Paradigms in Bacterial Pathogenesis Flashcards

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1
Q

What enzyme distinguishes pathogenic species of Staphylococcus from those that are non-pathogenic?

A

coagulase: an enzyme complex produced by S. aureus. The cell-associated (bound) from react w fibrinogen in plasma and results in clumping of the blood
the free form activates prothrombin causing clotting of plasma

although commensal strains may not possess coagulase, it has emerged as significant opportunistic pathogens.

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2
Q

What are some clinically relevant strains of antibiotic resistant S. aureus?

A
  1. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
    - evolved via HGT
    - hospital aquired rates have massively declined in the UK
  2. Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA)
    - vancomycin is last resort to MRSA
  3. Community-associated MRSA (CA-MRSA)
    - relevant outside of hospitals
    - dont seem to spread perhaps due to high fitness cost of gene activation
  4. Linezolid-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (LRSA)
    - linezolid used to treat MRSA
  5. Daptomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (DRSA)
    - daptomycin used to treat MRSA
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3
Q

S. aureus is a versatile opportunistic pathogen. Give examples of serious diseases associated w infection.

A

endocarditis - infection of heart valves
pneumonia - infection of the lungs

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4
Q

What are the core and accessory genomes in bacteria?

A

core - found in every strain of species
accessory - only found in certain strains eg adaptation to a specific niche

together these make up the pangenome

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5
Q

What are the S. aureus pathogenicity islands?

A

array of islands in accessory genome that encode for antibiotic resistnace and virulence factors - in the form of mobile genetic elements

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6
Q

What are MSCRAMMs (S. aureus)

A

microbial surface components recognising adhesive matrix molecules

can produce ~20

single peptide at n terminal recognised by export apparatus,then is exported outside of cell and the signal is cleaved

A domain - ligand binding domain, binds to host receptor

B repeats that act as stalk to extend protein away from cell surface so can interact w receptor

has an R domain too but idk what it does, made up of repeats

M domain - LPXTG motif that is a cell wall anchor is covalently bonded to peptidoglycan through action of sortase

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7
Q

Give an example of an MSCRAMM (S. aureus)

A

fibronectin-binding protein (FnBP)

binds to major fibronecin-integrin receptor (α5β1)
forms a cross bridge which induces uptake of bacterial cell into host cell
confers antibiotic resistance as not all can enter host cells + immune evasion

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8
Q

How does SEIX in S. aureus inhibit phagocytosis?

A

SEIX can bind to human neutrophils and disrupt the IgG-mediated phagocytosis

SEIX can interact w cytoskeletal components to disrupt processes reliant on rearrangement ie phagocytosis

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9
Q

What is an example of an extracellular toxin produced by S. aureus?

A

alpha toxin
forms pores in erythrocytes by forming a complex which inserts itself into the membrane, causing an unrestricted flow of ions out leading to cell lysis
shows a recognisable phenotype on blood plate

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10
Q

What makes community-associated MRSA so deadly?

A

enhanced virulence - production of toxins at high concentrations due to accessory gene regulator (agr)
SEIX - a super antigen

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11
Q

What are host specific leucocidins? (S. aureus)

A

encoded by mobile genetic elements
present on prophages of host cell genome
v effective at lysing cells
PVL - human specific leucocodins that cause high tissue damage and the lysis of neutrophils

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12
Q

What are superantigens (SAg)?

A
  • most encoded on mobile genetic elements
  • small thermostabel proteins
  • conserved 2 domain structure: contain MHC II and TCR binding domains
  • large number of sequence variants
  • disulphide loop (enterotoxigenicity)

bypass normal antigen presentation - bring together MHC class II and TCR
non-specific
can lead to activation of overcan lead to activation of over 50% of all T cells → production of huge amount of cytokines → loss of T cell function and sepsis?

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13
Q

Give some background info about Streptococcus.

A
  • most species colonise the oral cavity or nasopharynx as part of the commensal flora
  • many can function as opportunistic pathogens and cause disease by exploting weaknesses in the immune system resulting from age, dampened immune system, or co-infection
  • can be catergorised by heamolytic capabilities (alpha, beta, or non-haemolytic)
  • can be classed by what M protein they possess
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14
Q

What is the most medically important species of Streptococcus?

