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Titi Hem > Papers > Flashcards

Papers Flashcards

1
Q

Immunodeficiencies of the Horse with Known Genetic Cause

A

foal immunodeficiency syndrome (FIS) and

severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome.

common variable immunodeficiency (CVID): epigenetic

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2
Q

Foal immunodeficiency syndrome

A

Fell pony and Dales breeds

frequency of carriers with the mutation was calculated as

39% in the Fell pony,

18% in Dales, and 1% in colored pony horses

  • Profound nonregenerative anemia owing to paucity of hematopoietic precursors in the bone marrow,
  • B-cell lymphopenia, and
  • plasma cell depletion
    • bone marrow = pale fatty tissue
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3
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency

A

RARE autosomal-recessive hereditary condition that affects the development of B and T cells in Arabian foals

within 2 months of age - multiple diseases

  • severe and persistent peripheral blood lymphopenia (<1000 cells/uL);
  • serum IgM is undetectable,
  • serum IgG concentration reflects solely colostrum-derived antibodies.
  • >>> bone marrow and thymus transplant
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4
Q

Are there breed predisposed to EAV infections?

What are the symptoms?

A

EAV is considered to be endemic in standardbreds, whereas only 5% of thoroughbreds are seropositive for EAV

usually causes a _mild or unapparent disease in adult horse_s, but it can lead to abortion in pregnant mares, fatal infections in foals, and a state of persistent infection in stallions with continual shedding of virus in semen.

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5
Q

Is there a genetic predisposition for susceptibility to EAV?

A

Yes

EqCXCL16S haplotype is associated w infection

EqCXCL16S transmembrane protein acts as a receptor for EAV

dominant over resistant gene

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6
Q

Is there a genetic link to WNV , rhodococcus pneumonia and susceptibility?

A

not sure, contradicting

WNV: Genotypes comprising MHC and LY49 alleles were associated with WNV in 2 studies, although the particular markers differed among the comparisons

another study: OAS1

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7
Q

MHC region associations have been reported and confirmed…

A

in 3 conditions:

  • sarcoid tumors,
  • insect bite hypersensitivity (IBH), and
  • uveitis.
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8
Q

How does glucocorticoid medication work?

A
  • diffuse across the cell membrane and bind to the glucocorticoid receptors in the cytoplasm
  • Release of receptor chaperon proteins
  • translocation of gluc into nucleus and alter gene expression:
  • Transactivation
    • increases the release of anti-inflammatory mediators,
    • also leads to undesirable metabolic effects.
  • Transrepression (less IL1,6 and TNF, others)
    • transcription factor repression (such as NF-kB
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9
Q

effects of glucocort on leucocytes

A

In horses, corticosteroids induce an

increase in peripheral blood neutrophil and a

decrease in lymphocyte concentrations

f.e. with Dex within 12 hours

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10
Q

do corticoids affect vaccinations?

A

Dauvillier and colleagues

effects of prolonged administration of inhaled fluticasone for almost a year in horses with asthma

no significant effects on

  • clinical and
  • hematologic parameters,
  • peripheral blood neutrophil gene expression,
  • lymphocyte subpopulations, or
  • response to vaccination.

Other study: high doses (0.2) > abnormal IgG response to vaccination

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11
Q

when should cortios be administered?

A

Morning administration of corticosteroids to minimize disruption of normal circadian cycles

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12
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

cytotoxic, decreases the proliferation of rapidly dividing cells, and targets B-lymphocytes more specifically

used for lymposarcoma

anectodal

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13
Q

Cyclosporine

A

effects on T-lymphocyte function and proliferation

potent immunosuppressive agent

use in horses is limited to local ocular administration for the treatment of recurrent uveitis or keratitis

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14
Q

Azathioprine

A

interferes with DNA and RNA formation

used in immune-mediated conditions such as

  • immune-mediated blood disorders (eg, immune-mediated thrombocytopenia),
  • skin conditions, and
  • polysynovitis
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15
Q

Where in the body are eosinophiles mostly found

A

gastrointestinal and reproductive tracts, and the thymus.

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16
Q

Which cytokine plays a profound role in eosinophil differentiation/activation/…

A

Interleukin 5 (IL-5)

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17
Q

correlation between eosinophil in blood and severity of helminth infecion?

A

Peripheral blood eosinophilia does not predict the severity of helminth infection.

18
Q

Asthma and peripheral blood eosinos

A

Peripheral blood eosinophils may be

increased in horses with non-infectious respiratory disease and

may decrease upon exacerbation.

