Paper A Flashcards
1
Q
On the approach, with all the exterior lights selected ON, which lights will not illuminate until the
landing gear is extended?
A
Nose (Takeoff and Taxy) and Turn off.
2
Q
What is the correct indication of oxygen flow during the test sequence?
A
The yellow blinker flashes.
3
Q
What is the result of failure of both Lanes of ACSC 1?
A
Pack 1 and Flight Deck Trim Air are inoperative.
4
Q
Which equipment controls the bleed output temperature to 200° C?
A
A FAN AIR VALVE and a PRECOOLER.
5
Q
With the FLOW controller set to LO or NORM, what could cause the actual flow to be HI?
A
The APU supplying bleed air.
6
Q
In flight, if the SKIN AIR temperature is 38°C, in which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be?
A
INTERMEDIATE.
7
Q
In flight, which valve will not close if the DITCHING switch is pushed?
A
The OUTFLOW VALVE (if it is selected to MANUAL).
8
Q
Regarding the RAM AIR valve, which of the following statements is true?
A
It should not be opened at a pressure differential of > 1.0 psi.
9
Q
If, during the cruise with ATHR engaged, the TLA’s are set to less than the cruise thrust, what will
happen?
A
The thrust will be limited by the TLA.
10
Q
What happens if FMGC 1 fails?
A
FMGC 2 can now be controlled by MCDU 1 and MCDU2.
11
Q
The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this
happen?
A
The APU bleed air was in use
12
Q
Immediately after setting the MASTER SW to ON, the START switch is pushed: what happens
then?
A
The AIR INTAKE FLAP starts to open and the starter engages when the flap is fully open.
13
Q
Regarding limitations, which of the following statements is true?
A
The APU may be started at any point in the flight envelope.
14
Q
When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?
A
After a failure of ACP1 or ACP2.
15
Q
All the SEL lights on the RMP’s are extinguished: which actions would cause all three SEL lights
to illuminate?
A
Setting RMP 1 to VHF 2, and RMP 2 to VHF 3.
16
Q
What is the effect of pushing the RESET switch on an ACP?
A
It will extinguish all amber call lights on its associated ACP.
17
Q
What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?
A
Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.
18
Q
Regarding the SMOKE configuration, which of the following statements is true?
A
GEN 1 directly powers two fuel booster pumps.
19
Q
Regarding the IDG, which of the following statements is true?
A
The IDG disconnect button should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
20
Q
Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is use of the boom mic re-established?
A
By closing the left door of the storage box, and then pressing the TEST slide.
21
Q
What assists the opening of the PASSENGER DOORS?
A
Air pressure powers a damper when the slides are armed.
22
Q
Regarding illuminated lights on an ENG FIRE panel, which of the following statements is true?
A
The DISCH light illuminates when the bottle is depressurised.
23
Q
The autopilot is disengaged, then the left side stick priority button is pressed and held in: which of
the following statements is true?
A red light and a green light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
A red light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
Two green lights will flash on the glareshield.
Two red lights will flash on the glareshield.
A
A red light will always illuminate on the glareshield
24
Q
The aircraft is at 5000 feet, 250kts, straight and level, autopilot off, hands and feet off: if TOGA
power is applied, at what speed will the aircraft eventually stabilise?
A
Vmo
25
The aircraft is accelerating in straight and level flight with the FPV displayed: which of the
following statements is true?
The FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will decrease.
26
Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?
High speed protection
Alpha floor.
Alpha protection.
Low speed stability
Low speed stability
27
Following selection of FLAP 1, which of the following statements is true?
When decelerating for the approach, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
During the acceleration. following a go-around, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
On the ground CONFIG 1 will be the result.
The result is always CONFIG 1 + F.
During the acceleration. following a go-around, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
28
On a fully serviceable aircraft, with the ground spoilers ARMED, a rejected takeoff is carried out:
which of the following statements is true?
Activation of the AUTOBRAKE SYSTEM is a function of thrust lever position only.
Ground spoilers will only deploy at a speed in excess of 100 kts.