A

S. pneumoniae

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15
Q

What genes are contained within the core genome?

A

factors involved in colonisation, virulence, metabolism, and niche adaptation

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16
Q

What genes are contained within the accessory genome?

A

strain specific virulence attributes and antimicrobial resistance

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17
Q

What is the region of difference 2? (M. tuberculosis)

A

region of difference 2 (RD2) is an integrative conjugative element containing factors associated w adhesion and biofilm formation

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18
Q

How do mosaic genes arise?

A

result from recombination between two species within the same host eg altered penicillin binding proteins

a good example of this is influenza

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19
Q

What is meant by bacterial competence, and why is it important in Streptococcus?

A
  • natural genetic transformation; uptake of DNA by one bacterium from another
  • to take up DNA, specific genes must be expressed to allow the bacterium to enter a physiological state termed competence
  • Competent bacteria acquire DNA from non-competent siblings via fracticide
  • observed in S. pneumoniae, S. mitis, and S. oralis
  • for S. pneumoniae promotes colonisation fitness, and lung infectivity
  • homologous DNA allows recombinational repair of DNA damaged by oxidative stress
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20
Q

How are biofilm formation and competence linked? (Streptococcus)

A

both regulated by competence stimulating peptide (CSP), a pheromone

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21
Q

Describe the function of the com genes in Streptococcus.

A

comA - encodes ABC transporter for export and maintenance
comC - encodes CSP
comD - encodes CSP receptor, a histidine kinase
comE - encodes regulator of 2 component system

deletion of com genes abolishes biofilm formation and reduces virulence in tissue, enhances virulence in blood

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22
Q

Streptococcus has high genetic plasticity. What does this mean?

A

Its capacity for transformation means HGT rates 3-10x greater than DNApol mutation rates

only 50% of known genes in entire genus are present in 1 strain
there is a large distribution of genetic material

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23
Q

Revision: What are the 3 methods of gene transfer?

A
  1. transformation

DNA is bound at cell surface by a DNA binding proteins which pulls the DNA into the periplasm of gram- or through thick wall f gram+
either whole double strand is taken up or one strand is degraded by a nuclease
a competence-specific protein binds the donor DNA which protects the DNA from further nuclease attack
DNA is then integrated into the genome via recombination

2a. generalised transduction

a bacteriophage transfers DNA from one cell to another

DNA from any portion of the host genome is packaged inside the mature virion in place of the virus genome forming a transductant

happens during lytic cycle of bacteriophages
the resulting transducting particle DNA cannot replicate inside another bacteria it may integrate into the genome
frequency and specificity is low

2b. specialised transduction

a bacteriophage transfers DNA from one cell to another

DNA from a specific region of the host genome chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome

occurs when phage DNA has been inserted into host genome is replicated to produce new virions but genes adjacent to the prophage have been picked up as well
high frequency, efficiency, and specificity

  1. conjugation

plasmid encoded mechanism that involves transfer of plasmids and other mobilised genetic material via the pili

uses rolling circle replication for DNA synthesis instead of the usual normal bidirectional replication

one strand is transferred to the recipient bacteria
as this transfer occurs, the rolling circle mechanism replaces the transferred strand in the donor while a complementary strand is made in the recipient

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24
Q

What is the Mga Regulon? (Streptococcus)

A

regulated by Mga Global transcriptional regulator

includes:
- emm gene: encodes M protein, M-like proteins, fibronectin
- scpA -> C5a peptidase
- sic -> a secreted inhibitor of complement
- speB -> Ig degrading cysteine protease
- has operon -> capsule biosynthesis
- Mga itself

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25
Q

Two Component Systems are common regulators of virulence factors in pathogenic strep. How do they work?

A

many variants but this is a basic model eg RR phosphorylation independent of HK
- membrane sensor of histidine kinase (HK) auto-phosphorylates a histidine residue
- transfers a phosphate to an aspartate residue on the response regulator (RR)
- leading to a conformational change and allows RR~P to bind to DNA

eg CovRS/CsrRS TCS
involved in transcriptional changes associated w transition from pharynx to invasion

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26
Q

What factors do pathogenic Strep strains possess that influence pathogenesis?

