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PARA > PARA by Sir Mandanas > Flashcards

PARA by Sir Mandanas Flashcards

1
Q

Introduced aseptic surgery

A

Joseph Lister

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2
Q

First discovery of DNA

A

Fredrick Miescher

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3
Q

Discovered that DNA contained phosphates

A

Phoebus A. T. Levine

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4
Q

Discovered using X-ray crystallography that DNA is helical

A

Rosalind Franklin

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5
Q

Described the 3D structure of the DNA molecule

A

James Watson and Francis

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6
Q

1st to described bacteria and called “beasties”

A

Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek

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7
Q

Important pioneers for the promotion of asepsis

A

Ignatz Semmelweis and Joseph Lister

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8
Q

Germ theory of disease

A

Robert Koch

-Many disease are caused by mircoor
-The etiologic agent can be isolated by an infected person
-Environmental factor contributes to disease

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9
Q
A
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10
Q

How will you differentiate adult from Larva E.vermicularis?

A

Cephalic alae

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11
Q

Similarity of adult and Larva E.vermicularis

A

Bulbed esophagus

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12
Q

Parasite that is allergic to coffee enema (black coffee)

A

Trichuris
Enterobius

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13
Q

Barberspole like

A

Parastrongylus cantonensis

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14
Q

Trophozoite-cyst conversion is very important to life cycles of?

a. Balantdium
b. Entamoeba
c. Giardia
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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15
Q

The sporogonic life cycle of Plasmodium takes place in?

a. man
b. mosquito
c. A & B
d. red blood cells

A

mosquito

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16
Q

Single celled protozoan with four pairs of flagella and ventral adhesive disk

a. Trichimonas vaginalis
b. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Trypanosoma brucei
d. Giardia intestinalis

A

Giardia intestinalis

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17
Q

Specimens used in isolating Trichomonas vaginalis

a. urine
b. AOTA
c. prostatic secretion
d. urethral discharge

A

AOTA

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18
Q

Medina/Dragon worm”

a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Syngamus laryngeus
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Onchocerca volvulus

A

Dracunculus medinensis

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19
Q

All of the following nematodes can be harvested in Zinc Sulphate floatation except?

a. Giant intestinal nematode
b. threadworm
c. Pudoc worm
d. cat hookworm

A

Pudoc worm

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20
Q

Which parasites causes “snail fever”?

a. Schistosoma
b. Angiostrongylus
c. Garrison’s fluke
d. AOTA

A

Schistosoma

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21
Q

Nonmotile, intracellular form of Trypanosoma cruzi

a. epimastigote
b. trypomastigote
c. amastigote
d. promastigote

A

amastigote

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22
Q

Mode of transmission of Schistosoma japonicum

a. skin penetration
b. ingestion of snail
c. penetration of snail
d. ingestion of aquatic plants

A

skin penetration

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23
Q

Definitive host of the broad fish tapeworm

a. fish
b. copepod
c. man
d. snail

A

man

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24
Q

What is the infective stage of the beef tapeworm

a. cysticercus bovis
b. cercocystis bovis
c. plerocercoid larva
d. sparganum

A

cysticercus bovis

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25
Q

Possible vectors for Leishmania spp.

I. Sand fly
II. Chrysops
III. Aedes
IV. Lutzomyia

a. I,II,III
b. I,II,IV
c. I, IV
d. I only

A

I, IV

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26
Q

Causes “ping-pong’s disease”

a. Cryptosporidium spp.
b. AOTA
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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27
Q

Usual location of the pork tapeworm

a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. stomach
d. lungs

A

small intestine

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28
Q

“Old fashioned electric bulb appearance of egg”

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. AOTA
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Chinese liver fluke

A

Chinese liver fluke

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29
Q

“Medina/Dragon worm”

a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Syngamus laryngeus
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Onchocerca volvulus

A

Dracunculus medinensis

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30
Q

Which parasites causes “snail fever”?

a. Schistosoma
b. Angiostrongylus
c. Garrison’s fluke
d. AOTA

A

Schistosoma

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31
Q

Transformation of egg to filariform larva of hookworms takes place in?

a. C & D
b. pus formed/blisters
c. small intestine
d. soil

A

soil

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32
Q

Free living amoeba which causes keratitis and amebic encephalitis

a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Acanthamoeba spp.
c. A & B
d. Naegleria

A

Acanthamoeba spp.

