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Dale's Pearls > Paramedic Pearls > Flashcards

Paramedic Pearls Flashcards

1
Q

A build up of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac that puts pressure on the heart, which may prevent it from pumping correctly.

A

Cardiac Tamponade

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2
Q

S/S- Dyspnea and orthopnea, clear lung sounds, rapid and weak pulse, decrease in systolic BP, pulsus paradoxus, narrowing pulse pressure, muffled heart tones.

A

Cardiac Tamponade

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3
Q

S/S- Acute onset of chest pain or SOB, altered mental status or unconsciousness, general weakness, restlessness, confusion, coma, dyspnea, productive cough, labored breathing, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, tripoding, tachycardia.

A

Cardiogenic Shock

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4
Q

Treatment for flailed chest?

A

Stabilize flail segment with a bulky dressing. Do not use a sandbag.

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5
Q

Treatment for a sucking chest wound?

A

Occlusive dressing sealed on 3 sides. Monitor for loss of compliance while bagging.

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6
Q

High HR, Low BP, think?

A

Bleed or dehydration

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7
Q

Flat jugular veins when supine?

A

Bleed, dehydration, or HHNK

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8
Q

Hot skin in a shock patient, think?

A

Septic Shock

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9
Q

Female patient on birth control and/or smoking with SOB, think?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

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10
Q

Hives and laryngeal edema, think?

A

Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock

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11
Q

Cool, clammy skin, think?

A

Shock

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12
Q

Sudden onset of vomiting or diarrhea, think?

A

Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock

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13
Q

S/S- Cool, clammy skin above, warm dry skin below, low BP, low HR.

A

Neurogenic Shock

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14
Q

Difference between Neurogenic Shock and Spinal Shock?

A

Spinal Shock is temporary

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15
Q

Hives? Think?

A

Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock

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16
Q

Person on ACE inhibitor with laryngeal edema and stridor, think?

A

Allergic reaction or Anaphylactic Shock

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17
Q

Black, tarry stools, think?

A

Lower GI bleed

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18
Q

Bright red blood in stool (hematochezia), think?

A

Hemorrhoid

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19
Q

Patient states “My heart is beating out of my chest”, think?

A

SVT

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20
Q

Most common cause of SVT?

A

Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome (WPW)

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21
Q

Crushing substernal chest pain, think?

A

Myocardial Infarction

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22
Q

Treatment for MI?

A 
MONAMorphine 2-4mg IVPOxygenNitro .3-.4mg sublingualAspirin 160-325mg PO
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23
Q

Sudden onset of SOB?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

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24
Q

Patient has JVD, think?

A

Right side failure

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25
Q

Any female of child bearing age with abdominal pain, think?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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26
Q

Tall, skinny males with sudden onset of SOB, think?

A

Spontaneous Pneumothorax

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27
Q

Tall, skinny people affected. Genetic disease that presents with weakness in arterial walls. Often aneurysm history, think?

A

Marfrans Syndrome

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28
Q

1 cause of pulmonary edema?

A

Left side failure

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29
Q

1 cause of left side failure?

A

Myocardial Infarction

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30
Q

1 cause of right side failure?

A

Left side failure

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31
Q

Only reason not to disrobe a trauma patient?

A

The environment

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32
Q

S/S- Vaginal bleeding with pain, sudden sharp, tearing pain, stiff, boardlike abdomen, massive hemorrhage, 3rd trimester.

A

Abruptio Placentae

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33
Q

S/S- Lightheadedness, breathlessness, weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, @6600ft.

A

Acute Mountain Sickness

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34
Q

S/S- Progressive weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite, weight loss, hyper pigmentation of the skin, vomiting or diarrhea.

A

Addison’s Disease (Hypoadrenalism)

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35
Q

S/S- Short term memory loss, shuffling gait, stiffness of body muscles, aphasia, psychiatric disturbances, decorticate.

A

Alzheimers

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36
Q

Angina caused by artery spasm?

A

Prinzmetals angina

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37
Q

S/S- Sudden onset of chest discomfort, radiating pain, epigastric pain, SOB, elevated BP during episode, pain lasting 3-5 minutes as long as 15 minutes.

A

Angina Pectoris

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38
Q

Angina that occurs with activity and is relieved by rest?

A

Stable angina

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39
Q

Angina that occurs with rest and lasts beyond 15 minutes?

A

Unstable angina

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40
Q

S/S- dyspnea, wheezing, cough, one or two word dyspnea, pulsus paradoxus, tachycardia, decreased O2 saturation, agitated, anxious?

A

Asthma

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41
Q

2 stages of asthma?

A

Stage 1- Bronchospasm| Stage 2- Inflammatory response

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42
Q

Treatment for asthma?

A

AlbuterolOxygenEpinephrine

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43
Q

S/S- Localized bite, redness, swelling, muscle spasms of large muscle groups, nausea and vomiting, sweating, seizures, paralysis, decreased LOC?

A

Black Widow spider bite

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44
Q

Treatment for muscle spasms in Black Widow bite?

A

Diazepam (Valium) 2.5-10mg IVPCalcium Gluconate .1-.2mg/kg of 10% solution IVAnti venom if available

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45
Q

S/S- Painless, small erythematous macula surrounded by a white ring, chills, fever, nausea and vomiting, joint pain, tissue necrosis days, to weeks after bite?

A

Brown Recluse spider bite

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46
Q

S/S- Headache, nausea and vomiting, confusion, tachypnea, agitation, loss of coordination, chest pain, LOC, seizure, cyanosis, bright cherry red skin?

A

CO poisoning

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47
Q

S/S- Wenckebach and PVC’s on monitor, blunt trauma to the sternum?

A

Cardiac Contusion

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48
Q

S/S- Respiratory symptoms, malaise, low grade fever, rash that starts on the face and trunk?

A

Chicken Pox

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49
Q

S/S- Produces considerable quantities of sputum, productive cough for at least 3 months per year for 2 or more years, overweight, cyanotic, rhonchi, right heart failure if they JVD,

A

Chronic Bronchitis

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50
Q

Classic sign of right sided heart failure?

A

JVD and peripheral edema

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51
Q

S/S- Localized numbness, weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, slurred speech and excessive salivation, paralysis of tongue and larynx, drooping of eyelids, double vision, dilated pupils, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, LOC, seizure, respiratory failure, hypotension?

A

Coral snake bite

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52
Q

Red on yellow will kill a fellow? Type of snake.

A

Coral snake bite

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53
Q

S/S- GI bleeding, recent weight loss, intermittent abdominal cramping, pain, nausea, and vomiting, diarrhea and fever?

A

Crohns Disease

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54
Q

S/S- Loud seal bark cough, tachypnea, grunting while breathing, wheezing, acute respiratory distress during the night?

A

Croup

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55
Q

S/S- Burning sensation in the mouth and throat, headache, confusion, combative behavior, hypertension, tachycardia, seizures, coma, pulmonary edema?

A

Cyanide Poisoning

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56
Q

S/S- Joint and abdominal pain, fatigue, paresthesis, CNS disturbances, associated with diving?

A

Decompression Illness, “The Bends”

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57
Q

S/S- Slow onset, diuresis, dry, warm skin, excessive hunger and thirst, malaise, tachycardia, feelings of physical weakness, kussmaul respirations, fruity or acetone like smell, hyperglycemia, acidic pH, hypokalemia, decreased mental function, coma?