A
  • pilus aids binding and can inhibit host defence
  • polysaccharide capsule inhibits phagocytosis eg s. pyogenes hyaluronate capsule similar to human connective tissue
  • biofilm formation limits phagocytosis and antimicrobial activity
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27
Q

What else must be acquired when picking up genetic material from competing bacteriocin?

A

the gene for the bacteriocin as well as the associated immunity factor

must possess immunity factor against own bacteriocin

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28
Q

What are examples of significant pneumococcal surface proteins?

A
  • IgA protease (IAP)
  • polymeric Ig receptor inhibits phagocytosis and aids attachment
  • neuraminidase A & B enhance colonisation and invasion
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29
Q

What is the function of a capsule?

A

allows bacteria to move through mucous as well as additional recognition from complement system, preventing opsonisation and subsequent phagocytosis

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30
Q

How is the capsule formed?

A

Synthesis: Capsular polysaccharides are synthesized from sugar nucleotide building blocks in the bacterial cytoplasm.

Translocation: Synthesized polysaccharides are transported across the cytoplasmic membrane into the periplasm.

Assembly and Export: In the periplasm, polysaccharides are assembled into chains and exported out of the cell.

Attachment: Once outside the cell, polysaccharide chains attach to the cell surface, forming the capsule layer.

Regulation: Capsule production is regulated by the bacterial cell, often involving two-component systems and environmental signals.

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31
Q

What are S. pneumoniae biofilms made out of?

A
  • pneumococcal serine rich repeat protein (PsrP), a pathogenicity island encoded adhesin
  • large and heavily glycosylated
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32
Q

What is pneumolysin?

A

a streptolysin produced by pneumoniae
- forms pores on cholesterol rich membranes on which a conformational change occurs
- induces apoptosis

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33
Q

What is the difference between colonising vs invasive pneumococcal strains?

A

colonising
- more resistant to PMN mediated non-opsonic uptake
- thicker capsule

invasive
- adhesins (CbpA, PspA, PrsP) more accessible so bind and translocate across epithelium
- more resistant to macrophage ingestion and opsonic clearance

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34
Q

What adaptations does Strep have to prevent destruction via complement?

A
  • classical pathway is dominant pathway and determine proportion of bacteria opsonised
  • bacterial adaptations prevent C3 binding
35
Q

What antimicrobials is Strep resistant to?

A

penicillin and other beta-lactam antimicrobials

main mechanism of resistance is through modification of penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

36
Q

Give some background info on Listeria monocytogenes?

A
  • major human food-borne pathogen eg soft cheese, smoke salmon
  • endemic animal pathogen
  • model intracellular bacterium
  • targets macrophages and non-professional phagocytes
  • cytosolic replication within a vacuole

infection is always severe
intake is common but numbers are too low or our immune system is good enough

37
Q

What is the pathogenesis of L. monocytogenes?

A

subclinical proliferation occurs in the spleen, meaning no obvious signs of infection
infection can spread into the bloodstream

  • can escape from phagocytic vacuole before fusion with the lysosome
  • can modify the phagocytic vacuole to make a hospitable environment where it can replicate
  • can lyse phagosome membrane and replicate within cytosol
38
Q

How does L. monocytogenes move between cells?

A

moves between cells by recruiting host cell actin to force its way through cell walls

listeriopods are made up of actin tails with a bacterium at the tip

ActA, a surface protein, is a molecular mimic of the eukaryotic actin nucleation-promoting factor WASP
this activates actin-polymerising function of the Arp2/3 complex

39
Q

What is LIPI-1? (L. monocytogenes)

A

it is a pathogenicity island, the central virulence locus
allows for a wide host range

40
Q

What is the main virulence factor in L. monocytogenes?

A

listeriolysin O (LLO)
if this is knocked out, the bacteria become completely avirulent

41
Q

What is the function of plcB? (L. monocytogenes)

A

it is a phospholipase that allows the bacteria to dissolve the membranes of phagosomes

42
Q

What is the PrfA viruelnce region of L. monocytogenes?

