paper 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what does the nitrogen cycle show

A

how nitrogen is recycled into ecosystems

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2
Q

why do plants and animals require nitrogen

A

in order to produce proteins and nucleic acids

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3
Q

what percentage of the earths atmosphere is nitrogen gas

A

78%

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4
Q

what are the 4 key processes of the nitrogen cycle

A
  • nitrogen fixation
  • ammonification
  • nitrification
  • denitrification
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5
Q

explain the 4 points of nitrogen fixation

A
  • atmospheric nitrogen gas is converted into nitrogen containing compounds
    carried out by nitrogen fixing bacteria
  • the bacteria converts nitrogen into ammonia which forms ammonium ions that can then be used by plants
  • these nitrogen fixing bacterias are found inside the root nodules of leguminous plants (peas,beans,clovers)
  • the bacteria have a symbiotic relationship with the plants
    bacteria provide nitrogen containing compounds
    plants provide organic compounds such as carbohydrates
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6
Q

explain ammonification

A
  • nitrogen compounds in waste products and dead organisms are converted into ammonia by saprobrionts
  • the ammonia forms ammonium ions in the soil
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7
Q

explain nitrification

A
  • ammonium ions in the soil are converted by nitrifying bacteria into nitrates
  • initially nitrifying bacteria convert ammonium ions into nitrites
  • different nitrifying bacteria then convert these nitrites into nitrates
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8
Q

explain denitrification

A
  • denitrifying bacteria use nitrates in the soil during respiration
  • this process produces nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere
  • process occurs in anaerobic conditions
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9
Q

Describe the role of receptors and the nervous system in increasing heart rate during exercise.

A

• Chemoreceptors detect a rise in acidity/fall in pH

• Baroreceptors detect a rise in blood pressure

• Send impulses to medulla;
More impulses to SAN

• Chemoreceptors -
Via the sympathetic NS;

• Baroreceptors -
Via the parasympathetic
NS.

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10
Q

Describe how the mark, release, recapture method could be used to determine the size of a population.

A

Collect a sample, mark and release;

Leave time for sample to disperse before a second collection;

Population = (number in
first sample x number in second sample) / number of marked in second sample.

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11
Q

What is a gene pool?

A

All the alleles in a population

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12
Q

Describe sympatric speciation.

A

Species are not
geographically isolated;

Mutations cause differences;

Reproductive separation/ no gene flow/ gene pools remain separated;

Different alleles are passed on and the frequency of alleles changes;

Disruptive selection;

Eventually, different species can’t interbreed to produce fertile offspring.

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13
Q

What is the difference between interspecific and intraspecific competition?

A

Intraspecific competition:
Occurs between individuals of the same species. E.g. two oak trees competing for sunlight or two male deers competing for a mate.

Interspecific competition:
Occurs between individuals of different species. E.g. a leopard and a lion competing for a common prey.

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14
Q

What is the function of acetylcholinesterase?

A

Acetylcholinesterase catalysed the hydrolysis of ACh into acetate and choline;

Choline is absorbed back into the presynaptic membrane and reacts with acetyl coenzyme A to form ACh;

ACh is then packaged into presynaptic vesicles ready to be used when a new action potential arrives.

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15
Q

Describe what happens if acetylcholinesterase is inhibited.

A

Less acetylcholine broken down;

Acetylcholine attaches to receptors;

More sodium ions enter to reach the threshold for depolarisation/ to trigger an action potential.

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16
Q

Describe the role of calcium ions and ATP in the contraction of a myofibril.

A

Calcium ions diffuse into myofibrils from sarcoplasmic reticulum;

Causing movement of tropomyosin on actin;

This causes exposure of binding sites on actin;
Myosin heads attach to these binding sites;

Hydrolysis of ATP causes myosin heads to bend;

Bending pulls actin molecules and attachment of a new ATP molecule to each myosin head causes them to detach from actin binding sites.

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17
Q

Give two ways in which ATP is a good energy source for cells to use.

A

ANY 2 FROM

Releases small amounts of energy;
Releases energy instantaneously;

Phosphorylates other compounds to make them more reactive;

Can be rapidly resynthesised;

Doesn’t leave cells;

Little energy is lost as heat.

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18
Q

Osmoreceptors are specialised cells that respond to changes in the water potential of the blood.
Where would you find osmoreceptors in the human body?

A

Hypothalamus

19
Q

Describe what happens during photoionisation in the light-
dependent reaction.

A

Chlorophyll absorbs light/ Light excites electrons in chlorophyll;

Electrons are lost/ Chlorophyll becomes positively charged/
Electrons go to the electron transport chain.

20
Q

Explain the advantage of having different coloured pigments in leaves.

A

Absorb different/more wavelengths of light for photosynthesis.

21
Q

Heat stress decreases the
LDR of photosynthesis.
Explain why this leads to a decrease in the light-independent reaction.

