea, agitation, loss of coordination, chest pain, LOC, seizure, cyanosis, bright cherry red skin?
CO poisoning
47
S/S- Wenckebach and PVC's on monitor, blunt trauma to the sternum?
Cardiac Contusion
48
S/S- Respiratory symptoms, malaise, low grade fever, rash that starts on the face and trunk?
Chicken Pox
49
S/S- Produces considerable quantities of sputum, productive cough for at least 3 months per year for 2 or more years, overweight, cyanotic, rhonchi, right heart failure if they JVD,
Chronic Bronchitis
50
Classic sign of right sided heart failure?
JVD and peripheral edema
51
S/S- Localized numbness, weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, slurred speech and excessive salivation, paralysis of tongue and larynx, drooping of eyelids, double vision, dilated pupils, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, LOC, seizure, respiratory failure, hypotension?
Coral snake bite
52
Red on yellow will kill a fellow? Type of snake.
Coral snake bite
53
S/S- GI bleeding, recent weight loss, intermittent abdominal cramping, pain, nausea, and vomiting, diarrhea and fever?
Crohns Disease
54
S/S- Loud seal bark cough, tachypnea, grunting while breathing, wheezing, acute respiratory distress during the night?
Croup
55
S/S- Burning sensation in the mouth and throat, headache, confusion, combative behavior, hypertension, tachycardia, seizures, coma, pulmonary edema?
Cyanide Poisoning
56
S/S- Joint and abdominal pain, fatigue, paresthesis, CNS disturbances, associated with diving?
Decompression Illness, "The Bends"
57
S/S- Slow onset, diuresis, dry, warm skin, excessive hunger and thirst, malaise, tachycardia, feelings of physical weakness, kussmaul respirations, fruity or acetone like smell, hyperglycemia, acidic pH, hypokalemia, decreased mental function, coma?
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
58
Caused by the body burning fat instead of sugar?
DKA
59
3 classic signs of diabetes mellitus type 1?
Polyuria (Excessive Urination)Polydipsia (Excessive Thirst)Polyphagia ((Excessive Hunger)
60
S/S- Lower left side pain, low grade fever, colicky pain, nausea and vomiting, tenderness on palpation, cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, diaphoresis, hematochezia?
Diverticulitis
61
S/S- Barrel chest, decreased chest excursion with prolonged expiratory phase, rapid resting respiratory rate, thin, pink in color, hypertrophy of accessory muscles, pursed lips, clubbing of fingers, right heart failure (JVD, peripheral edema, or hepatic congestion). Severe signs include: confusion, agitation, somnolence, one to two word dyspnea, use of accessory muscles, pink puffers?
Emphysema
62
Kussmaul Sign?
JVD upon inspiration/Pulsus paradoxus
63
S/S- Decreased LOC, fever, headache, drowsiness, coma, tremors, stiff neck and back, seizures?
Encephalitis
64
Cushings Reflex?
BP up, pulse same or down, erratic breathing
65
S/S- Muffled voice or cry, sore throat, pain with swallowing, difficulty swallowing, drooling, stridor?
Epiglottitis
66
S/S- Agitation, emotional changeability, insomnia, poor heat tolerance, weight loss despite increased appetite, weakness, dyspnea, tachycardia?
Graves Disease (Hyperthyroidism)
67
S/S- Cramps in fingers, arms, legs, or abdominal muscles, mentally alert, weakness, dizziness, moist and warm skin?
Heat Cramps
68
S/S- Increased body temp, cool and clammy skin, rapid and shallow breathing, weak pulse, possible diarrhea, muscle cramps, weakness, headache, anxiety, paresthesia, impaired judgement?
Heat Exhaustion
69
S/S- >105 temp, cessation of sweating, hot skin that is dry or moist, very high core temp, deep respirations that become shallow, rapid at first but may slow, rapid full pulse may slow later, hypotension with low or absent diastolic reading, confusion or disorientation, unconscious, seizures?
Heat Stroke
70
S/S- Blunt or penetrating chest trauma, signs and symptoms of shock, dyspnea, dull percussive sounds over site collecting blood?
Hemothorax
71
Treatment for hemothorax?
O22 large bore IVsMonitor breath sounds
72
S/S- Weight gain, moon face appearance, buffalo hump, thinning or transparent skin, mood swings, impaired memory or concentration. Too much cortisol?
Hyperadrenalism (Cushings Syndrome)
73
S/S- Diaphoresis, increased skin temp, flushing, altered LOC?
Hyperthermia
74
S/S- Altered mental status, bizarre behavior, diaphoresis, tachycardia, seizure, quick onset, blood sugar <90?
Hypoglycemia
75
S/S- Temp between 90-95, lethargy, shivering, lack of coordination, pale, cool dry skin, early rise in BP, heart and resp?
Mild Hypothermia
76
S/S- Temp <90, no shivering, dysrhythmias, loss of voluntary muscle control, hypotension, undetectable pulse and respirations, J-waves on ECG?
Severe Hypothermia
77
S/S- Fatigue, decreased mental function, lethargy, cold intolerance, constipation, decreased appetite with increased weight gain?
Hypothyroidism (Myxedema)
78
S/S- Altered mental status, one or two word dyspnea, cyanosis, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), hypoxia, cough, hoarseness, vague chest pain, fever, chills, pleuritic chest pain, crackles, wheezes, diminished breath sounds heard in affected lung, profound wait loss (severe)?
Lung Cancer
79
Treatment for marine animal injection?
Establish and maintain airwayApply light constricting band between wound and heart to occlude lymphatic flowApply heat or hot waterInactivate or remove stinger
80
S/S- Full body rash, hacking cough, runny nose, high fever, watery red eyes, kopliks spots (red spots with blue-white centers that appear in the mouth). Viral disease?
Measles
81
S/S- High fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea and vomiting, discomfort looking into bright lights, confusion, sleepiness, seizure. Classic sign is high fever. 6 year old kid with high temp for 2 days?