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

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58
Q

Caused by the body burning fat instead of sugar?

A

DKA

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59
Q

3 classic signs of diabetes mellitus type 1?

A

Polyuria (Excessive Urination)Polydipsia (Excessive Thirst)Polyphagia ((Excessive Hunger)

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60
Q

S/S- Lower left side pain, low grade fever, colicky pain, nausea and vomiting, tenderness on palpation, cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, diaphoresis, hematochezia?

A

Diverticulitis

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61
Q

S/S- Barrel chest, decreased chest excursion with prolonged expiratory phase, rapid resting respiratory rate, thin, pink in color, hypertrophy of accessory muscles, pursed lips, clubbing of fingers, right heart failure (JVD, peripheral edema, or hepatic congestion). Severe signs include: confusion, agitation, somnolence, one to two word dyspnea, use of accessory muscles, pink puffers?

A

Emphysema

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62
Q

Kussmaul Sign?

A

JVD upon inspiration/Pulsus paradoxus

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63
Q

S/S- Decreased LOC, fever, headache, drowsiness, coma, tremors, stiff neck and back, seizures?

A

Encephalitis

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64
Q

Cushings Reflex?

A

BP up, pulse same or down, erratic breathing

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65
Q

S/S- Muffled voice or cry, sore throat, pain with swallowing, difficulty swallowing, drooling, stridor?

A

Epiglottitis

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66
Q

S/S- Agitation, emotional changeability, insomnia, poor heat tolerance, weight loss despite increased appetite, weakness, dyspnea, tachycardia?

A

Graves Disease (Hyperthyroidism)

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67
Q

S/S- Cramps in fingers, arms, legs, or abdominal muscles, mentally alert, weakness, dizziness, moist and warm skin?

A

Heat Cramps

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68
Q

S/S- Increased body temp, cool and clammy skin, rapid and shallow breathing, weak pulse, possible diarrhea, muscle cramps, weakness, headache, anxiety, paresthesia, impaired judgement?

A

Heat Exhaustion

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69
Q

S/S- >105 temp, cessation of sweating, hot skin that is dry or moist, very high core temp, deep respirations that become shallow, rapid at first but may slow, rapid full pulse may slow later, hypotension with low or absent diastolic reading, confusion or disorientation, unconscious, seizures?

A

Heat Stroke

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70
Q

S/S- Blunt or penetrating chest trauma, signs and symptoms of shock, dyspnea, dull percussive sounds over site collecting blood?

A

Hemothorax

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71
Q

Treatment for hemothorax?

A

O22 large bore IVsMonitor breath sounds

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72
Q

S/S- Weight gain, moon face appearance, buffalo hump, thinning or transparent skin, mood swings, impaired memory or concentration. Too much cortisol?

A

Hyperadrenalism (Cushings Syndrome)

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73
Q

S/S- Diaphoresis, increased skin temp, flushing, altered LOC?

A

Hyperthermia

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74
Q

S/S- Altered mental status, bizarre behavior, diaphoresis, tachycardia, seizure, quick onset, blood sugar <90?

A

Hypoglycemia

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75
Q

S/S- Temp between 90-95, lethargy, shivering, lack of coordination, pale, cool dry skin, early rise in BP, heart and resp?

A

Mild Hypothermia

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76
Q

S/S- Temp <90, no shivering, dysrhythmias, loss of voluntary muscle control, hypotension, undetectable pulse and respirations, J-waves on ECG?

A

Severe Hypothermia

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77
Q

S/S- Fatigue, decreased mental function, lethargy, cold intolerance, constipation, decreased appetite with increased weight gain?

A

Hypothyroidism (Myxedema)

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78
Q

S/S- Altered mental status, one or two word dyspnea, cyanosis, hemoptysis (coughing up blood), hypoxia, cough, hoarseness, vague chest pain, fever, chills, pleuritic chest pain, crackles, wheezes, diminished breath sounds heard in affected lung, profound wait loss (severe)?

A

Lung Cancer

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79
Q

Treatment for marine animal injection?

A

Establish and maintain airwayApply light constricting band between wound and heart to occlude lymphatic flowApply heat or hot waterInactivate or remove stinger

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80
Q

S/S- Full body rash, hacking cough, runny nose, high fever, watery red eyes, kopliks spots (red spots with blue-white centers that appear in the mouth). Viral disease?

A

Measles

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81
Q

S/S- High fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea and vomiting, discomfort looking into bright lights, confusion, sleepiness, seizure. Classic sign is high fever. 6 year old kid with high temp for 2 days?

A

Meningitis

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82
Q

S/S- Chest pain, elevated BP during episode, chest pain that last more than 30 minutes, pain radiates to arms, neck, or back. Acute onset of nausea and vomiting, nitro and rest offer no relief, feeling of impending doom?

A

MI

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83
Q

Classic sign of MI?

A

Crushing substernal chest pain

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84
Q

Most heart attacks occur where?

A

Left ventricle

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85
Q

S/S- Fever, headache, loss of appetite, pain and swelling in parotid gland, viral?

A

Mumps

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86
Q

S/S- Altered level of consciousness, impaired judgement, drunkedness, also know as “rapture of the deep”?

A

Nitrogen Narcosis

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87
Q

S/S- Penetrating chest trauma, sucking chest wound, frothy blood at wound site, dyspnea, hypovolemia. Has to be 3mm or larger to be a problem?

A

Open Pneumothorax

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88
Q

Treatment for Open Pneumothorax?

A

High flow O2| Cover opening with sterile occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides

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89
Q

S/S- Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movement), postural instability. Caused by lack of dopamine in the brain?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

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90
Q

Treatment for Pit Viper bite?

A 
Keep patient supineImmobilize limb with splintMaintain extremity in neutral positionDo not apply constricting bandO2IVCrystalloid FluidsTransport
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91
Q

1 cause of bleeding in 3rd trimester?

A

Placenta Previa

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92
Q

S/S- Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Takes place in 3rd trimester?

A

Placenta Previa

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93
Q

What is Becks Triad?

A

JVDNarrowing Pulse PressureMuffled Heart Sounds

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94
Q

S/S- Substernal chest pain, irregular pulse, abnormal heart sounds, low BP, narrow pulse pressure, change in voice?

A

Pneumomediastinum

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95
Q

S/S- Chills, deep productive cough, yellow to brown sputum often streaked with blood, pleuritic chest pain. More prone to get disease if on steroids?

A

Pneumonia

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96
Q

S/S- Trauma to the chest, chest pain on inspiration, hyperinflation of chest, diminished breath sounds to affected side?

A

Pneumothorax

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97
Q

Treatment for Pneumothorax?

A

Chest Decompression

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98
Q

Difference between Pneumothorax and Tension Pneumothorax?

A

Tension has:JVDTracheal DeviationSometimes narrowing pulse pressure

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99
Q

Treatment for Open Pneumothorax?

A

First, cover with gloved hand and place occlusive dressing over the wound

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100
Q

S/S- Excessive salivation, lacrimation, diaphoresis, abdominal cramps, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, decrease LOC, eventually coma?

A

Poisonous Plant or Mushroom ingestion

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101
Q

What is SLUDGE?

A 
SalivationLacrimationUrinationDefecationGastrointestinal UpsetEmesis
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102
Q

What is Hemoptysis?