A

Activation of PrfA is essential for the upregulation of virulence genes, and other factors involved in host cell invasion, intracellular survival, and cell-to-cell spread
eg InlA, ActA, LLO

43
Q

What are the functions of the internalins A and B? (L. monocytogenes)

A

InlA
binds to E-cadherin on epithelial cells. This interaction triggers a signaling cascade that leads to the internalization of L. monocytogenes

InlB
binds to the host cell receptor Met (hepatocyte growth factor receptor), which is expressed on a variety of host cell types, including hepatocytes and endothelial cells. Binding of InlB to Met activates intracellular signaling pathways that promote bacterial uptake

44
Q

What transporter is required for growth within the cell? (L. monocytogenes)

A

a glucose phosphate transporter

The ptsG gene encodes the glucose-specific enzyme IICB component of the phosphotransferase system (PTS), which is involved in the uptake and phosphorylation of glucose into the bacterial cell.

45
Q

Give some background info on Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A
  • large circular chromosome
  • thick lipid-rich cell wall
  • slow and variable rate of mitosis
  • rapid mutation rate
46
Q

How is the mycobacterial cell wall different from other bacteria?

A

mycolic acids
- long-chain fatty acids form a waxy layer that provides the cell wall with hydrophobic properties, making mycobacteria resistant to many environmental stresses, including desiccation and chemical disinfectants

Arabinogalactan
- a polysaccharide that links the peptidoglycan layer to the mycolic acid layer
- provides structural support to the cell wall and plays a role in the assembly and stability of the mycobacterial envelope

Peptidoglycan Layer
- mycobacteria have a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by the mycolic acid layer
- This contributes to the impermeability and resistance of the mycobacterial cell wall

47
Q

How does the mycobacterium cell wall contribute to its survival?

A
  • hydrophobicity facilitates nutrient acquisition, biofilm formation, and spread via aerosilation
  • resistance to many common antibiotics and biocides
  • survival inside macrophages
  • resistance to attack by host immune responses
  • not easily stained
  • special nutritional requirements in media used for laboratory culture
48
Q

What virulence factors does M. tuberculosis possess?

A
  • mycolic acid: elicit granuloma formation
  • peroxiredoxin enzymes: reduce H2O2 to water, preventing its toxic effects
  • flavohemoglobins: convert nitric oxide (NO) to nitrate (NO3-)
  • lipoarabinommannan (LAM): induces cytokines and resists oxidative stress
  • secreted tyrosine phosphatase: blocks recruitment of ATPase responsible for creating acidic environment within phagolysosome
49
Q

What is the pathology of M. tuberculosis in the lung?

A
  • droplet enters directly into the alveoli
  • initial infection is limited to a peripheral focus and lymph nodes in the lung
  • these often heal without clinical illness, but small numbers of bacilli often survive in the scar
  • small numbers may also disseminate to other sites and lay dormant for long periods
50
Q

Apart from the lung, where else can TB infect?

A
  • pleura
  • CNS
  • lymphatic system
  • genitourinary systems
    bones and joints
  • disseminated (bloodstream -miliary TB )
51
Q

How can TB be diagnosed?

A
  • chest radiograph
  • classical Ziehl Neelsen stain, or more recent auramine pheno stain (acid fast) which allows easier screening
  • PCR based molecular methods

Cepheid Xpert MTB/RIF
- diagnosis of MTB complex infection and rifampicin (RIF) resistance
- done automatically in 90 minutes

Latent TB
- tuberculin skin testing (TST) - low specificity after BCG vaccine, also needs skill from person doing test
- IFN gamma release assays: blood tests

52
Q

What are some characteristics of enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)?

A
  • defined by possession of heat-liable toxin (LT) and /or heat-stable toxin (ST)
  • toxins cause ion-channels to over-secrete causing watery diarrhoea
  • adheres to intestinal epithelium by colonisation factor antigens (CFA) and adhesins such as Tia, TibA, and EtpA
53
Q

What are some characteristics of uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC)?

A
  • adheres by type-1 and P fimbriae via their FimH and PapG tip adhesins
  • can release haemolysins and cytotoxic necrotising factor (CNF) toxins
  • can from transient intracellular communities (IBC) that are reservoirs for recurrent infections
  • leading cause of UTIs in humans
54
Q

Why are clinical settings common for emergence of superbugs?

