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Paper 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key functions of the skeleton?

A
  • production of blood cells
  • storage of minerals
  • protection of vital organs
  • muscle attachment
  • formation of joints for movement
  • aid movement
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2
Q

What types of blood cells are produced in bone marrow?

A
  • Platelets
  • Red blood cells
  • White blood cells
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3
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

Help clotting when cut

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4
Q

What is the function of red blood cells?

A

Transport oxygen to working muscles

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5
Q

What role do white blood cells play in the body?

A

Help fight infection

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6
Q

Which minerals are stored in bones to help strengthen them?

A
  • Calcium
  • Phosphorus
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7
Q

What vital organs does the skeleton protect?

A

Examples include the heart and brain

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8
Q

How does the skeleton aid movement?

A
  • Provides a place for muscles to attach
  • Acts as levers to increase force or speed
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9
Q

Fill in the blank: The skeletal system protects _______.

A

[vital organs]

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10
Q

True or False: The skeletal system is responsible for the production of hormones.

A

False

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11
Q

What is a benefit of having longer levers in sports like tennis?

A

Generate more force on a serve

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12
Q

Describe how the skeleton aids movement.

A

The skeleton provides attachment points for muscles, allowing movement at joints

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13
Q

What should always be included when discussing the protection provided by the skeleton?

A

The phrase ‘vital organs’ and an example

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14
Q

What happens when muscles contract in relation to the skeleton?

A

They pull the bones to cause movement

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15
Q

In what way do bones act as levers?

A

They allow the body to increase force or speed of movement

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16
Q

What is the classification of bones by their shape called?

A

Classification of bones

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17
Q

What is the primary function of long bones?

A

Aid movement by working as levers

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18
Q

List two examples of long bones.

A
  • Humerus
  • Femur
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19
Q

What is the primary function of short bones?

A

Weight bearing and provide support

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20
Q

List two examples of short bones.

A
  • Carpals
  • Tarsals
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21
Q

How do long bones function in physical activity?

A

Work as a lever

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22
Q

What is the function of flat bones?

A

Provide protection and a broad surface for muscle attachment

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23
Q

List three examples of flat bones.

A
  • Cranium
  • Ribs
  • Scapula
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24
Q

Give an example of how the cranium protects the body.