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33
Q

Mode of transmission of Bancroft’s filarial worm

a. ingestion of 3rd stage larva
b. AOTA
c. mosquito borne
d. direct penetration of 3rd stage larva

A

mosquito borne

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34
Q

Which parasite historically inflicted Charles Darwin during his voyage in South America?

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Necator americanus

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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35
Q

Mode of infection for the beef tapeworm

a. skin penetration of larva
b. ingestion of beef with larva
c. ingestion of cattle stools
d. AOTA

A

ingestion of beef with larva

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36
Q

All of the following can possibly be acquired through sexual contact, except
I. Entamoeba histolytica
II. Giardia lamblia
III. Trichomonas vaginalis

a. II, III
b. I,II
c. I only
d. NOTA

A

NOTA

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37
Q

The term “gravid” used in Parasitology denotes

a. ”extreme length”
b. “laying larva”
c. “pregnant”
d. “enlarged size”

A

“pregnant”

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38
Q

Parasitology is the study of

a. parasitic viruses
b. parasitic BACTERIA
c. parasitic eukaryotes and prokaryotes
d. parasitic fungi

A

parasitic eukaryotes and prokaryotes

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39
Q

Which of the following is most effective in preventing Giardia infection?

a. drinking bottled water only
b. cooking all food
c. sexual abstinence
d. application of insect repellents

A

drinking bottled water only

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40
Q

Which of the following arthropods is responsible for transmitting the deadliest parasitic disease?

a. mosquitoes
b. fleas
c. thick
d. true bugs

A

mosquitoes

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41
Q

Filarifom larva of Necator americanus must pass through which organ to mature?

a. brain
b. bladder
c. liver
d. lung

A

lung

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42
Q

Which parasite given here are resistant to routine boiling?
I. Giardia
II. Cryptosporidium
III. Toxoplasma
IV. Plasmodium

a. III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I, III
d. I,II,III, IV

A

I, III

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43
Q

Which of the ff. parasites are acquired through fecal-oral & ingestion?
I. Cyclospora
II. Fasciola
III. Taenia
IV. Toxoplasma

a. 1,II,III
b. II,III
c. I, II,III,IV
d. II,III,IV

A

I, II,III,IV

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44
Q

Balantidium coli can be distinguished from Entamoeba histolytica microscopically because the former has ?

a. trophozoite
b. liver abscess
c. cilia
d. cyst

A

cilia

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45
Q

Which parasite may be transmitted to humans by cat mess/litter boxes?

a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Necator americanus
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Plasmodium falciparum

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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46
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission of parasites?

a. sexual contact
b. ingestion
c. skin penetration
d. AOTA

A

ingestion

47
Q

Which of the ff. are the best specimens for Naegleria?
I. Corneal scrapings
II. CSF
III. Stools
IV. Biopsy material

a. I,II
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,IV

A

I,II,IV

48
Q

The most common protozoan causing disease in people of industrialized nations

a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

49
Q

Infection of Trichomonas vaginalis in women causes;

a. vaginosis
b. vaginitis
c. chlamydial infection
d. gonococcal vaginitis

A

vaginitis

50
Q

Common mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica

a. ingestion of sheep meat
b. ingestion of plants
c. A & B
d. ingestion of fish

A

ingestion of plants

51
Q

Nonmotile, intracellular form of Trypanosoma cruzi

a. epimastigote
b. trypomastigote
c. amastigote
d. promastigote

A

amastigote

52
Q

Which parasite causes “Oriental-sore”?