19
Q

eoinophils in the skin

A

Eosinophils are absent from normal skin, but abundant in dermatologic conditions in horses

20
Q

factors associated with higher risk for seroprevalence of piroplasmosis in 700 spanish horses

A
  • increasing horse age,
  • presence of ticks and
  • contact with cows

were factors related to EP seropositivity in the horses

21
Q

how to diagnose AHS

A

most commonly used RT-PCR and ELISA diagnostic tests

22
Q

Vaccinations against AHS and problems with

A

whole virus attenuated(abgeschwächt) AHSV vaccine (LAV)

RT-PCR tests can detect viral RNA in the blood of vaccinated animals for up to 100 days post vaccination

23
Q

splenic abcessation

A

rare

one retro study with 12 cases

100% mortality

24
Q

Which bleeding disorders were associated with a genetic mutation?

A

Genetic mutations have been identified for

haemophilia A (8)

Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia in the horse

(fehlende plättchenaggregation)

25
Q

Twenty-five equids were diagnosed with IMHA, IMTP or IMHA with thrombocytopenia by Coombs test or flow cytometry

diseases associated?

prognosis?

prognostic indicators?

A

Neoplasia incidence was significantly higher in the study population (28%) versus controls (8%)

Equids with primary disease were more likely to survive to discharge than equids with secondary disease

The odds of short-term mortality were higher in horses presenting with increased BUN

26
Q

429 foals

Factors associated with the risk of positive blood culture in neonatal foals presented to a referral center

A

risk increased in foals with

ombilical disease

hypoglycemia

combined presence of umbilical disease and low hematocrit

27
Q

Retrospective evaluation of clinical outcome after chemotherapy for lymphoma in 15 equids

A

Complete remission 33.3%

partial response 60%

stable disease was achieved in 1 horse.

Overall response rate was 93.3% (14/15).

Overall median survival time was 8 months (range, 1-46 months).

adverse effects typically mild and self limiting

28
Q

Leptospira interrogans serovar Bratislava

is it pathogenic?

A

when injected intraperitoneally and intraocular in 6 foals: no

29
Q

is diff quick the right stain to look at BALs?

A

Diff-Quik does not stain mast cell granules reliably.

Leishman, Wright-Giemsa, and MayGrünwald Giemsa are more appropriate stains.

30
Q

indications for examining marrow

A
  • Persistent anemia,
  • neutropenia, or
  • thrombocytopenia

that is unexplained by blood loss or systemic illness

31
Q

Circulation times of

erys

platelets

neutrophils

after release from the bone marrow

A

Once released from the marrow,

erythrocytes: 120 d
platelets: 10d

neutrophils : 8 hours

32
Q

Who is responsable of removal of blood cells and when does that occur

A

mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) of the

liver, spleen, and the marrow at a high rate because of

  • aging (senescence),
  • apoptosis, or
  • exposure to oxidative and inflammatory stress.
33
Q

TYPES OF LEUKEMIA in horses

A
  • Acute Myeloid Leukemia: ‘lack of leucocytosis’ with other signs of infection
  • Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia: swollen lnn, splenomegalie, signs of infection - lack of lymphos

(lymphocytosis!!! in chronic cases)

POOR prognosis

34
Q

what is mutiple myeloma?

A

neoplasm of plasma cells that infiltrate bone marrow and other tissues

dx: detection of clonal globulins in the blood

35
Q

what is myelophtysis

A

Replacement of hematopoetic tissue in the bone marrow by….

f.e. neoplasia, fibrosis,…

36
Q

does transport have an effect on SAA values?

A

transport alone, the major risk factor for pneumonia in horses, can cause increased SAA concentrations, ranging from around 30 to 500 mg/mL for 24 to 48 hours after longdistance (1200 km) shipping.

This increase was significantly diminished by administration of antimicrobials

but shorter transport times (4 hours) had no effect.

37
Q

SAA in SEA?

A

mixed evidence

multiple investigations have found increases in SAA concentration in affected horses compared with control subjects.19,26 In contrast, other studies found no significant differences in SAA concentrations in horses with inflammatory airway disease or recurrent airway obstruction and control horses.56,57 Therefore, the main utility of SAA measurement in equine asthma seems to be differentiating these cases from horses with infectious respiratory disease.

38
Q

Is SAA useful in early detection of Rhodococcus equi pneumonia?

A

“monitoring concentrations of SAA is not useful as a screening test for early detection of R equi“

SAA concentrations were not associated with the development of sonographic evidence of lung abscessation and only two of six foals with pneumonia had high SAA concentrations.

39
Q

SAA after surgery

A

With other minor surgical procedures, peak SAA concentrations of 100 to 400 mg/L approximately 3 days after surgery is expected in cases uncomplicated by infection.

should go down after

if still high at 8 days ->> maybe infection

40
Q

can vaccination cause high SAA?

A

inconcistently, yes

SAA concentrations increasing higher than 5 mg/L and peaking (w30–175 mg/L) at 48 hours after vaccination in 6/10 horses

Titi Hem (5 decks)

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