A

Coughing up blood

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103
Q

S/S- Blunt or penetrating chest trauma, increasing dyspnea, hypoxia, increasing crackles, diminishing breath sounds, hemoptysis, signs and symptoms of shock?

A

Pulmonary Contusion

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104
Q

S/S- Sudden onset of severe unexplained dyspnea, possible pleuritic chest pain, possible cough, labored breathing, tachypnea, tachycardia?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

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105
Q

Treatment for PE?

A

High flow O2 and Transport

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106
Q

What is a Thrombus?

A

Blood Clot

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107
Q

When someone is hyperventilating, what metabolic disorder are they in?

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

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108
Q

S/S- Sore throat, rhinorrhea, chills, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, cough, sputum production, respiratory stress, respiratory failure?

A

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

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109
Q

S/S- Thrombosis in the brain, gradual onset, often occurs after periods of rest?

A

Occlusive Stroke

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110
Q

S/S- Facial drooping, headache, confusion, dysphasia, aphasia, dysarthria, vision problems, hemiparesis, hemiplegia, paresthesia, inability to recognize touch, gait disturbances, uncoordinated fine motor movements, dizziness, incontinence, coma?

A

Stroke

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111
Q

S/S- Complains of worst headache of their life?

A

Hemorrhagic Stroke

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112
Q

Treatment window for suspected Occlusive Stroke?

A

3-4.5 Hours

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113
Q

Most common emboli?

A

Thrombi

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114
Q

S/S- Chest trauma, severe dyspnea, vent/perfusion mismatch, hypoxemia, hyperinflation of affected side of chest, diminished then absent breath sounds, cyanosis, diaphoresis, altered mental status, JVD, hypotension, hypovolemia, narrowing pulse pressure?

A

Tension Pneumothorax

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115
Q

S/S- High fever (106 or higher), irritability, delirium or coma, tachycardia, hypertension, vomiting, diarrhea. Usually as the result of ingestion of thyroid product?

A

Thyrotoxic Crisis or Thyroid Storm

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116
Q

S/S- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, confusion, hallucinations, hyperthermia, respiratory depression, seizures, tachycardia, hypotension, cardiac dysrhythmias?

A

Tricyclic Antidepressant Toxicity

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117
Q

Treatment for Tricyclic Antidepressant overdose?

A

Sodium Bicarb

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118
Q

S/S- Nausea, weakness, fatigue, rapid weight loss, fever, night sweats, cough, chest pain, hemoptysis?

A

Tuberculosis

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119
Q

When caring for TB patients what BSI precaution must you wear?

A

N95 Respirator

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120
Q

What is the division of the Upper and Lower GI System?

A

Ligament of Treitz

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121
Q

S/S- Abdominal discomfort, upset stomach, gas pain, tearing pain in upper quadrants, nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, melena, tachycardia?

A

Upper GI Bleed

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122
Q

What is myalgia?

A

Muscle pain

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123
Q

S/S- fever, chills, myalgias, fatigue, usually viral?

A

Upper Respiratory Infection

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124
Q

S/S- Coarse tremor of hands, tongue, eyelids, nausea and vomiting, general weakness, increased sympathetic tone, tachycardia, sweating, hypertension, orthostatic hypotension, anxiety, irritability, hallucinations, poor sleep?

A

Withdrawal Syndrome

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125
Q

Normal vital signs at birth?

A

Resp- 30-60HR- 100-180Systolic BP- 60-90

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126
Q

Normal vital signs for preschool age (3-5)?

A

Resp- 22-34HR- 70-110Systolic BP- 95-110

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127
Q

Normal vital signs for Adolescence?

A

Resp- 12-26HR- 60-90Systolic BP- 112-128

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128
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A 
ActivityPulseGrimaceAppearanceRespiration
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129
Q

How often after birth do you evaluate the APGAR score?

A

1 and 5 minutes following birth

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130
Q

Name 5 components of the Initial Impression?

A
  1. Form a general impression2. C-spine control as needed3. Assess baseline mental status4. ABC’s5. Determine priority
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131
Q

The way we evaluate oxygenation of blood in the body?

A

Fick Principle

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132
Q

Normal PaCO2 level?

A

35-45mmHg

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133
Q

Normal PaO2 level?

A

80-100mmHg

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134
Q

Rhonchi?

A

Mucus in the airway

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135
Q

Crackles?

A

Fluid in the lower airway, pulmonary edema

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136
Q

Stridor?

A

Upper airway obstruction, FBAO, epiglottitis in children older than 3-4

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137
Q

Wheezing?

A

Fluid in lower airways, bronchoconstriction, associated with asthma

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138
Q

What causes snoring respirations?

A

Soft tissues in back of the throat, usually tongue

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139
Q

Best way to determine good respirations?

A

End tidal CO2 detector or Capnogram

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140
Q

Least advised way to insert ET tube?

A

Digitally

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141
Q

Right side hypertrophy brought on by long term hypertension?

A

Cor Pulmonale

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142
Q

What is Pulsus Paradoxus?

A

Drop in pulse and 10mmHg BP during inspiration

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143
Q

What is the most frequent infection that affects smokers?

A

Bronchitis, then pneumonia

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144
Q

A liquid protein substance that coats the alveoli in the lungs?

A

Surfactant

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145
Q

Alveolar collapse that prevents the use of that portion of the lung for ventilation and oxygenation?

A

Atelectasis

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146
Q

What is the exchange of gases between a living organism and the environment?

A

Respirations

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147
Q

What is air movement in and out of the lungs? Does not guarantee respirations.

A

Ventilation (Mechanical)

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148
Q

What is the average volume of gas inhaled and exhaled in one respiratory cycle?

A

Tidal Volume (500ml)

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149
Q

What gives you the best seal when using BVM?

A

E-C, 2 person BVM

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150
Q

Nasal intubation is contraindicated in the presence of what?

A

Apnea

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151
Q

Primary concern of Cheyne-Stokes respirations?

A

Minute volume

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152
Q

Treatment for Pulmonary Edema?

A

NitroLasixMorphineCPAP

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153
Q

A selective Beta-2 agonist that can be used as a breathing treatment? Can also stop contractions.

A

Terbutaline

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154
Q

What is Kussmaul’s Sign?

A

Rise of jugular vein upon inspiration

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155
Q

What is Succinylcholine and its dose?

A

Used for Rapid Sequence Intubation, 1-1.5mg/kg

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156
Q

Any abnormal condition that effects the hearts arteries that produces various effects, especially reducing the flow of O2 and nutrients to the myocardium?

A

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

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157
Q

Most common form of CAD?

A

Atherosclerosis

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158
Q

Occlusion of arteries with fatty deposits and cellular debris?

A

Atherosclerosis

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159
Q

Calcification of the arteries causing loss of elasticity?

A

Arteriosclerosis

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160
Q

S/S- Pedal edema, ascites, pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, cough, decreased BP, nausea and vomiting, pitting edema, anxiety, confusion, JVD, weak pulse, decreased urine output?

A

CHF

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161
Q

Backwards left sided heart failure presents with what?

A

Pulmonary Edema

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162
Q

Forwards left sided heart failure presents with what?

A

Hypotension

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163
Q

Right sided heart failure presents with what?

A

Peripheral edema

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164
Q

Wheezing in cardiac patient caused by left sided failure and fluid in the lungs is know as what?

A

Cardiac asthma

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165
Q

S/S- Weak, strong, weak, strong, pulse quality alteration?