A

these settings have patients w potentially high levels of resistance genes in their microbiomes where introduced bacteria can acquire resistance genes

55
Q

What are the different layers of variation?

A
  1. genome variation - strains emerge w a combination of factors enabling the bacterium to cause disease in a specific host/site
  2. major or minor structural variation in the genome - insertion sequence elements and genome re-arrangements
  3. gene expression variation
    - bacteria monitor and control gene expression appropriately ie transcription and translation
    - multiple methods also evolved to generate sub-populations: genetic switches, methylation, and slip strand translation
56
Q

How can E. coli fimbriae be used to define host and tissue tropism?

A

each fimbriae has a different receptor

each strain has the same genetic material, but different genes expressed within a population so entire colony is not wiped out by wave of antibodies

external sensory inputs mediate what gene is expressed so bacteria can adapt to many niches

57
Q

What is phase variation?

A

reversible and random switching of phenotypic traits within a clonal population of bacteria
this phenomenon allows bacteria to generate phenotypic diversity without changes in their genetic sequence, enabling them to adapt to changing environments, evade host immune responses, and optimize their survival and persistence.

low level of random expression limits co-expression

58
Q

What is sequential expression?

A

the coordinated and ordered expression of genes in response to specific environmental signals or conditions
bacteria have evolved intricate regulatory mechanisms to control the timing and level of gene expression to adapt to changing environments and optimize their survival and growth

59
Q

What are some characteristics of Shiga-toxigenic E. coli (STEC)?

A

defined by integrated Stx-encoding prophages
originate from Stx-encoding phages that integrated into genome
has subsets

60
Q

What are some characteristics of enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)?

A

subset of STEC

  • defined by possession of T3SS and Stx
  • initial adherence to colon epithelium is by haemorrhagic coli pilus (HCP) and flagells
  • generates attaching and effacing (A/E) lesions with the T3SS
  • Stx release kills host cells in colon and blood vessels leading to heamorrhagic colitis and kidney failure
  • ruminants are the primary host, humans are incidental
61
Q

How are strains of E. coli named?

A

named after LPS and flagella possessed

62
Q

How does Stx cause disease?

A

toxin receptor is on different cells in humans compared to cattle, so they do not get serious disease

once it enters the cytosol, it acts as an RNA N-glycosidase that cleaves a specific adenine residue from the 28S rRNA of the 60S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis

RBCs are shredded when forced through damaged capillaries

63
Q

Describe a hypothesis of Stx release. (E. coli)

A

hypothesis that Stx is released in outer membrane vesicles (OMVs) in the alternative pathway

periplasm -> OMVs

64
Q

How is Stx released? (E. coli)

A

During SOS response, latent phage DNA is transcribed alongside Stx

When phages are released during lytic cycle, Stx is also released into the environment

65
Q

Give some background info on Salmonella.

A
  • it is a facultative intracellular bacteria
  • most strains metabolise thiosulfate to produce hydrogen sulphide, which leads to black pigmentation on XLD agar
  • most infections in warm- blood animals caused by subspecies enterica
  • MacConkey agar can be used to detect enteric bacteria due to presence of bile salt. phenol red indicator detects lactose fermentation but Salmonella is lac- so shows up as light pink
66
Q

What is a serovar?

A

a group within a species that are classed by distinctive surface structures

67
Q

What are the outcomes of Salmonella infection?

A

Enteritis - normal infection
watery diarrhoea, containing mucous and blood. leads to severe dehydration, electrolyte loss and acid/base imbalance

Typhoid fever - serious infection
fever, sepsis, reduced productivity in animals

Abortion
in particular cattle and sheep, low levels of infection can be ‘activated’ during pregnancy

68
Q

How can salmonella serovars be broadly classed?

A

the degree of host specificity is proportional to the severity of infection

ie the more specific the host the more deadly it is
eg S. typhi in humans can cause typhoid fever

this applies in healthy outbred adults of a species infected orally

exceptions exist however

69
Q

What is the pathogenesis of persistent Salmonella infection?