Meningitis
82
S/S- Chest pain, elevated BP during episode, chest pain that last more than 30 minutes, pain radiates to arms, neck, or back. Acute onset of nausea and vomiting, nitro and rest offer no relief, feeling of impending doom?
MI
83
Classic sign of MI?
Crushing substernal chest pain
84
Most heart attacks occur where?
Left ventricle
85
S/S- Fever, headache, loss of appetite, pain and swelling in parotid gland, viral?
Mumps
86
S/S- Altered level of consciousness, impaired judgement, drunkedness, also know as "rapture of the deep"?
Nitrogen Narcosis
87
S/S- Penetrating chest trauma, sucking chest wound, frothy blood at wound site, dyspnea, hypovolemia. Has to be 3mm or larger to be a problem?
Open Pneumothorax
88
Treatment for Open Pneumothorax?
High flow O2| Cover opening with sterile occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides
89
S/S- Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movement), postural instability. Caused by lack of dopamine in the brain?
Parkinson's Disease
90
Treatment for Pit Viper bite?
```Keep patient supineImmobilize limb with splintMaintain extremity in neutral positionDo not apply constricting bandO2IVCrystalloid FluidsTransport```
91
#1 cause of bleeding in 3rd trimester?
Placenta Previa
92
S/S- Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Takes place in 3rd trimester?
Placenta Previa
93
What is Becks Triad?
JVDNarrowing Pulse PressureMuffled Heart Sounds
94
S/S- Substernal chest pain, irregular pulse, abnormal heart sounds, low BP, narrow pulse pressure, change in voice?
Pneumomediastinum
95
S/S- Chills, deep productive cough, yellow to brown sputum often streaked with blood, pleuritic chest pain. More prone to get disease if on steroids?
Pneumonia
96
S/S- Trauma to the chest, chest pain on inspiration, hyperinflation of chest, diminished breath sounds to affected side?
Pneumothorax
97
Treatment for Pneumothorax?
Chest Decompression
98
Difference between Pneumothorax and Tension Pneumothorax?
Tension has:JVDTracheal DeviationSometimes narrowing pulse pressure
99
Treatment for Open Pneumothorax?
First, cover with gloved hand and place occlusive dressing over the wound
100
S/S- Excessive salivation, lacrimation, diaphoresis, abdominal cramps, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, decrease LOC, eventually coma?
Poisonous Plant or Mushroom ingestion
101
What is SLUDGE?
```SalivationLacrimationUrinationDefecationGastrointestinal UpsetEmesis```
102
What is Hemoptysis?
Coughing up blood
103
S/S- Blunt or penetrating chest trauma, increasing dyspnea, hypoxia, increasing crackles, diminishing breath sounds, hemoptysis, signs and symptoms of shock?
Pulmonary Contusion
104
S/S- Sudden onset of severe unexplained dyspnea, possible pleuritic chest pain, possible cough, labored breathing, tachypnea, tachycardia?
Pulmonary Embolism
105
Treatment for PE?
High flow O2 and Transport
106
What is a Thrombus?
Blood Clot
107
When someone is hyperventilating, what metabolic disorder are they in?
Respiratory Alkalosis
108
S/S- Sore throat, rhinorrhea, chills, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, cough, sputum production, respiratory stress, respiratory failure?
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
109
S/S- Thrombosis in the brain, gradual onset, often occurs after periods of rest?
Occlusive Stroke
110
S/S- Facial drooping, headache, confusion, dysphasia, aphasia, dysarthria, vision problems, hemiparesis, hemiplegia, paresthesia, inability to recognize touch, gait disturbances, uncoordinated fine motor movements, dizziness, incontinence, coma?
Stroke
111
S/S- Complains of worst headache of their life?
Hemorrhagic Stroke
112
Treatment window for suspected Occlusive Stroke?
3-4.5 Hours
113
Most common emboli?
Thrombi
114
S/S- Chest trauma, severe dyspnea, vent/perfusion mismatch, hypoxemia, hyperinflation of affected side of chest, diminished then absent breath sounds, cyanosis, diaphoresis, altered mental status, JVD, hypotension, hypovolemia, narrowing pulse pressure?
Tension Pneumothorax
115
S/S- High fever (106 or higher), irritability, delirium or coma, tachycardia, hypertension, vomiting, diarrhea. Usually as the result of ingestion of thyroid product?
Thyrotoxic Crisis or Thyroid Storm
116
S/S- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, hallucinations, hyperthermia, respiratory depression, seizures, tachycardia, hypotension, cardiac dysrhythmias?
Tricyclic Antidepressant Toxicity
117
Treatment for Tricyclic Antidepressant overdose?
Sodium Bicarb
118
S/S- Nausea, weakness, fatigue, rapid weight loss, fever, night sweats, cough, chest pain, hemoptysis?
Tuberculosis
119
When caring for TB patients what BSI precaution must you wear?
N95 Respirator
120
What is the division of the Upper and Lower GI System?
Ligament of Treitz
121
S/S- Abdominal discomfort, upset stomach, gas pain, tearing pain in upper quadrants, nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, melena, tachycardia?
Upper GI Bleed
122
What is myalgia?
Muscle pain
123
S/S- fever, chills, myalgias, fatigue, usually viral?
Upper Respiratory Infection
124
S/S- Coarse tremor of hands, tongue, eyelids, nausea and vomiting, general weakness, increased sympathetic tone, tachycardia, sweating, hypertension, orthostatic hypotension, anxiety, irritability, hallucinations, poor sleep?
Withdrawal Syndrome
125
Normal vital signs at birth?
Resp- 30-60HR- 100-180Systolic BP- 60-90
126
Normal vital signs for preschool age (3-5)?
Resp- 22-34HR- 70-110Systolic BP- 95-110
127
Normal vital signs for Adolescence?
Resp- 12-26HR- 60-90Systolic BP- 112-128
128
What does APGAR stand for?
```ActivityPulseGrimaceAppearanceRespiration```
129
How often after birth do you evaluate the APGAR score?