A

Pulsus Alterans

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166
Q

Monitor shows varying amplitude of weak, strong, weak, strong?

A

Electrical Alterans

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167
Q

A condition involving sudden fainting which usually lasts for less than a minute and may include seizures. Before the attack patient becomes pale and during recovery the patient often feels hot and flushed. Fainting occurs due to a lack of O2 in the brain due to heart rhythm problems involving slowing of the heart.

A

Stokes Adams Syndrome

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168
Q

Anti-hypertensive that blocks the cellular uptake of calcium. Causes a decrease in SA and AV node automaticity. Examples are Verapamil, Cardizem. Chief side effects are hypotension and bradycardia.

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

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169
Q

Blocks Beta-1 and Beta-2 receptor sites. Decreases HR and BP. Examples are Propranolol, Acebutolol, Esmolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol.

A

Beta Blockers

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170
Q

Beta Blocker overdose treatment?

A

Glucagon

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171
Q

What is the separation of the tunica medica from the tunica adventitia, causing referred pain to the left shoulder, upper back, and chest?

A

Aortic Aneurysm

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172
Q

S/S- Pain referred to lower back, possible pulsating mass in abdomen and feeling of impending bowel movement?

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

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173
Q

S/S- Tearing chest pain that radiates to the back or shoulder blades, radial pulse discrepancy?

A

Thoracic Aneurysm

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174
Q

What is a common cause of an idioventricular rhythm?

A

AAA

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175
Q

Role of ASA in the patient with chest pain?

A

ASA is a platelet aggregate. It makes platelets slippery keeping the clot from getting larger.

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176
Q

What is the S1 sound?

A

Mitral and Tricuspid valves closing

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177
Q

What is the S2 sound?

A

Aortic and Pulmonic valves closing

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178
Q

When is the S3 and S4 sound heard?

A

CHF, elderly with heart disease, indicative of valve failure

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179
Q

The heart is what kind of pump?

A

Sodium Potassium Pump

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180
Q

Cardiac Output=

A

Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

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181
Q

What law states the greater the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole, the greater the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction?

A

Starlings Law

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182
Q

A nerve plexus of the autonomic nervous system supplying the heart and neighboring structures?

A

Cardiac Plexus

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183
Q

Blood and IV fluids have what kind of osmolarity?

A

Isotonic

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184
Q

Rhythm Hallmarks- Chaotic and irregular, no pulse/breathing?

A

V-Fib

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185
Q

Rhythm Hallmarks- Long PRI

A

1st degree heart block

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186
Q

Rhythm Hallmarks- PRI grows then drops a beat, usually grouped beats.

A

2nd degree, type 1 (Wenckebach)

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187
Q

Rhythm Hallmarks- PRI constant with conducted beats, dropped beats present.

A

2nd degree, type 2 (Classical)

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188
Q

Rhythm Hallmarks- No correlation between P’s and QRS’s?

A

3rd degree heart block, complete block

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189
Q

Rhythm Hallmarks- No P wave or inverted P wave?

A

Junctional Rhythm

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190
Q

Treatment for Stable V-Tach?

A

150mg Amiodarone IV, given over 10 minutes. Repeat as needed to a max dose of 2.2g in 24 hours.

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191
Q

Treatment for Unstable V-Tach?

A

Synchronized Cardioversion

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192
Q

You see Asystole on the monitor, what is your next step?

A

Check in another lead

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193
Q

Asystole on the monitor, what is first drug of choice?

A

Epinephrine 1mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes. Could also use Vasopressin 40u for 1st or 2nd dose of Epi.

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194
Q

Vagal or Valsalva maneuvers will only work on what type of rhythms?

A

SVT’s

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195
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with stable SVT?

A

Vagal maneuver first, then| Adenosine 6mg, 12mg, 12mg

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196
Q

What is the most common reperfustion rhythm?

A

2nd degree, type 1 (Wenckebach)

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197
Q

When ST elevation is seen across all leads, think?

A

Pericarditis

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198
Q

Treatment for patient with atrial flutter?

A

IVO2Supportive careTransport

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199
Q

When does the relative refractory period begin?

A

At the apex of the T wave

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200
Q

What does Nitro do?

A

Dilates coronary arteries, reducing the workload on the heart.

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201
Q

Treatment for Morphine overdose?

A

Narcan 2-4mg IVP

202
Q

What causes heart blocks and yellow vision?

A

Digitalis Toxicity

203
Q

Treatment for a hypertensive emergency?

A

IV at TKOO2Transport

204
Q

What is a decrease in arterial perfusion at the calf muscle, causing pain?

A

Claudication

205
Q

Angiotensin causes what to the blood vessels?

A

Constriction

206
Q

Good cholesterol?

A

HDL

207
Q

Bad cholesterol?

A

LDL

208
Q

Low levels of calcium in the blood that may lead to dysrhythmias?

A

Hypocalcaemia

209
Q

The law that the volume flow of an incompressible fluid through a circular tube is equal to pie/8?

A

Poiseuille’s Law

210
Q

This is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures?

A

Pulse Pressure

211
Q

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)=

A

1/3 pulse pressure+ diastolic

212
Q

Beta-1 response to Epi does what?

A

Increase HR

213
Q

This part of the brain controls higher thought and judgement, sight, memory and cognitive function?

A

Cerebrum

214
Q

This part of the brain controls fine motor control?

A

Cerebellum

215
Q

What is the Parasympathetic Neurotransmitter?

A

Acetycholine

216
Q

What is the Sympathetic Neurotransmitter?

A

Norepinephrine

217
Q

Brain can last how long without perfusion?

A

3-6 seconds

218
Q

SVT is considered when the HR is over how many BPM?

A

160

219
Q

What is the short period immediately after depolarization in which myocytes are not yet repolarized and are unable to fire or conduct an impulse?

A

Absolute Refractory Period

220
Q

This period is between the effective refractory period and the end of the refractory period; a period of a few milliseconds following the absolute refractory period during which the excitation threshold of neural tissue is raised and a stronger than normal stimulus is required to initiate an action potential?

A

Relative Refractory Period

221
Q

What is Becks Triad, and what is it associated with?

A

JVDMuffled Heart TonesNarrowing Pulse PressureSeen in Cardiac Tamponade

222
Q

What type of overdose can cause numbness, tingling, and seizures?

A

Lidocaine OD

223
Q

Dose for Dopamine drip?

A

2-10mcg/kg/min

224
Q

What system is designed to keep blood pressure up?

A

Renin/Angiotensin

225
Q

IV flow is least affected by the length of the catheter as opposed to its?

A

Diameter

226
Q

What is the Beta-1 response to Epi?

A

Increased HR

227
Q

At what MAP is the brain profused?

A

60mmHg

228
Q

Norepinephrine works on what receptor sites?

A

Alpha, Beta, Dopaminergic Receptors

229
Q

What nerve does acetycholine work on?

A

Vagus Nerve

230
Q

What contains 50% of of the sugar volume in the entire body?

A

Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF)

231
Q

Also known as the oculomotor nerve, this nerve allows for pupil constriction and eye movement?

A

3rd Cranial Nerve

232
Q

With a head injury and brain swelling you will sometimes see constricted pupils, this is due to pressue on the tentorium of the brain on which cranial nerve?