A

Less/no ATP;

Less/no reduced NADP.

22
Q

Where is rubisco found in the cell?

23
Q

Name the features of a calorimeter that enables a valid measurement of the total heat energy released.

A

Thermometer;

Stirrer distributes heat energy;

Insulation reduces loss or gain of heat/reduces conduction;

Water has high specific heat capacity.

24
Q

Name the two products of the LDR that are required for the calvin cycle.

A

ATP;
Reduced NADP.

25
Describe the process of glycolysis.
Phosphorylation of glucose using ATP; Oxidation of triose phosphate to pyruvate; Net gain of ATP; NAD reduced.
26
Explain why converting pyruvate to lactate during prolonged exercise allows the continued production of ATP by anaerobic respiration.
Regenerates/Produces NAD; Oxidises reduced NAD; Glycolysis continues.
27
Describe the advantage of the Bohr effect during intense exercise.
Increases dissociation of oxygen; For aerobic respiration at the tissues/muscles; Anaerobic respiration delayed at the tissues/ muscles; Less lactate at the tissues/ muscles.
28
Describe the role of saprobionts in the nitrogen cycle.
They use enzymes to decompose proteins/DNA/ RNA/urea; Producing/Releasing ammonia/ammonium ions.
29
Describe how alterations to tumour suppressor genes can lead to the development of tumours.
Increased methylation of tumour suppressor genes; Mutation in tumour suppressor genes; Tumour suppressor genes aren't transcribed/ expressed; Amino acid sequence/ primary structure altered; Results in rapid/ uncontrollable cell division.
30
Define epigenetics.
Heritable changes in gene function; Without changes to the base sequences of DNA.
31
Explain how increased methylation could lead to cancer.
Methyl groups added to a tumour suppressor gene; The transcription of tumour suppressor genes is inhibited; Leading to uncontrolled cell division.
32
How are benign tumours different to malignant tumours?
Benign tumours - Cells cannot spread to other parts of the body and cannot invade neighbouring tissues. Malignant tumours - Cells spread to other parts of the body and invade neighbouring tissues.
33
Suggest how transcription factors could reprogramme cells to form iPS cells.
Transcription factors attach to gene/DNA/promoter region; Stimulate/inhibit transcription/RNA polymerase.
34
Name two techniques scientists could used to analyse viral DNA to determine how closely related the viruses are.
ANY 2 FROM Polymerase chain reaction; DNA fingerprinting; Gel electrophoresis; Genome sequencing.
35
Explain how determining the genome of a virus allows scientist to develop a vaccine.
The scientist could identify proteins; The scientist could identify the proteome; They could then identify potential antigens to use in the vaccine.
36
Describe how B lymphocytes would respond to a vaccine.
B cells bind to complementary receptors/ antigens; B cell forms an antigen-antibody complex; B cell clones/divides by mitosis; Plasma cells release antibodies; B cells produce memory cells.
37
Define genome.
All the DNA in a cell
38
What is a DNA probe?
Short single strand of DNA; Bases complementary with DNA/allele/gene.
39
Explain how drug treatments can reverse epigenetic changes that cause cancer.
- drugs could increase methylation of oncogenes. - drugs could decrease methylation of tumour suppressor genes. - Increased methylation of DNA inhibits transcription /gene expression. - Decreased acetylation of histones inhibits transcription /gene empression.
40
Describe how DNA from saliva can be screened.
Use PCR to amplify DNA sample; Cut DNA using restriction endonuclease; Separate DNA fragments using electrophoresis; Add labelled DNA probes and bind by DNA hybridisation; Identify genes/ mutations by fluorescent dyes/radioactivity/x-ray/ photographic film/UV light.
41
Explain why impulses travel faster along myelinated axons compared to non-myelinated axons.
• myelination provides electrical insulation. • myelinated axons have saltatory conduction/ depolarisation at nodes of Ranvier. • non-myelinated axons: depolarisation occurs along the whole rength of the axon
42
Describe the light-independent reaction/ calvin cycle of photosynthesis.
• CO2 reacts with RuBP • produces 2 GP using the enzyme rubisco • GP is reduced to triose phosphate using reduced NADP/NADPH* and energy from ATP • Triose phosphare conversed to RuBP and glucose/named organic substance
43
Name and compare the two types of summation.
Spatial • Multiple neuron’s collectively trigger an action Potential by combining the neurotransmitters they release to exceed the threshold value • simultaneous impulses • large amounts of ACH released into synaptic cleft • multiple synaptic knobs TEMPORAL • quick succession • large amount of ach • 1 synaptic knob
44
What are the conditions for the Hardy- Weinberg principle?
→ organisms are diproid. → organisms produce by sexual reproduction only. → mating is random. → the population is large. → there is no overlap between generations. → there is no mutation. → there is no immigration /emigration. → there is no selection (natural or artificial). → allele frequencies are equal in both sexes.