1 and 5 minutes following birth
130
Name 5 components of the Initial Impression?
1. Form a general impression2. C-spine control as needed3. Assess baseline mental status4. ABC's5. Determine priority
131
The way we evaluate oxygenation of blood in the body?
Fick Principle
132
Normal PaCO2 level?
35-45mmHg
133
Normal PaO2 level?
80-100mmHg
134
Rhonchi?
Mucus in the airway
135
Crackles?
Fluid in the lower airway, pulmonary edema
136
Stridor?
Upper airway obstruction, FBAO, epiglottitis in children older than 3-4
137
Wheezing?
Fluid in lower airways, bronchoconstriction, associated with asthma
138
What causes snoring respirations?
Soft tissues in back of the throat, usually tongue
139
Best way to determine good respirations?
End tidal CO2 detector or Capnogram
140
Least advised way to insert ET tube?
Digitally
141
Right side hypertrophy brought on by long term hypertension?
Cor Pulmonale
142
What is Pulsus Paradoxus?
Drop in pulse and 10mmHg BP during inspiration
143
What is the most frequent infection that affects smokers?
Bronchitis, then pneumonia
144
A liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs?
Surfactant
145
Alveolar collapse that prevents the use of that portion of the lung for ventilation and oxygenation?
Atelectasis
146
What is the exchange of gases between a living organism and the environment?
Respirations
147
What is air movement in and out of the lungs? Does not guarantee respirations.
Ventilation (Mechanical)
148
What is the average volume of gas inhaled and exhaled in one respiratory cycle?
Tidal Volume (500ml)
149
What gives you the best seal when using BVM?
E-C, 2 person BVM
150
Nasal intubation is contraindicated in the presence of what?
Apnea
151
Primary concern of Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
Minute volume
152
Treatment for Pulmonary Edema?
NitroLasixMorphineCPAP
153
A selective Beta-2 agonist that can be used as a breathing treatment? Can also stop contractions.
Terbutaline
154
What is Kussmaul's Sign?
Rise of jugular vein upon inspiration
155
What is Succinylcholine and its dose?
Used for Rapid Sequence Intubation, 1-1.5mg/kg
156
Any abnormal condition that effects the hearts arteries that produces various effects, especially reducing the flow of O2 and nutrients to the myocardium?
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
157
Most common form of CAD?
Atherosclerosis
158
Occlusion of arteries with fatty deposits and cellular debris?
Atherosclerosis
159
Calcification of the arteries causing loss of elasticity?
Arteriosclerosis
160
S/S- Pedal edema, ascites, pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, cough, decreased BP, nausea and vomiting, pitting edema, anxiety, confusion, JVD, weak pulse, decreased urine output?
CHF
161
Backwards left sided heart failure presents with what?
Pulmonary Edema
162
Forwards left sided heart failure presents with what?
Hypotension
163
Right sided heart failure presents with what?
Peripheral edema
164
Wheezing in cardiac patient caused by left sided failure and fluid in the lungs is know as what?
Cardiac asthma
165
S/S- Weak, strong, weak, strong, pulse quality alteration?
Pulsus Alterans
166
Monitor shows varying amplitude of weak, strong, weak, strong?
Electrical Alterans
167
A condition involving sudden fainting which usually lasts for less than a minute and may include seizures. Before the attack patient becomes pale and during recovery the patient often feels hot and flushed. Fainting occurs due to a lack of O2 in the brain due to heart rhythm problems involving slowing of the heart.
Stokes Adams Syndrome
168
Anti-hypertensive that blocks the cellular uptake of calcium. Causes a decrease in SA and AV node automaticity. Examples are Verapamil, Cardizem. Chief side effects are hypotension and bradycardia.
Calcium Channel Blocker
169
Blocks Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptor sites. Decreases HR and BP. Examples are Propranolol, Acebutolol, Esmolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol.
Beta Blockers
170
Beta Blocker overdose treatment?
Glucagon
171
What is the separation of the tunica medica from the tunica adventitia, causing referred pain to the left shoulder, upper back, and chest?
Aortic Aneurysm
172
S/S- Pain referred to lower back, possible pulsating mass in abdomen and feeling of impending bowel movement?
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
173
S/S- Tearing chest pain that radiates to the back or shoulder blades, radial pulse discrepancy?
Thoracic Aneurysm
174
What is a common cause of an idioventricular rhythm?
AAA
175
Role of ASA in the patient with chest pain?
ASA is a platelet aggregate. It makes platelets slippery keeping the clot from getting larger.
176
What is the S1 sound?
Mitral and Tricuspid valves closing
177
What is the S2 sound?
Aortic and Pulmonic valves closing
178
When is the S3 and S4 sound heard?
CHF, elderly with heart disease, indicative of valve failure
179
The heart is what kind of pump?
Sodium Potassium Pump
180
Cardiac Output=
Stroke Volume x Heart Rate
181
What law states the greater the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole, the greater the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction?
Starlings Law
182
A nerve plexus of the autonomic nervous system supplying the heart and neighboring structures?
Cardiac Plexus
183
Blood and IV fluids have what kind of osmolarity?
Isotonic
184
Rhythm Hallmarks- Chaotic and irregular, no pulse/breathing?
V-Fib
185
Rhythm Hallmarks- Long PRI
1st degree heart block
186
Rhythm Hallmarks- PRI grows then drops a beat, usually grouped beats.
2nd degree, type 1 (Wenckebach)
187
Rhythm Hallmarks- PRI constant with conducted beats, dropped beats present.
2nd degree, type 2 (Classical)
188
Rhythm Hallmarks- No correlation between P's and QRS's?
3rd degree heart block, complete block
189
Rhythm Hallmarks- No P wave or inverted P wave?
Junctional Rhythm
190
Treatment for Stable V-Tach?
150mg Amiodarone IV, given over 10 minutes. Repeat as needed to a max dose of 2.2g in 24 hours.
191
Treatment for Unstable V-Tach?