A

3rd Cranial Nerve

233
Q

Also called the trigeminal nerve, this never is responsible for most facial sensations?

A

5th Cranial Nerve

234
Q

Also called the facial nerve, when this nerve swells it can cause facial paralysis or Bells Palsy which can be confused for a stroke?

A

7th Cranial Nerve

235
Q

Also called the vagus nerve, this nerve is the connection between the brain and numerous organs?

A

10th Cranial Nerve

236
Q

Stages of Seizure?

A 
AuraTonic ClonicPostseizurePostictal
237
Q

A sensation the patient gets before a seizure? Also the first stage of seizure.

A

Aura

238
Q

This phase of seizure includes body wide rigidity?

A

Tonic Phase

239
Q

This phase of seizure involves rhythmic contractions of major muscle groups?

A

Clonic Phase

240
Q

This phase of seizure is when all the muscle relax, the eyes may roll back?

A

Postseizure

241
Q

The phase of seizure is the reset period for the brain? May last several minutes or several hours.

A

Postictal

242
Q

This type of seizure involves the whole body?

A

General Seizure

243
Q

This type of seizure just involves part of the body?

A

Partial Seizure

244
Q

These are also known as “fake” seizures?

A

Pseudoseizures

245
Q

Also called Tonic/Clonic, this type of seizure leaves the patient unconscious and involves shaking and jerking the entire body?

A

Grand Mal Seizures

246
Q

This seizure, also called an absence seizure, involves 10-30 seconds of seizure activity marked by starring episodes or loss of motor control?

A

Petit Mal Seizure

247
Q

This type of seizure lasts longer than 4-5 minutes or

A

Status Epilepticus

248
Q

Treatment for Status Epilepticus?

A

Vailum

249
Q

A common chronic neurologic disorder that is characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures?

A

Epilepsy

250
Q

Sedative hypnotic drugs that provide muscle relaxation and mild sedation, includes Diazepam (Valium), and Medazolam (Versed)?

A

Benzodiazepines

251
Q

Sustained contractions of both agonist and antagonist muscles. Twisting movements which when prolonged may produce abnormal postures?

A

Dystonia

252
Q

Treatment for Dystonic Seizures?

A

Benedryl 25-50mg

253
Q

A movement disorder which consists of effects including diminished voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, similar to tics or chorea?

A

Dyskinesia

254
Q

Involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities? Generally caused by extended use of Halodol.

A

Tardive Dyskinesia

255
Q

A delayed stress reaction?

A

Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

256
Q

S/S- Hallucinations and delusions.

A

Schizophrenic Patient

257
Q

Suicide is most likely to occur at what age and condition?

A

40-50 with terminal disease

258
Q

A condition in which a person is overly concerned with physical health and appearance to the point that it dominates his or her life?

A

Somatoform Disorder

259
Q

Periods of apnea and rapid breaths? Usually involved with a head injury and increased intracranial pressure?

A

Biot’s Respirations

260
Q

Respirations caused by stroke and intracranial pressure?

A

Cheyene-Stokes Respirations

261
Q

Treatment for patient with Cheyne Stokes respirations?

A

Ventilate at 20BPM

262
Q

Elevated BP, Slow or normal HR, erratic respirations?

A

Cushings Syndrome/Triad/Reflex

263
Q

Best sign of Intracranial Pressure?

A

High BP

264
Q

Why is the patients skin pink distal to the injury in neurogenic shock?

A

A lack of Sympathetic response

265
Q

A rare and usually fatal disease of the brain, characterized by progressive dimentia and gradual loss of muscle control, that occurs most often in middle age and is caused by a slow virus?

A

Mad Cow Disease (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)

266
Q

Tumors of the adrenal gland which produce excess adrenaline?

A

Pheochromocytoma

267
Q

Damages the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Lou Gehrigs Disease (ALS-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)

268
Q

A syndrome that results when the pituitary gland produces excess growth hormones? Includes abnormal and and feet growth.

A

Acromegaly

269
Q

Inadequate cellular perfusion?

A

Shock

270
Q

Shock causes what type of acidosis?

A

Metabolic

271
Q

Types of Shock?

A 
CardiogenicHypovolemicNeurogenicAnaphylacticSeptic
272
Q

Type of shock where there is an impaired pumping power of the heart

A

Cardiogenic Shock

273
Q

Treatment for Cardiogenic Shock?

A

Dopamine 5-10mcg/kg/min

274
Q

Type of shock where there is a decrease in blood/water volume? Cool, pale, clammy skin, BP low, HR up?

A

Hypovolemic Shock

275
Q

Earliest sign of hypovolemia?

A

Anxiety and restlessness

276
Q

First organ affected by lack of O2?

A

Brain

277
Q

Type of shock with an injury to the brain or spinal cord that disrupts communication between nerves and arteries causing relative hypovolemia? Warm, dry, red skin, low BP, slow HR?

A

Neurogenic Shock

278
Q

Type of shock with a quick onset, allergic reaction, stridor is an ominous sign? Low BP, pulmonary or laryngeal edema?

A

Anaphylactic Shock

279
Q

Treatment for Anaphylactic Shock?

A

Epinephrine 1:1000 IM

280
Q

What does the CNS due in Anaphylaxis?

A

Widespread vasodilation

281
Q

The antibody responsible for Anaphylaxis?

A

IgE- Immunoglobulin E

282
Q

Type of shock with an infection that enters the blood stream and is carried throughout the body? Fever, skin flushed, maybe have breathing issues. History of infection or fever.

A

Septic Shock

283
Q

In lead II, which lead is positive?

A

LL-Left Lower

284
Q

Bacteria produce what to harm our body?

A

Endo/Exotoxins

285
Q

PE mimics what?

A

Right Side Failure

286
Q

Addison’s Disease?

A

Hypoadrenalism

287
Q

How does asthma display on ETCO2?

A

Shark Fin

288
Q

1 cause of chronic bronchitis?

A

Smoking

289
Q

Somnolence means?

A

Sleepiness

290
Q

Too many RBC’s, called?

A

Polycythemia

291
Q

Graves’ disease also called?

A

Hyperthyroidism

292
Q

Cushing’s syndrome, also called?

A

Hyperadrenalism

293
Q

Myxedema, also called?

A

Hypothyroidism

294
Q

Best position to evaluate JVD on patient?

A

45 degree angle

295
Q

What kind of drug is verapamil?

A

Calcium channel blocker

296
Q

Cancer patient in a nursing home is cold and clammy with a fever of 101. Recently returned from the hospital for surgery, has a non-healing sore, suspect?

A

Septic Shock

297
Q

Abnormal distribution and return of the blood as seen in Anaphylaxis, Sepsis, or Neurogenic Shocks?

A

Distributive Shock

298
Q

3 stages of shock?

A

CompensatedDecompensatedIrreversible

299
Q

In this stage of shock, the body has teh ability to maintain its metabolic demands. Normal BP, possible skin mottling, heart rate up, and contractility is normal.

A

Compensated Shock

300
Q

In this stage of shock, the body is unable to meet metabolic demands. Hypotensive, bradycardia. Heart rate moving from tachy to brady?

A

Decompensated Shock

301
Q

This stage of shock results in death (cell death). Embolisms flushed into circulation, causes MODS.

A

Irreversible Shock

302
Q

A loss of how much blood, will result in a drop in blood pressure?

A

20%

303
Q

A loss of how much blood, will result in a narrowing pulse pressure?