A

colonisation of gall bladder including exfoliation of infected epithelial cells, biofilm formation, and formation of gallstones

70
Q

How is Salmonella infection controlled?

A

fatality rate is confined to ~1% through the use of antibiotics such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin

many strains resistant to multiple antibiotics & 3rd generation cephalosporins

injectable Vi polysaccharide vaccine and live oral vaccines recommended for travellers to endemic areas

71
Q

How does Salmonella infect humans?

A

follicle-associated epithelium (FAE) in the small intestine is target

these have M cells on domed villi which Salmonella attaches to using fimbriae and surface proteins
M cells take up cell allowing it to cross epithelium

membrane ruffles induced by bacteria, when this occurs salmonella are internalised into salmonella containing vacuoles (SCVs)
this happens so quickly that antibodies would be ineffective

72
Q

What is the role of the SPI-1 pathogenicity island? (Salmonella)

A

encodes T3SS, vital for entry and inflammation which causes diarrhoea which is main method for transmission

T3SS secretes two families of protein:
- Sips that form the ‘needle’
- Sops that hijack cellular processes
some Sips also enter the cells and influence invasion and enteritis

once attached to cell, injection of effector proteins takes 10s

73
Q

What is the function of SopE? (Salmonella)

A

guanine nucleotide exchange factor for Rho-family GTPases that regulate actin network

this activity promotes the membrane ruffling

exact molecular mimic of host cell factors despite low homology

74
Q

What is the function of SopB? (Salmonella)

A

an inositol phosphatase that disrupts cellular messengers

  • activates pro-survival kinase, Akt, to delay apoptosis
  • transforms FAE enterocytes to an M cell-like phenotype
  • antagonises closure of Cl- ion channels leading to net fluid secretion
75
Q

How is diarrhoea cause in Salmonella infection?

A
  • chloride secretion into lumen & osmotic flow of water (SopB)
  • disruption of tight junctions between enterocytes (SopB, SopE, SipA)
  • inflammation leads to increased vascular permeability and loss of epithelial integrity
  • loss of surface area fur to extrusion of infected enterocytes from tips of villi leads to loss of net absorption
76
Q

How does Salmonella survive and replicate within cells?

A
  • a T3SS encoded by SPI-2 mediates intracellular net replication
  • this pokes through vacuole membrane to change its structure by injecting proteins across SCV membrane, preventing fusion with lysosome
  • induces macrophage death by apoptosis
  • impairs assembly of NADPH oxidase on SCVs
  • inhibits peptide loading and surface expression of MHC complexes
77
Q

What is interesting about Salmonella replication following infection of macrophages?

A

a proportion of Salmonella cells become non-replicating persisters
- a reversible state in which the cells are refractory to antibiotics that target growth-dependent processes
- play a role in chronic infections and treatment failures

78
Q

What are some features of Salmonella pathogenicity islands (SPIs)

A
  • rich in virulence-associated genes
  • low GC content
  • often flanked by direct repeats/insertion sequences and contain mobility genes eg integrase, transposase

eg SPI-1 = invasion
SPI-2 = intracellular invasion
SPI-4 = adherence
SPI-5 = enteritis

79
Q

Why is the Vi an important virulence factor of S. typhi?

A
  • resistance to complement-mediated killing
  • resistance to phagocytosis
  • masks LPS from TLR-4
  • prevents neutrophil chemotaxis
80
Q

Why is S. typhi host restricted?

A

it is the more virulent strain but it has lost a lot of genes

81
Q

How does inflammation confers a selective advantage in Salmonella infection

A

inflammation causes the oxidation of thiosulphur in the gut, releasing tetrathionate which can be used as an electron acceptor during anaerobic growth

82
Q

What TLRs detect intracellular bacteria?

A

TLR-3: dsRNA
TLR-7: ssRNA
TLR-8: ssRNA
TLR-9: CpG DNA

83
Q

What TLRs detect extracellular bacteria?

A

TLR-2 + TLR-6: diacyl lipopeptides (bacterial membranes)

TLR-2 + TLR-1: triacyl lipopeptides (bacterial membranes)

TLR-4: LPS

TLR-5: flagellin