Synchronized Cardioversion
192
You see Asystole on the monitor, what is your next step?
Check in another lead
193
Asystole on the monitor, what is first drug of choice?
Epinephrine 1mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes. Could also use Vasopressin 40u for 1st or 2nd dose of Epi.
194
Vagal or Valsalva maneuvers will only work on what type of rhythms?
SVT's
195
What is the treatment for a patient with stable SVT?
Vagal maneuver first, then| Adenosine 6mg, 12mg, 12mg
196
What is the most common reperfustion rhythm?
2nd degree, type 1 (Wenckebach)
197
When ST elevation is seen across all leads, think?
Pericarditis
198
Treatment for patient with atrial flutter?
IVO2Supportive careTransport
199
When does the relative refractory period begin?
At the apex of the T wave
200
What does Nitro do?
Dilates coronary arteries, reducing the workload on the heart.
201
Treatment for Morphine overdose?
Narcan 2-4mg IVP
202
What causes heart blocks and yellow vision?
Digitalis Toxicity
203
Treatment for a hypertensive emergency?
IV at TKOO2Transport
204
What is a decrease in arterial perfusion at the calf muscle, causing pain?
Claudication
205
Angiotensin causes what to the blood vessels?
Constriction
206
Good cholesterol?
HDL
207
Bad cholesterol?
LDL
208
Low levels of calcium in the blood that may lead to dysrhythmias?
Hypocalcaemia
209
The law that the volume flow of an incompressible fluid through a circular tube is equal to pie/8?
Poiseuille's Law
210
This is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures?
Pulse Pressure
211
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)=
1/3 pulse pressure+ diastolic
212
Beta-1 response to Epi does what?
Increase HR
213
This part of the brain controls higher thought and judgement, sight, memory and cognitive function?
Cerebrum
214
This part of the brain controls fine motor control?
Cerebellum
215
What is the Parasympathetic Neurotransmitter?
Acetycholine
216
What is the Sympathetic Neurotransmitter?
Norepinephrine
217
Brain can last how long without perfusion?
3-6 seconds
218
SVT is considered when the HR is over how many BPM?
160
219
What is the short period immediately after depolarization in which myocytes are not yet repolarized and are unable to fire or conduct an impulse?
Absolute Refractory Period
220
This period is between the effective refractory period and the end of the refractory period; a period of a few milliseconds following the absolute refractory period during which the excitation threshold of neural tissue is raised and a stronger than normal stimulus is required to initiate an action potential?
Relative Refractory Period
221
What is Becks Triad, and what is it associated with?
JVDMuffled Heart TonesNarrowing Pulse PressureSeen in Cardiac Tamponade
222
What type of overdose can cause numbness, tingling, and seizures?
Lidocaine OD
223
Dose for Dopamine drip?
2-10mcg/kg/min
224
What system is designed to keep blood pressure up?
Renin/Angiotensin
225
IV flow is least affected by the length of the catheter as opposed to its?
Diameter
226
What is the Beta-1 response to Epi?
Increased HR
227
At what MAP is the brain profused?
60mmHg
228
Norepinephrine works on what receptor sites?
Alpha, Beta, Dopaminergic Receptors
229
What nerve does acetycholine work on?
Vagus Nerve
230
What contains 50% of of the sugar volume in the entire body?
Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF)
231
Also known as the oculomotor nerve, this nerve allows for pupil constriction and eye movement?
3rd Cranial Nerve
232
With a head injury and brain swelling you will sometimes see constricted pupils, this is due to pressue on the tentorium of the brain on which cranial nerve?
3rd Cranial Nerve
233
Also called the trigeminal nerve, this never is responsible for most facial sensations?
5th Cranial Nerve
234
Also called the facial nerve, when this nerve swells it can cause facial paralysis or Bells Palsy which can be confused for a stroke?
7th Cranial Nerve
235
Also called the vagus nerve, this nerve is the connection between the brain and numerous organs?
10th Cranial Nerve
236
Stages of Seizure?
```AuraTonic ClonicPostseizurePostictal```
237
A sensation the patient gets before a seizure? Also the first stage of seizure.
Aura
238
This phase of seizure includes body wide rigidity?
Tonic Phase
239
This phase of seizure involves rhythmic contractions of major muscle groups?
Clonic Phase
240
This phase of seizure is when all the muscle relax, the eyes may roll back?
Postseizure
241
The phase of seizure is the reset period for the brain? May last several minutes or several hours.
Postictal
242
This type of seizure involves the whole body?
General Seizure
243
This type of seizure just involves part of the body?
Partial Seizure
244
These are also known as "fake" seizures?
Pseudoseizures
245
Also called Tonic/Clonic, this type of seizure leaves the patient unconscious and involves shaking and jerking the entire body?
Grand Mal Seizures
246
This seizure, also called an absence seizure, involves 10-30 seconds of seizure activity marked by starring episodes or loss of motor control?
Petit Mal Seizure
247
This type of seizure lasts longer than 4-5 minutes or
Status Epilepticus
248
Treatment for Status Epilepticus?
Vailum
249
A common chronic neurologic disorder that is characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures?
Epilepsy
250
Sedative hypnotic drugs that provide muscle relaxation and mild sedation, includes Diazepam (Valium), and Medazolam (Versed)?
Benzodiazepines
251
Sustained contractions of both agonist and antagonist muscles. Twisting movements which when prolonged may produce abnormal postures?
Dystonia
252
Treatment for Dystonic Seizures?
Benedryl 25-50mg
253
A movement disorder which consists of effects including diminished voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, similar to tics or chorea?
Dyskinesia
254
Involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities? Generally caused by extended use of Halodol.
Tardive Dyskinesia
255
A delayed stress reaction?
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
256
S/S- Hallucinations and delusions.
Schizophrenic Patient
257
Suicide is most likely to occur at what age and condition?
40-50 with terminal disease
258
A condition in which a person is overly concerned with physical health and appearance to the point that it dominates his or her life?