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Leishmania tropica
c. Chlonorchis sinensis
d. Fasciola gigantica

A

Leishmania tropica

53
Q

Parasitic disease characterized by transient diarrhea in healty persons and severe diarrhea type
in immunocompromised persons

a. trichomoniasis
b. cochin china diarrhea c. giardiasis
d. cryptosporidiosis

A

cryptosporidiosis

54
Q

Parasite acquired through accidental ingestion of uncooked crayfish

a. Metagonimus spp.
b. Heterophyes heterophyes
c. lung fluke
d. Chinese liver fluke

A

lung fluke

55
Q

Aside from the same infective and diagnostic life stages, which characteristic is similar to all filarial worms?

a. capacity for elephantiasis
b. member of Digenea
c. periodicity
d. arthropod vector

A

arthropod vector

56
Q

Eggs of pinworm are usually diagnosed in what specimen?

a. duodenal aspirate
b. AOTA
c. tape swabs
d. stool

A

tape swabs

57
Q

Feeding, replicative and invasive form of Entamoeba histolytica

a. 3rd stage larva
b. larva
c. cyst
d. trophozoite

A

trophozoite

58
Q

The microfilariae are sheathed. The anterior is rounded, and the posterior tapers to a point. There are no nuclei in the tail

a. Bancroft’s filarial worm
b. Eyeworm
c. Mansonella streptocerca
d. Brugia malay

A

Bancroft’s filarial worm

59
Q

Ameba with “basket shaped nucleus”

a. Entamoeba coli
b. Iodamoeba butshlii
c. Entamoba hartmanii
d. Entamoeba polecki

A

Iodamoeba butshlii

60
Q

Which parameter is not encountered during routine macroscopic stool examination for
Parasitology?

a. proglottid inspection
b. fecal sediments
c. color
d. mucous flecks

A

fecal sediments

61
Q

All of the following are correct diagnostic forms of parasite given in peripheral smear, except?

a. Tachyzoite- Toxoplasma
b. Microfilaria- Wuchereria
c. Schizont- Plasmodium
d. Trypomastigote- Acute T.cruzi

A

Tachyzoite- Toxoplasma

62
Q

Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is seen following a liver aspirate?

a. ciliated trophozoite
b. thorny trophozoite
c. trophozoite
d. flagellated dormant cyst

A

trophozoite

63
Q

All of the following cysts of parasites are seen in stools, except?

a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Trichomonas hominis

A

Trichomonas hominis

64
Q

All of the following parasites harbors the eggs in urine, except?

a. Enterobius
b. Wuchereria
c. Dioctophyma
d. Schistosoma haematobium

A

Wuchereria

65
Q

Trophozoites of what parasite can infect lungs
I. Paragonimus
II. Entamoeba histolytica III. Ascaris
IV. Threadworm

a. I,III,IV
b. II only
c. III, IV
d. II, III, IV

A

II only

66
Q

Which is not a correct parasite-diagnostic form seen in skin?

a. amastigote- Leishmania tropica
b. microfilaria- blinding worm
c. 3rd stage larva- guinea worm
d. encysted larvae- Trichinella

A

encysted larvae- Trichinella

67
Q

What is a direct effect of iodine in parasitic smears?

a. availability of reagents
b. NOTA
c. color intensity
d. immobilization of parasites

A

immobilization of parasites

68
Q

What is the major difference of D’Antoni’s Iodine from Lugol’s Iodine?

a. latter is more concerned with nuclear and cytoplasmic details
b. former is commonly employed in biologic determination other than parasites
c. latter is strictly used for parasitologic analysis
d. former has lesser amount of iodine/crystals

A

former has lesser amount of iodine/crystals

69
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission of parasites?

a. sexual contact
b. ingestion
c. skin penetration
d. AOTA

A

ingestion

70
Q

Parasite acquired through accidental ingestion of uncooked crayfish

a. Metagonimus spp.
b. Heterophyes heterophyes
c. lung fluke
d. Chinese liver fluke