Selecting IDLE THRUST at 90 kts will result in ground spoiler deployment.
It is necessary to select REVERSE thrust in order to get ground spoiler deployment.
Selecting IDLE THRUST at 90 kts will result in ground spoiler deployment.
29
What will cause the green sidestick priority lights (on the glareshield) to flash at the same time?
Both take-over buttons, (on the sidestick) are simultaneously pressed and held.
Both sidesticks are simultaneously out of the neutral position.
30
In flight, with CONFIG 1 selected, what is represented by amber - on the speed strip?
The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.
31
The aircraft is flying with a maximum roll input when it enters overspeed protection: what happens
to the bank angle?
It goes to 45°: it will go to 0° if the sidestick is released.
32
The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining a constant high alpha, which has caused
speedbrake auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended again?
By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.
33
Regarding LOW SPEED STABILITY, which of the following statements is true?
It is available in NORM , ALT and DIRECT Laws.
It is only available in ALT LAW.
It cannot be overridden by the sidestick.
It triggers a nose down input at alpha max.
It is only available in ALT LAW.
34
When, and why, is the Side Stick Order symbol displayed?
Below 30 feet RA: it enables PNF to monitor PF's inputs.
35
What is the definition of S speed?
The minimum speed for selecting FLAP 0.
36
During a managed descent, how is the ECON speed represented?
As = (magenta), with 2 magenta lines showing the permissable speed range.
37
During the final approach, which of the following statements is true?
The actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
The target speed (magenta triangle) will be at VLS.
The target speed (magenta triangle) will be Vapp.
The target speed (magenta triangle) may be > Vapp or
The actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
38
What would cause the MACH display, on the Capt's PFD, to be inhibited?
Selecting the Capt's EFIS Ctrl. Panel ILS button to ON.
39
Both ECAM displays units have failed: how can the FLT CTLS SD be displayed?
Rotate the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O, then press the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM
control panel
40
During flight, the left inner tank quantity is 300 kg, and the right inner tank is 750 kg: OUTR TK
FUEL XFRD is displayed in the MEMOS. Which of the following statements is true?
At least one of the transfer valves is open.
All the outer tank fuel has transfered to the inner tanks (both wings).
All the outer tank fuel has transferred to the inner tanks (right wing only).
At least one transfer valve in each wing is open.
At least one of the transfer valves is open.
41
On the FUEL SD, what may be signified by the fuel on board indication being half boxed in
amber?
Not all of the FUEL ON BOARD is useable at the moment
42
Which of the following events would cause the centre tank pumps to automatically stop running?
Selecting FLAP 1 when taxying for take-off.
43
Regarding refuelling, which of the following statements is true?
The "Fuel Used" indication on ECAM goes to zero.
The Centre Tank is filled before the wing tanks.
"REFUELG" displayed on the E/WD indicates Refuelling Panel is open.
The transfer valves open.
"REFUELG" displayed on the E/WD indicates Refuelling Panel is open.
44
```
Which of the following actions would cause the BLUE electric pump to start running
automatically?
Applying AC power to the aircraft.
Starting the first engine.
Starting the second engine.
Failure of the BLUE engine driven pump.
```
Starting the first engine.
45
Regarding the RAT, which of the following statements is true?
It is directly connected to the emergency generator.
It powers the YELLOW hydraulic system.
It can be stowed in flight if the BLUE hydraulic system is operating normally.
It's output pressure is 2500 psi.
It's output pressure is 2500 psi.
46
```
Which of the following systems have hydraulic fluid shut-off valves?
GREEN and BLUE.
GREEN and YELLOW.
BLUE and YELLOW.
BLUE, GREEN and YELLOW.
```
GREEN and YELLOW.
47
Regarding the FAULT lights on the HYD panel, which of the following statements is true?
A FAULT light will always exinguish when the associated switch is set to OFF.
A FAULT light due to fluid overheat will extinguish only when the fluid cools.
The PTU FAULT light indicates a PTU failure.
The GREEN system FAULT light could indicate a pump overheat.
A FAULT light due to fluid overheat will extinguish only when the fluid cools.