Somatoform Disorder
259
Periods of apnea and rapid breaths? Usually involved with a head injury and increased intracranial pressure?
Biot's Respirations
260
Respirations caused by stroke and intracranial pressure?
Cheyene-Stokes Respirations
261
Treatment for patient with Cheyne Stokes respirations?
Ventilate at 20BPM
262
Elevated BP, Slow or normal HR, erratic respirations?
Cushings Syndrome/Triad/Reflex
263
Best sign of Intracranial Pressure?
High BP
264
Why is the patients skin pink distal to the injury in neurogenic shock?
A lack of Sympathetic response
265
A rare and usually fatal disease of the brain, characterized by progressive dimentia and gradual loss of muscle control, that occurs most often in middle age and is caused by a slow virus?
Mad Cow Disease (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)
266
Tumors of the adrenal gland which produce excess adrenaline?
Pheochromocytoma
267
Damages the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord?
Lou Gehrigs Disease (ALS-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)
268
A syndrome that results when the pituitary gland produces excess growth hormones? Includes abnormal and and feet growth.
Acromegaly
269
Inadequate cellular perfusion?
Shock
270
Shock causes what type of acidosis?
Metabolic
271
Types of Shock?
```CardiogenicHypovolemicNeurogenicAnaphylacticSeptic```
272
Type of shock where there is an impaired pumping power of the heart
Cardiogenic Shock
273
Treatment for Cardiogenic Shock?
Dopamine 5-10mcg/kg/min
274
Type of shock where there is a decrease in blood/water volume? Cool, pale, clammy skin, BP low, HR up?
Hypovolemic Shock
275
Earliest sign of hypovolemia?
Anxiety and restlessness
276
First organ affected by lack of O2?
Brain
277
Type of shock with an injury to the brain or spinal cord that disrupts communication between nerves and arteries causing relative hypovolemia? Warm, dry, red skin, low BP, slow HR?
Neurogenic Shock
278
Type of shock with a quick onset, allergic reaction, stridor is an ominous sign? Low BP, pulmonary or laryngeal edema?
Anaphylactic Shock
279
Treatment for Anaphylactic Shock?
Epinephrine 1:1000 IM
280
What does the CNS due in Anaphylaxis?
Widespread vasodilation
281
The antibody responsible for Anaphylaxis?
IgE- Immunoglobulin E
282
Type of shock with an infection that enters the blood stream and is carried throughout the body? Fever, skin flushed, maybe have breathing issues. History of infection or fever.
Septic Shock
283
In lead II, which lead is positive?
LL-Left Lower
284
Bacteria produce what to harm our body?
Endo/Exotoxins
285
PE mimics what?
Right Side Failure
286
Addison's Disease?
Hypoadrenalism
287
How does asthma display on ETCO2?
Shark Fin
288
1 cause of chronic bronchitis?
Smoking
289
Somnolence means?
Sleepiness
290
Too many RBC's, called?
Polycythemia
291
Graves' disease also called?
Hyperthyroidism
292
Cushing's syndrome, also called?
Hyperadrenalism
293
Myxedema, also called?
Hypothyroidism
294
Best position to evaluate JVD on patient?
45 degree angle
295
What kind of drug is verapamil?
Calcium channel blocker
296
Cancer patient in a nursing home is cold and clammy with a fever of 101. Recently returned from the hospital for surgery, has a non-healing sore, suspect?
Septic Shock
297
Abnormal distribution and return of the blood as seen in Anaphylaxis, Sepsis, or Neurogenic Shocks?
Distributive Shock
298
3 stages of shock?
CompensatedDecompensatedIrreversible
299
In this stage of shock, the body has teh ability to maintain its metabolic demands. Normal BP, possible skin mottling, heart rate up, and contractility is normal.
Compensated Shock
300
In this stage of shock, the body is unable to meet metabolic demands. Hypotensive, bradycardia. Heart rate moving from tachy to brady?
Decompensated Shock
301
This stage of shock results in death (cell death). Embolisms flushed into circulation, causes MODS.
Irreversible Shock
302
A loss of how much blood, will result in a drop in blood pressure?
20%
303
A loss of how much blood, will result in a narrowing pulse pressure?
15%
304
Never give more than _____ of fluid to anyone.
3 Liters
305
Blood loss needs to be replaced by _____ at a rate of _____.
Crystalloids, 3:1
306
When a normal person lays down the neck veins should do what?
Bulge out
307
What is the most lethal disorder of the diabetic family? Death due to dehydration.
HHNK
308
Drugs administered to a patient in shock have _____ effects because the organs (liver and kindneys) cannont metabolize them properly.
Prolonged
309
Treatment for Spinal Shock
Treat with IV fluids if BP is low. Condition is generally temporary.
310
Oliguria means?
Sunken eyes
311
Signs of head trauma?
Cushings Reflex (elevated BP, slow HR, erratic resp.)
312
What is the key concern with facial fractures?
Airway
313
What type of facial fracture presents as a slight instability involving the maxilla?
Lefort 1 Fracture
314
What type of facial fracture involves both the maxilla and the nasal bones?
Lefort 2 Fracture
315
What type of facial fractures involve the entire facial region below the brow ridge?
Lefort 3 Fracture
316
This injury includes a stretch or tear to the ligament of a joint that commonly leads to pain and swelling?
Sprain
317
This injury involves the stretching or tearing of a muscle by excess stretching or overuse?
Strain
318
This is a wrist fracture involving a break at the end of the radius bone of the forearm?
Colle's Fracture
319
What bone is on the thumb side of the forearm?
Radius
320
A partial or incomplete dislocation?
Subluxation
321
Preferred splint for bilateral femur fractures?
Sager Splint
322
What is the absolute contraindication of a PASG?
Pulmonary Edema
323
This device can be used for bilateral femur fractures, pelvic fractures, massive lacerations to the lower legs, or AAA?
MAST (Military Anti-Shock Trousers) or PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment)
324
Before placing a traction splint, check what other areas for injury?
Pelvis, knee, and ankle.