A

lung fluke

71
Q

What type of blood is used for knott’s concentration?

a. arterial
c. venous
b. lysed blood
d. capillary

A

venous

72
Q

Which parameter is not encountered during routine macroscopic stool examination for
Parasitology?

a. proglottid inspection
b. fecal sediments
c. color
d. mucous flecks

A

fecal sediments

73
Q

Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is seen following a liver aspirate?

a. ciliated trophozoite
b. thorny trophozoite
c. trophozoite
d. flagellated dormant cyst

A

trophozoite

74
Q

All of the following cysts of parasites are seen in stools, except?

a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Trichomonas hominis

A

Giardia lamblia

75
Q

Gold standard for pinworm

a. AOTA
b. ELISA
c. stool culture
d. scotch tape swab

A

scotch tape swab

76
Q

This technique exploits the property of the Strongyloides larva to migrate from cooler to warmer area

a. Bentonite
b. Boeck & Drbohlav
c. Harada Mori
d. Beck’s

A

Harada Mori

77
Q

Observation of E.histolytica cysts

a. asymptomatic
b. carrier
c. AOTA
d. chronic infection

A

asymptomatic

78
Q

All of the following parasites causes a delayed type reaction for intradermal testing, except?

a. Leishmania
b. Trypanosoma
c. Toxoplasma
d. Trichinella

A

Trichinella

79
Q

Which of the following is not carried by cyclops?

a. broad fish tapeworm
b. Leishmania
c. Dracunculus
d. Gnathostoma

A

Leishmania

80
Q

Generally, which parasite cannot cause anemia?

a. Necator americanus
b. Giardia
c. Plasmodium
d. D. latum

A

Giardia

81
Q

”Larva currens” is usually caused by what parasite?

a. threadworm
b. blinding worm
c. fiery serpent
d. AOTA

A

threadworm

82
Q

Which parasite trematode given below cannot be associated with malignancy?

a. Chlonorchis sinensis
b. Taenia solium
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Opistorchis spp.

A

Taenia solium

83
Q

All of the following protozoans causes opportunistic infections with immunocompromised hosts, except?

a. Strongyloides
b. Toxoplasma
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Entamoeba histolytica

A

Strongyloides

84
Q

Which organism is the natural definitive and reservoir host of Capillaria?

a. fish
b. birds
c. snail
d. humans

A

birds

85
Q

Vitamin malabsorption for Ascaris lumbricoides

a. Vit B
b. albumin
c. Vit A
d. vit C

A

Vit A

86
Q

Which parasite given below has the charactertistic adult worm bearing a wing like expansion of
the cuticle near the anterior end?

a. Dracunculus
b. Whipworm
c. Oesophagostomum
d. pinworm

A

pinworm

87
Q

Vector for African Eyeworm

a. chrysops
b. culicoides
c. cone –nosed bug
d. cyclops

A

chrysops

88
Q

Identify the parasite isolated: Stool diagnostics—detects barrel shaped eggs with mucus plugs at
the ends, patient has Peripheral blood Eosinophilia and Increased serum IgE level

a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Capillaria hepatica
c. Trichinella
d. Trichiuris

A

Trichiuris

89
Q

Only known infected host of the Enterobius vermicularis?

a. humans
b. snails
c. pigs
d. cattles

A

humans

90
Q

“Cat liver fluke”

a. Toxocara cati
b. Ancylostoma braziliensis
c. Paragonimus siamiensis
d. Opistorchis felineus

A

Opistorchis felineus

91
Q

It is the most pathogenic species among the schistosomes.

a. haematobium
b. intercalatum
c. japonicum
d. mansoni

A

japonicum

92
Q

Infective stage of pinworm

a. adult worm
b. 3rd stage larva
c. embryonated egg
d. fertilized egg

A

embryonated egg

93
Q

Circulating anodic & cathodic antigen is commonly used in?