48
What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?
The anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only: on lift off, the valves will re-open.
49
If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, which of the following statements is true?
The valves will remain in their present position.
WING and ENG valves CLOSE.
WING and ENG valves OPEN.
WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN.
WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN.
50
What is the source of heat to the WING and ENG anti-ice systems?
WING - pneumatic system: ENG - dedicated bleed from associated engine.
51
Regarding the AUTOBRAKE system, which of the following statements is true?
MAX autobrake provides a deceleration rate.
It is available in NORMAL and ALTERNATE braking.
If LO is selected, the system will be activated 4 seconds after ground spoiler deployment.
If MED is selected, the system will be triggered 2 seconds after touchdown.
If LO is selected, the system will be activated 4 seconds after ground spoiler deployment.
52
What message will appear on the MEMO display on push-back?
N/W STRG DISC in amber if at least one engine is running.
53
What is signified by the appearance of amber lines at the REL position on the SD?
The anti-skid system has suffered a "brake released" fault.
54
What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?
Achievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.
55
If the captain is holding down the DISC button on his steering handwheel, which of the following
statements is true?
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
Nosewheel steering is not available from F/O's rudder pedals only.
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's rudder pedals only.
Nosewheel steering is totaly inhibited.
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
56
Regarding the coloured arc or arcs, which may appear above the wheels on the SD, which of the
following statements is true?
There may be four arcs displaye, one over each wheel.
There may be one green arc and one amber arc displayed together.
There will be no arcs displayed if all wheel temperatures are
Only one arc will be present: it will be either amber or green.
57
Following an RTO, with Autobrake MAX selected, when will autobraking be triggered?
After deployment of the ground spoilers.
58
If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?
PFD 1 and ND 2.
59
If both FMGC'S fail, how can VOR 2 be tuned?
By RMP 2 only.
60
When should the SBY compass not be checked?
During APU start.
61
If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF, what happens if a Terrain awareness
warning or caution is generated?
The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre outwards
62
What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing?
The P-POS has not been entered within 10 mins of selection NAV.
63
When is Rad/Alt (RA) information displayed?
When RA is below 2500 ft.
64
During a TCAS Resolution Advisory, which colours may be displayed on the Vertical speed
scale?
Red, Green and Grey.
65
What happens if BMC 1 fails?
There will be no leak detection for the APU and ENG 1.
66
Which of the following correctly completes the statement: "Switching the APU Air Bleed on will
cause...."
... the crossbleed valve to open and the pack flow to go to NORM.
... the crossbleed valve to close and the pack flow to go to HI.
... the crossbleed valve to open and the ENG bleed valves to close.
... the crossbleed valve to close and the ENG bleed valves to close.
... the crossbleed valve to open and the ENG bleed valves to close.
67
Regarding FADEC, which of the following statements is true?
During ENG START, the FADEC will be powered by selecting the MODE SEL to START.
It runs continuously with AC power on the aircraft.
It is powered by the main electrical system with N2
During ENG START, the FADEC will be powered by selecting the MODE SEL to START.
68
What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 gauges?
Both engines are at IDLE.
69
During a Manual Start, what does pressing the MAN START switch do?
It opens the start valve only.
70
On the N1 gauge, there is a "Transient N1" (concentric circles) indication: what does it represent?
The difference between the actual thrust and the FADEC commanded thrust.
71
On the Engine Panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT LIGHT?
An AUTO START has been aborted.
72
Regarding IGNITION, which of the following statements is true?
Both igniters operate simultaneously on a MANUAL START.
73
During a MANUAL start, how is the START VALVE closed?
Automatically at 50% N2.
74
During an AUTOMATIC start, what happens following an EGT OVERLIMIT?
The FADEC will run an abort sequence.
75
When is the Fuel Used indication reset to zero?
During engine start.
76
What is the maximum allowable N1 with the parking brake set to ON?
75% on both engines.
77
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?
33 (gusting to 38) knots
78
What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
65 knots.
79
What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting the gear down?