325
This occurs when 2 or more ribs are broken in 2 or more places?
Flailed Chest
326
This is involved with a crushing traumatic chest injury, resulting in bulging eyes (exothalamus), bloated blue tongue, red/purple looking face, and extreme JVD?
Traumatic Asphyxia
327
#1 cause of death in crush injuries?
Bleeding
328
This is a condition which skeletal muslce tissue breaks down rapidly leaking myoglobin and potassium into the bloodstream that may cause kidney failure?
Rhabdomyolysis
329
What is the fatal process of total hypovolemia?
Exsanguination (bleeding out)
330
You are working a building collapse and you find a worker whose legs have been pinned under a large I-Beam for 12 hours. What do you suspect?
Crush Injury/Compartment Syndrome
331
Shutting off blood supply to an extremity?
Compartment Syndrome
332
When assessing a trauma patient, what is the least likely sign to be of diagnostic value?
Auscultation
333
Shock patient without bowel sounds, think?
Obstructed Bowel
334
When palpating the abdomen for pain, start where?
At a site away from the injury.
335
Umbilicus brusing?
Cullen's Sign
336
Bruising of the flanks?
Grey Turner Sign (predicts a severe attack of pancreatitis)
337
Formula used for fluid resuscitation for a burn patient?
Parkland burn formula
338
What is the Parkland burn formula?
4ml x weight(kg) x burned body surface area- 50% given in first 8 hours- Remaining given over next 16 hours
339
How many liters of blood in the body?
6 Liters
340
How much blood can be lost from a pelvic fracture?
2000-4000ml (2-4L)
341
Never do what, to a patient with suspected pelvic fracture?
Never log roll or rock the pelvis when palpating for injury
342
Slow relapse into a coma, alcoholics and elderly are more prone to this?
Subdural Hematoma
343
This occurs rapidly, commonly associated with damage to the middle meningeal artery?
Epidural Hematoma
344
This artery is the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery. Runs across the temporal area of the brain.
Middle Meningeal Artery
345
A condition associated with penetrating trauma with hemisection of the spinal cord and complete damage to all spinal tracts on the involved side?
Brown Sequard Syndrome
346
GSW to the parietal (top) region of the head, how do you stop the bleeding?
Apply digital pressure around the wound
347
MVA patient has facial fractures and facial edema, when bagging with a BVM you hear stridor and air leaking around the seal. What is your action?
Stridor likely due to obstruction, clear airway, consider cricothyrotomy
348
In an adult, what is the percentage of area burned if the patients entire leg was involved?
18%
349
In an adult, what is the the total percentage of area burned if the patients entire arm, from shoulder to fingers, was burned?
9%
350
In an adult, what is the total percentage burned if just the front to the patient was burned, from lower abdomen to neck?
18%
351
In an adult, what is the total percentage of area burned if the burn involves the entire head?
9%
352
In an adult, what is the percentage of area burned, if the genital area is involved?
1%
353
MVA patient has facial fractures and facial edema, when bagging with a BVM you hear stridor and air leaking around the seal. What is your action?
```Clear airway (Stridor likely due to obstruction)Cricothyrotomy```
354
Patient shot in left chest and he has equal breath sounds and JVD, what is his problem?
Possible cardiac tamponade, usually associated with cardiac contusion
355
You have a patient who was in a motorcycle accident, his foot feels wet in his boot, think?
Possible tibia/fibula or ankle fracture
356
Your patient in unconscious, hypotensive, and has a mandible fracture, blood and broken teeth are found in the mouth. How do you maintain the airway?
Suction and ET, or nasal intubation
357
You have a conscious 22 YOM who has been stabbed in the chest, the patient has dyspnea and decreased breath sounds on the ipsilateral (same) side, and distended neck veins. What does he have, and how do you treat it?
- Tension pneumothorax| - Relieve pressure by decompression of the chest.
358
You have a 24 YOM involved in an MVA with a hematoma over the right eye. Patient is unconscious with slow respirations, pupils are unequal. What is your first treatment?
C-SpineAirwayBreathing- BVMProtect airway
359
You have been on the scene of an MVA and have treated critical patients and are now on the way to the hospital. What do you do next?
```Detailed ExamReevaluate interventions, ABC'sObtain additional vitalsTreat secondary injuriesTrending```
360
You have a 35 YOM involved in a motorcycle accident. He is complaining of severe ankle pain. He states his boot feels full of water despite being on dry ground. After completing the primary survey, what do you do next?
Focus on ankle, cut and remove bootRapid Trauma assessmentCover all life threatsFocused assessment
361
You find a 2 YO who has just been pulled from a swimming pool, he is apneic, cyanotic, with a pulse of 90. What do you do?
AirwayC-SpineBVM with high flow O2
362
IV access in trauma?
2 large bore IV's or 1 central access
363
Treatment for eviscerated bowel?
- Cover with moist dressing| - Cover the moist dressing with occlusive dressing
364
What would you expected to see in an airbag deployment from frontal impact?
Burns to the face, hands, and arms
365
Patient presentation includes what?
Evaluation of:AppearanceMentationBehavior
366
Least valuable information you can obtain about a patients medical history?
Family History
367
Do not perfrom the Heimlich maneuver on which type of patient?
Drowning victim
368
Airway good with C-Spine injury?
Modified jaw thrust
369
Treatment for chemical burns by Sodium (Na)?
Brush it offRinse with oilNO water contact
370
Ammonia and bleach are what kind of poisons?
Alkaline/base
371
Acid burn is a _____ burn.
Coagulation
372
Alkaline burns are _____ burn.
Liquification
373
Patient has massive facial trauma, what is the best way to protect the airway?
Intubation
374
What suction device would you use on a patient that has debris and broken teeth in the airway?
Yankauer Suction Device
375
Jugular vein laceration, will lead to what?
Air Embolism
376
If Cerebrospinal Fluid is visible, there is likely a fracture where?
Cribiform Plate
377
How to determine if fluid is CSF?