A

15%

304
Q

Never give more than _____ of fluid to anyone.

A

3 Liters

305
Q

Blood loss needs to be replaced by _____ at a rate of _____.

A

Crystalloids, 3:1

306
Q

When a normal person lays down the neck veins should do what?

A

Bulge out

307
Q

What is the most lethal disorder of the diabetic family? Death due to dehydration.

A

HHNK

308
Q

Drugs administered to a patient in shock have _____ effects because the organs (liver and kindneys) cannont metabolize them properly.

A

Prolonged

309
Q

Treatment for Spinal Shock

A

Treat with IV fluids if BP is low. Condition is generally temporary.

310
Q

Oliguria means?

A

Sunken eyes

311
Q

Signs of head trauma?

A

Cushings Reflex (elevated BP, slow HR, erratic resp.)

312
Q

What is the key concern with facial fractures?

A

Airway

313
Q

What type of facial fracture presents as a slight instability involving the maxilla?

A

Lefort 1 Fracture

314
Q

What type of facial fracture involves both the maxilla and the nasal bones?

A

Lefort 2 Fracture

315
Q

What type of facial fractures involve the entire facial region below the brow ridge?

A

Lefort 3 Fracture

316
Q

This injury includes a stretch or tear to the ligament of a joint that commonly leads to pain and swelling?

A

Sprain

317
Q

This injury involves the stretching or tearing of a muscle by excess stretching or overuse?

A

Strain

318
Q

This is a wrist fracture involving a break at the end of the radius bone of the forearm?

A

Colle’s Fracture

319
Q

What bone is on the thumb side of the forearm?

A

Radius

320
Q

A partial or incomplete dislocation?

A

Subluxation

321
Q

Preferred splint for bilateral femur fractures?

A

Sager Splint

322
Q

What is the absolute contraindication of a PASG?

A

Pulmonary Edema

323
Q

This device can be used for bilateral femur fractures, pelvic fractures, massive lacerations to the lower legs, or AAA?

A

MAST (Military Anti-Shock Trousers) or PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment)

324
Q

Before placing a traction splint, check what other areas for injury?

A

Pelvis, knee, and ankle.

325
Q

This occurs when 2 or more ribs are broken in 2 or more places?

A

Flailed Chest

326
Q

This is involved with a crushing traumatic chest injury, resulting in bulging eyes (exothalamus), bloated blue tongue, red/purple looking face, and extreme JVD?

A

Traumatic Asphyxia

327
Q

1 cause of death in crush injuries?

A

Bleeding

328
Q

This is a condition which skeletal muslce tissue breaks down rapidly leaking myoglobin and potassium into the bloodstream that may cause kidney failure?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

329
Q

What is the fatal process of total hypovolemia?

A

Exsanguination (bleeding out)

330
Q

You are working a building collapse and you find a worker whose legs have been pinned under a large I-Beam for 12 hours. What do you suspect?

A

Crush Injury/Compartment Syndrome

331
Q

Shutting off blood supply to an extremity?

A

Compartment Syndrome

332
Q

When assessing a trauma patient, what is the least likely sign to be of diagnostic value?

A

Auscultation

333
Q

Shock patient without bowel sounds, think?

A

Obstructed Bowel

334
Q

When palpating the abdomen for pain, start where?

A

At a site away from the injury.

335
Q

Umbilicus brusing?

A

Cullen’s Sign

336
Q

Bruising of the flanks?

A

Grey Turner Sign (predicts a severe attack of pancreatitis)

337
Q

Formula used for fluid resuscitation for a burn patient?

A

Parkland burn formula

338
Q

What is the Parkland burn formula?

A

4ml x weight(kg) x burned body surface area- 50% given in first 8 hours- Remaining given over next 16 hours

339
Q

How many liters of blood in the body?

A

6 Liters

340
Q

How much blood can be lost from a pelvic fracture?

A

2000-4000ml (2-4L)

341
Q

Never do what, to a patient with suspected pelvic fracture?

A

Never log roll or rock the pelvis when palpating for injury

342
Q

Slow relapse into a coma, alcoholics and elderly are more prone to this?

A

Subdural Hematoma

343
Q

This occurs rapidly, commonly associated with damage to the middle meningeal artery?

A

Epidural Hematoma

344
Q

This artery is the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery. Runs across the temporal area of the brain.

A

Middle Meningeal Artery

345
Q

A condition associated with penetrating trauma with hemisection of the spinal cord and complete damage to all spinal tracts on the involved side?

A

Brown Sequard Syndrome

346
Q

GSW to the parietal (top) region of the head, how do you stop the bleeding?

A

Apply digital pressure around the wound

347
Q

MVA patient has facial fractures and facial edema, when bagging with a BVM you hear stridor and air leaking around the seal. What is your action?

A

Stridor likely due to obstruction, clear airway, consider cricothyrotomy

348
Q

In an adult, what is the percentage of area burned if the patients entire leg was involved?

A

18%

349
Q

In an adult, what is the the total percentage of area burned if the patients entire arm, from shoulder to fingers, was burned?

A

9%

350
Q

In an adult, what is the total percentage burned if just the front to the patient was burned, from lower abdomen to neck?

A

18%

351
Q

In an adult, what is the total percentage of area burned if the burn involves the entire head?

A

9%

352
Q

In an adult, what is the percentage of area burned, if the genital area is involved?

A

1%

353
Q

MVA patient has facial fractures and facial edema, when bagging with a BVM you hear stridor and air leaking around the seal. What is your action?

A 
Clear airway (Stridor likely due to obstruction)Cricothyrotomy
354
Q

Patient shot in left chest and he has equal breath sounds and JVD, what is his problem?

A

Possible cardiac tamponade, usually associated with cardiac contusion

355
Q

You have a patient who was in a motorcycle accident, his foot feels wet in his boot, think?

A

Possible tibia/fibula or ankle fracture

356
Q

Your patient in unconscious, hypotensive, and has a mandible fracture, blood and broken teeth are found in the mouth. How do you maintain the airway?

A

Suction and ET, or nasal intubation

357
Q

You have a conscious 22 YOM who has been stabbed in the chest, the patient has dyspnea and decreased breath sounds on the ipsilateral (same) side, and distended neck veins. What does he have, and how do you treat it?

A
  • Tension pneumothorax| - Relieve pressure by decompression of the chest.
358
Q

You have a 24 YOM involved in an MVA with a hematoma over the right eye. Patient is unconscious with slow respirations, pupils are unequal. What is your first treatment?

A

C-SpineAirwayBreathing- BVMProtect airway

359
Q

You have been on the scene of an MVA and have treated critical patients and are now on the way to the hospital. What do you do next?

A 
Detailed ExamReevaluate interventions, ABC'sObtain additional vitalsTreat secondary injuriesTrending
360
Q

You have a 35 YOM involved in a motorcycle accident. He is complaining of severe ankle pain. He states his boot feels full of water despite being on dry ground. After completing the primary survey, what do you do next?

A

Focus on ankle, cut and remove bootRapid Trauma assessmentCover all life threatsFocused assessment

361
Q

You find a 2 YO who has just been pulled from a swimming pool, he is apneic, cyanotic, with a pulse of 90. What do you do?

A

AirwayC-SpineBVM with high flow O2

362
Q

IV access in trauma?