250 kts
80
What is the maximum permitted altitude for using the APU to power one pack?
22,500 feet.
81
What is the maximum permitted runway slope?
+ 2%
82
Regarding engine starter limitations, which of the following statements is true?
The maximum time for continuous engagement is 2 minutes.
83
What is the minimum permitted speed for use of maximum reverse thrust?
70 kts.
84
What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting FLAP FULL?
177 kts.
85
What is the maximum permitted speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
230 kts.
86
What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres?
195 kts.
87
With the park brake ON, what is the limiting N1?
75% on both engines.
88
In column four of the MEL, what is indicated by a * ?
A placard is required on the Flight Deck.
89
What are the correct initial actions following a "WINDSHEAR" warning on the final approach?
TOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS - follow.
90
What are the correct initial actions of the Captain in event of rejected Take Off a 100kts?
Call "STOP": REVERSE - MAX:
91
Regarding evacuation of the flight deck, which of the following statements is true?
The only exit through the door is by opening the door forwards.
Following loss of electrical power, the door will remain locked.
The sliding windows cannot be opened from the outside.
The sliding windows will only latch open at the fully open position.
The sliding windows cannot be opened from the outside.
92
Following a GPWS "PULL UP" warning, what are the correct initial actions?
A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft: TOGA THR.
93
What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in event of unreliable IAS
indications just after take off?
THR TOGA: Pitch +15°.
94
What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS "CLIMB" message?
A/P OFF: Both FD's OFF: V/S to green area on PFD
95
What are the correct initial actions, following structural failure, to enter an Emergency Descent
from FL330?
OXY. MASKS ON: FCU ALT - turn and pull: FCU HDG - turn and pull: FCU SPD - pull.
96
On landing you with Autobrake selected you realise the aircraft is not slowing down. What are the
correct initial actions?
Brake pedals - press: Reverse MAX: brake pedals - release,
97
If DMC 1 fails, which is the quickest way to display the ELECTRICS SD?
Push and release the ECP ELEC push button.
98
What is the significance of "T/O INHIBIT" being displayed in the MEMO's?
Most warning and caution messages will be suppressed during takeoff and climb to 1500 feet.
99
On the ECAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?
To display non-suppressed and suppressed malfunctions on the E/WD.
100
What happens when an ADVISORY is triggered?
The associated SD is automatically displayed.
101
On the ECAM Control panel, what is the main purpose of the ALL button?
To provide redundancy in the event of an ECP button failure.
102
Regarding Metric Altitudes, which of the following statements is true?
Pressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU (only) indication to metres.
Pressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU and the PFD displays to metres.
The Metric ALT display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.
The Metric ALT display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.
The Metric ALT display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.
103
If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?
ADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes
104
During the Take-off roll, which page is displayed on the SD.
ENG
105
With the FD's and A/P's switched OFF, the ATHR is switched on: which of the following
statements is correct?
The airspeed bug is magenta, and is set by the FMGS.
The airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed
The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to the current airspeed.
The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to green dot speed.
The airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed
106
On the FMA's what is the significance of "G/A TRK" being annunciated?
The aircraft will remain on the track existing when TOGA was selected
107
What happens to the aircraft speed when the APPROACH PHASE has been ACTIVATED in the
MCDU?
If the speed is managed (magenta) it will go to the speed associated with the current flap setting.
108
What is the best course of action if, during a managed descent in a holding pattern it becomes
necessary to increase the rate of descent?
Pull the Alt. knob (FCU): then extend speedbrakes if required.
109
What occurs on descending through 400' RA on the approach?
RA goes amber. Large font: "LAND" is annunciated on the FMA's.
110
In straight and level flight, with A/P ON, and ATHR ON, the speed is selected to 100 kts: at what
speed will the aircraft fly?
VLS
111
At hight altitudes if the aircraft overflys the optimum top of descent point, what is annunciated on
the FMA?
DECELERATE (on the third line).
112
If during a managed climb, (FMA'S read THR CLB/CLB) the heading knob is pulled what
happens?
The altitude constraints will be ignored, but not erased from the MCDU.