```Halo testBlood sugar (should be 50% of normal)```
378
If you had a patient that needed morphine, it would be important to know what?
If their addicted to heroin or other narcotics
379
Worst type of wound?
Puncture Wound
380
Having a hard time controlling bleeding?
Add more dressings
381
Treatment for laceration to the forearm?
Direct pressureImmobilizeElevate
382
In relation to ribs, where do you decompress the chest?
Above the ribs
383
Normal pH?
7.35-7.45
384
Shock patient will be more acidic or alkalotic?
Acidic
385
Co2 stays the same, pH decreases, sodium bicarb decreases?
Metabolic Accidosis
386
Dose of Lidocaine in treatment of PVC's?
1-1.5mg/kg| Repeat every 5-10 minutes to max of 3mg/kg
387
Treatment for polymorphic V-Tach with a pulse?
Magnesium Sulfate 1-2g mixed in 100ml D5W, given over 5-60 minutes
388
What is the first step in EVERY scenario?
BSI| Scene safety
389
Co2 stays the same, pH increases, sodium bicarb increases?
Metabolic Alkalosis
390
Co2 increases, pH decreases, sodium bicarb stays the same?
Respiratory Acidosis
391
Co2 decreases, pH increases, sodium bicarb stays the same?
Respiratory Alkalosis
392
Metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of O2?
Aerobic Metabolism
393
Metabolism that takes place in the absence of O2?
Anaerobic Metabolism
394
Patient that has vomited for 3 days is likely in what?
Metabolic Alkalosis
395
NaHCO3?
Sodium Bicarbonate
396
Ectopic pregnancy in 1st trimester, how do you transport?
Position of comfort
397
Ectopic pregnancies occur how many weeks from implantation?
6-12 weeks
398
You are called to a 23 YOF. You find her curled up like a ball in the fetal position complaining of right side abdominal pain. She has nausea and has been vomiting. What would you suspect?
Ectopic pregnancy
399
What is mittelschmerz?
Pain during ovulation
400
This is a way to identify the position of the fetus during delivery. A common and systematic way to determine the position of a fetus inside a womans uterus.
Leopold's Maneuver
401
This is a measure of the size of the uterus used to assess fetal growth and development. It is measured from the top of the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimeters.
Fundal Height- Full Term= Xyphoid Process- 20 weeks= Umbilicus- 12-16 weeks= Pubis
402
Fetal heart tones are best heard where?
Between the pubis and umbilicus
403
During pregnancy, heart rate increases _____ to _____ BPM
15-20
404
Blood pressure decreases by _____ to _____mmHg by the 2nd trimester.
10-15
405
Normal weight gain during pregnancy is approximately how much?
20lbs.
406
A mother can lose _____ to _____ blood volume and show minimal changes during pregnancy.
30-35%
407
This stage of labor begins with the onset of contractions that cause progressive changes in the cervix, and ends when the cervix is fully dilated?
Stage 1
408
This term describes the shortening, or thinning of tissue in the cervix. Occurs during the first stage of labor.
Effacement
409
This stage of labor begins once the mother is fully dilated and ends with the birth of the baby?
Stage 2
410
This stage of labor begins right after the birth of the baby and ends with the separation and subsequent delivery of the placenta?
Stage 3
411
This is the term used for a woman who has given viable births one or more times?
Para
412
This term describes a person who is pregnant for the first time?
Primagravida
413
This term describes a woman who has never been pregnant?
Nuligravida
414
This term describes the number of pregnancies, regardless of outcome?
Gravida
415
This is the term used to describe a woman that has had 7-10 kids, and very likely to have a precipitous delivery?
Grandmultipara
416
This is a rapid or sudden labor of less than 3 hours of the onset of labor. Occurs in 3rd trimester?
Precipitous Delivery
417
A woman is having contractions 3 minutes apart and lasting 60 seconds. What is the first step in treatment?
Determine GravidaTell her not to bear downPrepare for deliveryCheck for crowning
418
What is a nuchal cord?
Cord wrapped around the babies neck
419
How to manage a nuchal cord?
Slide cord from neck around head or use finger under cord to relieve pressure
420
If patient pregnant patient presents with a prolapsed cord, what is your treatment?
Relieve pressure on the cordMake sure cord is pulsatingCover with wet, sterile dressingPlace mother with butt in the air and transport
421
Corrected order to suction newborn?
Mouth first, then nose. Suction no longer than 10 seconds.
422
S/S- Pregnant patient with blurred vision, headache, hypertension, protein in urine, peripheral edema. Occurs in 3rd trimester.
Preeclampsia
423
Treatment for eclampsia?
Mag Sulfate
424
What is Shoulder Dystocia?
Stuck shoulder in birth canal.
425
This is the termination of pregnancy before 6 months or 20 weeks. Before the fetus is viable.
Abortion
426
Where does fertilization take place?
Fallopian Tubes
427
This organ contains the baby during pregnancy?
Uterus
428
Treatment for SIDS?
Do not start interventions| Support family and treat as crime scene
429
Treatment for pregnant trauma patient?
```C-collar, C-spine immobilizationBackboardO22 large bore IV's, administer crystalloidsTransport tilted to the leftReassess frequentlyMonitor the fetus```
430
Sight of the ovarian cyst?
Graffian Follicle
431
What is the make-up of the umbilical cord?
2 arteries| 1 vein
432
When do you start CPR on a neonate?
HR is less than 60 BPM, or the patient is not responding to supplemental O2 ventilations.
433
While enroute to the hospital with an OB patient, you notice delivery is eminent. What do you do next?
Pull over and deliver child| Call for additional help, due to having 2nd patient
434
This substance stimulates contractions of the myepithelial cells causing milk to be ejected into the ducts?
Oxytocin
435
These receptors can be used to relax the uterine wall during preterm labor?
B2 Adrenergic receptors (Terbutaline)
436
What is another way (other than drug therapy) to slow contractions during preterm labor?