A

2 large bore IV’s or 1 central access

363
Q

Treatment for eviscerated bowel?

A
  • Cover with moist dressing| - Cover the moist dressing with occlusive dressing
364
Q

What would you expected to see in an airbag deployment from frontal impact?

A

Burns to the face, hands, and arms

365
Q

Patient presentation includes what?

A

Evaluation of:AppearanceMentationBehavior

366
Q

Least valuable information you can obtain about a patients medical history?

A

Family History

367
Q

Do not perfrom the Heimlich maneuver on which type of patient?

A

Drowning victim

368
Q

Airway good with C-Spine injury?

A

Modified jaw thrust

369
Q

Treatment for chemical burns by Sodium (Na)?

A

Brush it offRinse with oilNO water contact

370
Q

Ammonia and bleach are what kind of poisons?

A

Alkaline/base

371
Q

Acid burn is a _____ burn.

A

Coagulation

372
Q

Alkaline burns are _____ burn.

A

Liquification

373
Q

Patient has massive facial trauma, what is the best way to protect the airway?

A

Intubation

374
Q

What suction device would you use on a patient that has debris and broken teeth in the airway?

A

Yankauer Suction Device

375
Q

Jugular vein laceration, will lead to what?

A

Air Embolism

376
Q

If Cerebrospinal Fluid is visible, there is likely a fracture where?

A

Cribiform Plate

377
Q

How to determine if fluid is CSF?

A 
Halo testBlood sugar (should be 50% of normal)
378
Q

If you had a patient that needed morphine, it would be important to know what?

A

If their addicted to heroin or other narcotics

379
Q

Worst type of wound?

A

Puncture Wound

380
Q

Having a hard time controlling bleeding?

A

Add more dressings

381
Q

Treatment for laceration to the forearm?

A

Direct pressureImmobilizeElevate

382
Q

In relation to ribs, where do you decompress the chest?

A

Above the ribs

383
Q

Normal pH?

A

7.35-7.45

384
Q

Shock patient will be more acidic or alkalotic?

A

Acidic

385
Q

Co2 stays the same, pH decreases, sodium bicarb decreases?

A

Metabolic Accidosis

386
Q

Dose of Lidocaine in treatment of PVC’s?

A

1-1.5mg/kg| Repeat every 5-10 minutes to max of 3mg/kg

387
Q

Treatment for polymorphic V-Tach with a pulse?

A

Magnesium Sulfate 1-2g mixed in 100ml D5W, given over 5-60 minutes

388
Q

What is the first step in EVERY scenario?

A

BSI| Scene safety

389
Q

Co2 stays the same, pH increases, sodium bicarb increases?

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

390
Q

Co2 increases, pH decreases, sodium bicarb stays the same?

A

Respiratory Acidosis

391
Q

Co2 decreases, pH increases, sodium bicarb stays the same?

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

392
Q

Metabolism that can proceed only in the presence of O2?

A

Aerobic Metabolism

393
Q

Metabolism that takes place in the absence of O2?

A

Anaerobic Metabolism

394
Q

Patient that has vomited for 3 days is likely in what?

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

395
Q

NaHCO3?

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

396
Q

Ectopic pregnancy in 1st trimester, how do you transport?

A

Position of comfort

397
Q

Ectopic pregnancies occur how many weeks from implantation?

A

6-12 weeks

398
Q

You are called to a 23 YOF. You find her curled up like a ball in the fetal position complaining of right side abdominal pain. She has nausea and has been vomiting. What would you suspect?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

399
Q

What is mittelschmerz?

A

Pain during ovulation

400
Q

This is a way to identify the position of the fetus during delivery. A common and systematic way to determine the position of a fetus inside a womans uterus.

A

Leopold’s Maneuver

401
Q

This is a measure of the size of the uterus used to assess fetal growth and development. It is measured from the top of the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimeters.

A

Fundal Height- Full Term= Xyphoid Process- 20 weeks= Umbilicus- 12-16 weeks= Pubis

402
Q

Fetal heart tones are best heard where?

A

Between the pubis and umbilicus

403
Q

During pregnancy, heart rate increases _____ to _____ BPM

A

15-20

404
Q

Blood pressure decreases by _____ to _____mmHg by the 2nd trimester.

A

10-15

405
Q

Normal weight gain during pregnancy is approximately how much?

A

20lbs.

406
Q

A mother can lose _____ to _____ blood volume and show minimal changes during pregnancy.

A

30-35%

407
Q

This stage of labor begins with the onset of contractions that cause progressive changes in the cervix, and ends when the cervix is fully dilated?

A

Stage 1

408
Q

This term describes the shortening, or thinning of tissue in the cervix. Occurs during the first stage of labor.

A

Effacement

409
Q

This stage of labor begins once the mother is fully dilated and ends with the birth of the baby?

A

Stage 2

410
Q

This stage of labor begins right after the birth of the baby and ends with the separation and subsequent delivery of the placenta?

A

Stage 3

411
Q

This is the term used for a woman who has given viable births one or more times?

A

Para

412
Q

This term describes a person who is pregnant for the first time?

A

Primagravida

413
Q

This term describes a woman who has never been pregnant?

A

Nuligravida

414
Q

This term describes the number of pregnancies, regardless of outcome?

A

Gravida

415
Q

This is the term used to describe a woman that has had 7-10 kids, and very likely to have a precipitous delivery?

A

Grandmultipara

416
Q

This is a rapid or sudden labor of less than 3 hours of the onset of labor. Occurs in 3rd trimester?

A

Precipitous Delivery

417
Q

A woman is having contractions 3 minutes apart and lasting 60 seconds. What is the first step in treatment?

A

Determine GravidaTell her not to bear downPrepare for deliveryCheck for crowning

418
Q

What is a nuchal cord?

A

Cord wrapped around the babies neck

419
Q

How to manage a nuchal cord?

A

Slide cord from neck around head or use finger under cord to relieve pressure

420
Q

If patient pregnant patient presents with a prolapsed cord, what is your treatment?

A

Relieve pressure on the cordMake sure cord is pulsatingCover with wet, sterile dressingPlace mother with butt in the air and transport

421
Q

Corrected order to suction newborn?

A

Mouth first, then nose. Suction no longer than 10 seconds.

422
Q

S/S- Pregnant patient with blurred vision, headache, hypertension, protein in urine, peripheral edema. Occurs in 3rd trimester.

A

Preeclampsia

423
Q

Treatment for eclampsia?

A

Mag Sulfate

424
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia?

A

Stuck shoulder in birth canal.

425
Q

This is the termination of pregnancy before 6 months or 20 weeks. Before the fetus is viable.

A

Abortion

426
Q

Where does fertilization take place?

A

Fallopian Tubes

427
Q

This organ contains the baby during pregnancy?

A

Uterus

428
Q

Treatment for SIDS?

A

Do not start interventions| Support family and treat as crime scene

429
Q

Treatment for pregnant trauma patient?

A 
C-collar, C-spine immobilizationBackboardO22 large bore IV's, administer crystalloidsTransport tilted to the leftReassess frequentlyMonitor the fetus
430
Q

Sight of the ovarian cyst?

A

Graffian Follicle

431
Q

What is the make-up of the umbilical cord?

A

2 arteries| 1 vein

432
Q

When do you start CPR on a neonate?

A

HR is less than 60 BPM, or the patient is not responding to supplemental O2 ventilations.