a. Onchocerca
b. Schistosome
c. Babesia
d. Cytoisospora

A

Schistosome

94
Q

Which tapeworm is capable of autoreinfection?
I. Hymenolepis nana
II. Enterobius vermicularis
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
IV. Capillaria spp.

a. II,III,IV
b. I,II
c. I
d. I,II,III

A

I

94
Q
A
95
Q

Reservoir host of Balantidium coli

a. C & D
b. snail
c. human
d. pig

A

pig

96
Q

Non feeding life stage of protozoans

a. embryo
b. embryonated larva
c. trophozoite
d. cyst

A

cyst

97
Q

Most common malarial parasite worldwide

a. falciparum
b. ovale
c. malariae
d. vivax

A

vivax

98
Q

Which of the ff. parasites are viviparous?

a. Brugia
b. Loa loa
c. Wuchereria
d. AOTA

A

AOTA

99
Q

“String of beads” appearance of esophagus

a. whipworm
b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis

A

whipworm

100
Q

“Guitar shaped egg”

a. Hookworm egg
b. Giardia immature cyst c. Trichiuris sp.
d. Capillaria spp.

A

Capillaria spp.

101
Q

Microfilaria isolated in a body cavity is unsheathed, and nuclei is continuous to tail tip

a. Onchocerca volvulus
b. Brugia timori
c. Loa loa
d. Mansonella perstans

A

Mansonella perstans

102
Q

Mosquito vectors of Brugia malayi
I. Aedes
II. Anopeheles
III. Culex
IV. Mansonia

a. II, IV
b. I,III,IV
c. I, IV
d. I, II, IV

A

I, II, IV

103
Q

Bachmann intradermal test is highly specific for?

a. Baylisascaris procyonis
b. Echinococcus spp.
c. Trichinella sp.
d. Toxoplasma

A

Trichinella sp.

104
Q

Scolex is characterized by 20-30 Y shaped hooklets

a. temperate liver fluke
b. Railletina spp.
c. rat tapeworm
d. dwarf tapeworm

A

dwarf tapeworm

105
Q

A liquid stool specimen is collected at 10 pm & brought to Laboratory for culture & ova
determination. It is refrigerated for 12 hours, when the physician requested to look for amoeba, best thing to do would be?

a. do saline/NSS, specimen is safe, proper processing was done
b. just perform staining, specimen maintained its integrity
c. recollection cannot be done, instead, perform concentration tests
d. recollect another specimen

A

recollect another specimen

106
Q

“Rotten egg” flatus

a. Giardia duodenalis
b. E. histolytica
c. Trichomonas
d. Dienatmoeba

A

Giardia duodenalis

107
Q

What is the proper amount of watery stool for routine O&P?

a. 5-6 tablespoons
b. 2 cups
c. 1-2 teaspoon
d. 20 grams

A

5-6 tablespoons

108
Q

Component of urine which is unfavourable for protozoan trophozoites

a. uric acid
b. AOTA
c. ammonia
d. creatinine

A

ammonia

109
Q

Which parasite causes neurocysticercosis

a. Plasmodium
b. Schistosoma
c. beef tapeworm
d. pork tapeworm

A

pork tapeworm

110
Q

Embryo found in pesudophyllidean worms that requires aquatic development

a. plerocercoid
b. sparganum
c. coracidium
d. copepod

A

coracidium

111
Q

Sinton and Mulligan’s stippling

a. P. knowlesi
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. AOTA

A

P. knowlesi

112
Q

Infective stage of Schistosoma japonicum

a. metacercaria
b. procercoird larva
c. furcocercus larva
d. AOT

A

furcocercus larva

113
Q

“Bunch of grapes” appearance of lesions in x rays (chest)

a. Wuchereria
b. Echinococcus
c. lung fluke
d. Ascaris

A

lung fluke

PARA (5 decks)

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