Fluid bolus
437
25 YOF with a vaginal bleed. How do you tell if shes developing hypovolemia?
```Tilt Test (orthostatics)Pale, flat jugular veins```
438
This condition is when the placenta fails to detach from the uterus. As it exits, pulls on the inside surface turning the organ inside out. Very rare.
Uterine Inversion
439
How to determine if the 26 YOF complaining of vaginal bleeding is in shock?
Orthostatics, pulse increase by 10-20, BP decrease by 10-20 more.
440
Treatment for preterm labor?
500ml fluid bolus
441
Endometrial tissue that forms in the uterus and can extend into the vagina?
Endometriosis
442
Infection of the uterus?
Endometritis
443
Female with lower abdominal pain and fever has what?
Endometritis
444
Pedi Dose:| Epinephrine 1:10,000 (#1 Drug for Pedi Emergencies)
.01mg/kg IV/IO
445
Pedi Dose:| Epinephrine Infusion 1:1000
.1mcg/kg/min
446
Pedi Dose:| Atropine (#2 Drug for Pediatrics)
.02mg/kg ET/IV/IO
447
Pedi Dose:| Lidocaine
1mg/kg ET/IV/IO
448
Pedi Dose:| Lidocaine Infusion
20-50 mcg/kg/min
449
Pedi Dose:| D50 dilute D25
.5mg/kg IV/IO
450
Pedi Dose:| Defibrillation
2J/kg, 4J/kg, 4J/kg
451
This occurs when bilirubin (a byproduct of the breakdown of Red Blood Cells) builds up faster than a newborns liver can break it down and pass it from the body.
Jaundice Bilirubin
452
Also know as a middle ear infection. Can be a cause of a brain abscess.
Otitis Media
453
This reflex is positive if the toes point upward when the bottom of the foot is stroked. Opposite in infants.
Babinski's Reflex
454
Wheezing in a child under 1 year, caused by a virus.
Bronchiolitis
455
Why do infants dehydrate faster than adults?
Increased body surface area in relation to their mass.
456
How to obtain best seal in assisting an infants breathing ?
EC 2 person method
457
If a newborn is not breathing after one minute you should first do what?
Warm and stimulate
458
#1 indicator of hypoxia in a child?
Bradycardia
459
The mother of a 4 YOM states her child has had a sore throat since yesterday. He has a high fever and difficulty swallowing. No cough is present and he is drooling. Think?
Epiglottitis
460
How to determine if pediatric patient has croup?
Seal-bark cough
461
Treatment for croup?
Racemic Epinephrine .25-.75mg
462
Any child with fever, think? Even more so with Petechiae (red/purple rash).
Meningitis
463
Stiff or painful neck commonly associated with meningitis.
Nuchal Rigidity
464
Death from Meningitis usually comes from what?
MODS
465
If an injured child is apathetic and does not cry, think what?
Child abuse
466
CPR should be initiated on a newborn when HR does not go up after O2 administration and stimulation, or is less than _____ BPM to begin with?
60
467
A kid is injured in a pool and floating, what should you do first?
Place patient on back board while still in the water.
468
This gland lies underneath the breastbone, processes T-Lymphocytes, disappears with age.
Thymus
469
Teenager who has flu like symptoms and has taken aspirin, now comatose.
Rye's Syndrome
470
This makes elderly patients more susceptible to supdural hematomas when they fall?
Brain atrophy
471
This spinal condition is the most likely to impair breathing and cause acidity issues, decreased tidal volume.
Kyphosis
472
Spinal deformation also called bubble butt.
Lordosis
473
"S" shaped spine.
Scoliosis
474
Degenerative disease of the spinal column?
Spandolosis
475
This substance facilitates the entry of glucose into the cells?
Insulin
476
Where is insulin produces?
In the Pancrease, Islet of Langerhans, by beta cells
477
Diabetics with high glucose cannot get it to the cells due to low insulin. Cells then burn fat resulting in production of ketones. This is the initial process of?
DKA and kussmaul respirations
478
Also knows as juvenile diabetes, is an autoimmune disease that results in the destruction of insulin-producing beta cells of the pancrease.
Diabetes Mellitus Type 1
479
This is the most common disorder when Type 1 Diabetes goes untreated?
DKA
480
2 signs of DKA?
Warm and dry skin| Kussmaul respirations
481
2 signs of Insulin Shock?
Cool and moist skin| Normal respirations
482
Also called non-insulin dependant diabetes, is a disorder that is characterized by high blood glucose in the context of insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency?
Diabetes Mellitus Type 2
483
Type 2 diabetes treated with?
Metformin (decreases hepatic glucose production)
484
This results from an extremely high sugar content in the blood, causing a shift of water from the intracellular fluid into the blood. Resulting in cellular dehydration.
HHNK (Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketonic Coma)
485
_____ with high blood sugar will be dehydrated.
Diabetics
486
Patient has DKA, what is the first thing that would be of most help?
O2
487
Patient has orange peel skin, think?
Diabetic
488
This branch of civil law that involves a conflict between 2 parties. Most likely to be sued under this branch.
Tort Law
489
This means "the thing speaks for itself". Replaces reasonable doubt.
Res Ipsa Loquitur
490
What a state permits a paramedic practicing under its license or certification to do.
Scope of Practice
491
Scope of practice is defined by what?
State legislature
492
4 components of negligence.
Breach of DutyDuty to ActActual DamagesProximate Cause
493
When the EMT does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care.
Breach of Duty
494
4 parts of "Breach of Duty"
Duty to actYou breached your dutyInjury of some kindYou caused the injury
495
Failure to perform an act that is either an official duty or a legal requirement.
Nonfeasance
496
The performance of a lawful action in an illegal or improper manner.
Misfeasance
497
Wrongdoing or misconduct especially by a public official.
Malfeasance
498
The EMT's responsibility to act reasonable within the standards of his or her training.
Duty to act
499
When a patient is physically or psychologically harmed in some noticeable way.
Actual Damages
500
Reasonable cause and effect. (Dropping a patient during lifting)
Proximate Cause