433
Q

While enroute to the hospital with an OB patient, you notice delivery is eminent. What do you do next?

A

Pull over and deliver child| Call for additional help, due to having 2nd patient

434
Q

This substance stimulates contractions of the myepithelial cells causing milk to be ejected into the ducts?

A

Oxytocin

435
Q

These receptors can be used to relax the uterine wall during preterm labor?

A

B2 Adrenergic receptors (Terbutaline)

436
Q

What is another way (other than drug therapy) to slow contractions during preterm labor?

A

Fluid bolus

437
Q

25 YOF with a vaginal bleed. How do you tell if shes developing hypovolemia?

A 
Tilt Test (orthostatics)Pale, flat jugular veins
438
Q

This condition is when the placenta fails to detach from the uterus. As it exits, pulls on the inside surface turning the organ inside out. Very rare.

A

Uterine Inversion

439
Q

How to determine if the 26 YOF complaining of vaginal bleeding is in shock?

A

Orthostatics, pulse increase by 10-20, BP decrease by 10-20 more.

440
Q

Treatment for preterm labor?

A

500ml fluid bolus

441
Q

Endometrial tissue that forms in the uterus and can extend into the vagina?

A

Endometriosis

442
Q

Infection of the uterus?

A

Endometritis

443
Q

Female with lower abdominal pain and fever has what?

A

Endometritis

444
Q

Pedi Dose:| Epinephrine 1:10,000 (#1 Drug for Pedi Emergencies)

A

.01mg/kg IV/IO

445
Q

Pedi Dose:| Epinephrine Infusion 1:1000

A

.1mcg/kg/min

446
Q

Pedi Dose:| Atropine (#2 Drug for Pediatrics)

A

.02mg/kg ET/IV/IO

447
Q

Pedi Dose:| Lidocaine

A

1mg/kg ET/IV/IO

448
Q

Pedi Dose:| Lidocaine Infusion

A

20-50 mcg/kg/min

449
Q

Pedi Dose:| D50 dilute D25

A

.5mg/kg IV/IO

450
Q

Pedi Dose:| Defibrillation

A

2J/kg, 4J/kg, 4J/kg

451
Q

This occurs when bilirubin (a byproduct of the breakdown of Red Blood Cells) builds up faster than a newborns liver can break it down and pass it from the body.

A

Jaundice Bilirubin

452
Q

Also know as a middle ear infection. Can be a cause of a brain abscess.

A

Otitis Media

453
Q

This reflex is positive if the toes point upward when the bottom of the foot is stroked. Opposite in infants.

A

Babinski’s Reflex

454
Q

Wheezing in a child under 1 year, caused by a virus.

A

Bronchiolitis

455
Q

Why do infants dehydrate faster than adults?

A

Increased body surface area in relation to their mass.

456
Q

How to obtain best seal in assisting an infants breathing ?

A

EC 2 person method

457
Q

If a newborn is not breathing after one minute you should first do what?

A

Warm and stimulate

458
Q

1 indicator of hypoxia in a child?

A

Bradycardia

459
Q

The mother of a 4 YOM states her child has had a sore throat since yesterday. He has a high fever and difficulty swallowing. No cough is present and he is drooling. Think?

A

Epiglottitis

460
Q

How to determine if pediatric patient has croup?

A

Seal-bark cough

461
Q

Treatment for croup?

A

Racemic Epinephrine .25-.75mg

462
Q

Any child with fever, think? Even more so with Petechiae (red/purple rash).

A

Meningitis

463
Q

Stiff or painful neck commonly associated with meningitis.

A

Nuchal Rigidity

464
Q

Death from Meningitis usually comes from what?

A

MODS

465
Q

If an injured child is apathetic and does not cry, think what?

A

Child abuse

466
Q

CPR should be initiated on a newborn when HR does not go up after O2 administration and stimulation, or is less than _____ BPM to begin with?

A

60

467
Q

A kid is injured in a pool and floating, what should you do first?

A

Place patient on back board while still in the water.

468
Q

This gland lies underneath the breastbone, processes T-Lymphocytes, disappears with age.

A

Thymus

469
Q

Teenager who has flu like symptoms and has taken aspirin, now comatose.

A

Rye’s Syndrome

470
Q

This makes elderly patients more susceptible to supdural hematomas when they fall?

A

Brain atrophy

471
Q

This spinal condition is the most likely to impair breathing and cause acidity issues, decreased tidal volume.

A

Kyphosis

472
Q

Spinal deformation also called bubble butt.

A

Lordosis

473
Q

“S” shaped spine.

A

Scoliosis

474
Q

Degenerative disease of the spinal column?

A

Spandolosis

475
Q

This substance facilitates the entry of glucose into the cells?

A

Insulin

476
Q

Where is insulin produces?

A

In the Pancrease, Islet of Langerhans, by beta cells

477
Q

Diabetics with high glucose cannot get it to the cells due to low insulin. Cells then burn fat resulting in production of ketones. This is the initial process of?

A

DKA and kussmaul respirations

478
Q

Also knows as juvenile diabetes, is an autoimmune disease that results in the destruction of insulin-producing beta cells of the pancrease.

A

Diabetes Mellitus Type 1

479
Q

This is the most common disorder when Type 1 Diabetes goes untreated?

A

DKA

480
Q

2 signs of DKA?

A

Warm and dry skin| Kussmaul respirations

481
Q

2 signs of Insulin Shock?

A

Cool and moist skin| Normal respirations

482
Q

Also called non-insulin dependant diabetes, is a disorder that is characterized by high blood glucose in the context of insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency?

A

Diabetes Mellitus Type 2

483
Q

Type 2 diabetes treated with?

A

Metformin (decreases hepatic glucose production)

484
Q

This results from an extremely high sugar content in the blood, causing a shift of water from the intracellular fluid into the blood. Resulting in cellular dehydration.

A

HHNK (Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketonic Coma)

485
Q

_____ with high blood sugar will be dehydrated.

A

Diabetics

486
Q

Patient has DKA, what is the first thing that would be of most help?

A

O2

487
Q

Patient has orange peel skin, think?

A

Diabetic

488
Q

This branch of civil law that involves a conflict between 2 parties. Most likely to be sued under this branch.

A

Tort Law

489
Q

This means “the thing speaks for itself”. Replaces reasonable doubt.

A

Res Ipsa Loquitur

490
Q

What a state permits a paramedic practicing under its license or certification to do.

A

Scope of Practice

491
Q

Scope of practice is defined by what?

A

State legislature

492
Q

4 components of negligence.

A

Breach of DutyDuty to ActActual DamagesProximate Cause

493
Q

When the EMT does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care.

A

Breach of Duty

494
Q

4 parts of “Breach of Duty”

A

Duty to actYou breached your dutyInjury of some kindYou caused the injury

495
Q

Failure to perform an act that is either an official duty or a legal requirement.

A

Nonfeasance

496
Q

The performance of a lawful action in an illegal or improper manner.

A

Misfeasance

497
Q

Wrongdoing or misconduct especially by a public official.

A

Malfeasance

498
Q

The EMT’s responsibility to act reasonable within the standards of his or her training.

A

Duty to act

499
Q

When a patient is physically or psychologically harmed in some noticeable way.

A

Actual Damages

500
Q

Reasonable cause and effect. (Dropping a patient during lifting)

A

Proximate Cause

Dale's Pearls (1 decks)

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