A

Protects the brain if hit by a cricket ball

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25
What is the primary function of irregular bones?
Provide protection and a place for muscle attachment
26
List an example of irregular bones.
Vertebrae
27
How do muscles attached to the vertebrae assist in sports?
Allow a hockey player to bend their back low to dribble a ball
28
Which type of bone is the ulna?
Irregular bone
29
What is the structure of the skeleton primarily made up of?
Many bones
30
What does the skeleton provide for muscle attachment?
A framework
31
How can you identify bones in the skeleton?
Look at the shape of the bone
32
How many regions does the vertebral column have?
Five regions
33
What is a good way to remember the names and locations of bones?
Practise by labeling blank diagrams of the skeleton
34
Identify the bones labeled A and B: A is _______ and B is _______.
A: Radius B: Humerus
35
What is a mnemonic to remember the location of the radius?
The radius is the bone that is near the thumb
36
State two bones located in the hand that help a rugby player hold the ball.
Any two of the following: * Metacarpals * Phalanges
37
What is a joint?
A joint is the place where two or more bones meet and where movement can occur.
38
What is the golden rule about joints?
The formation of the joint dictates the type of movement that can occur there.
39
What type of movement occurs at hinge joints?
* Flexion * Extension
40
Where are hinge joints located?
* Knee * Elbow * Ankle
41
What type of movement occurs at pivot joints?
Rotation
42
Where are pivot joints located?
Neck (atlas and axis)
43
What types of movement occur at ball and socket joints?
* Flexion * Extension * Rotation * Circumduction * Abduction * Adduction
44
Where are ball and socket joints located?
* Hip * Shoulder
45
What type of joint is formed at the shoulder?
Ball and socket
46
What type of movement occurs at condyloid joints?
* Flexion * Extension * Circumduction
47
Where are condyloid joints located?
Wrist
48
What is flexion?
Flexion is when the angle at a joint decreases.
49
At which joints does flexion occur?
* Hinge * Ball and socket * Condyloid
50
What is extension?
Extension is when the angle at a joint increases.
51
At which joints does extension occur?
* Hinge * Ball and socket * Condyloid
52
What is the main range of movement possible at the knee joint?
Flexion to extension
53
What is the necessary joint action to bend the right arm at the elbow?
Flexion
54
What should you include when asked for the range of movement at a joint?
Both flexion and extension
55
True or False: Flexion and extension can occur at ball and socket joints.
True
56
True or False: Adduction is a movement associated with hinge joints.
False
57
What is the definition of abduction in joint actions?
The movement of a limb away from the midline of the body ## Footnote Abduction occurs at ball and socket joints, such as the hip and shoulder.
58
Give an example of abduction.
At the shoulder when reaching out sideways to intercept a netball ## Footnote This illustrates the action of moving away from the midline.
59
What does the term 'adduction' mean?
The movement of a limb towards the midline of the body ## Footnote Adduction occurs at ball and socket joints like the hip and shoulder.
60
Provide an example of adduction.
At the hip in the cross-over leg action when throwing a javelin ## Footnote This shows the leg moving back towards the midline.
61
What is the definition of rotation in joint actions?
When the bone at a joint moves around its own axis, making a circular movement ## Footnote Rotation allows for the biggest range of movement.
62
Where does rotation occur?
At ball and socket joints, such as the hip and shoulder ## Footnote An example is the arm rotating around in a circular motion while swimming front crawl.
63
What is circumduction?
Movement in the shape of a cone, allowing 360° of movement ## Footnote Circumduction occurs at ball and socket joints.
64
Provide an example of circumduction.
Shoulder action when swimming butterfly ## Footnote This demonstrates the conical movement of the joint.
65
Define plantar-flexion.
Movement of the foot downwards when pointing the toes ## Footnote Plantar-flexion occurs at the ankle joint.
66
Give an example of plantar-flexion.
Occurs as the gymnast points her toes to make the shape more aesthetically pleasing ## Footnote This action enhances the visual appeal in gymnastics.
67
What is dorsi-flexion?
Movement of the foot upwards towards the shin, decreasing the angle at the joint ## Footnote Dorsi-flexion occurs at the ankle joint.
68
Provide an example of dorsi-flexion.
Occurs at the ankle of the leading leg as the athlete jumps the hurdle ## Footnote This action helps in executing the jump effectively.
69
What type of joint allows for circumduction?
Ball and socket joint ## Footnote An example of its use is circling the leg at the hip during a warm-up.
70
True or False: Adduction starts with 'add', indicating movement towards the midline.
True ## Footnote This mnemonic can help remember the definition.
71
Fill in the blank: The joint action that occurs when a ski jumper takes the skis away from the midline is called _______.
Abduction
72
Identify the range of movement at the shoulder during a star jump.
Include both the start and finish movement for the action identified ## Footnote This requires a detailed understanding of the movement.
73
What is the golden rule when applying answers in physical activity?
Always try to apply your answers to examples in physical activity ## Footnote This helps in contextualizing the knowledge.
74
What is the role of ligaments?
Join bone to bone and help keep joints stable ## Footnote Ligaments are formed of tough connective tissue and prevent unwanted movement that might cause injury.
75
What is the function of tendons?
Join skeletal muscle to bone and allow movement at joints ## Footnote Tendons are formed of tough connective tissue and hold the muscle to the bone.
76
What are the three types of muscle?
1. Cardiac muscle 2. Voluntary muscles 3. Involuntary muscles
77
Where is cardiac muscle located and how is it controlled?
It forms the heart and is unconsciously controlled ## Footnote Cardiac muscle contracts automatically to pump blood around the body.
78
What is the location and control of voluntary muscles?
Skeletal muscles attached to the skeleton and are under conscious control ## Footnote We consciously decide when voluntary muscles should work.
79
Where are involuntary muscles found and how do they function?
Found in blood vessels, stomach, and intestines; they contract automatically ## Footnote Involuntary muscles contract slowly and rhythmically.
80
Which muscle type is responsible for flexing the arm at the elbow?
Voluntary muscles, specifically the biceps ## Footnote Example: Biceps contract during bicep curls.
81
What is the location of the latissimus dorsi?
Side of the back
82
What role does the deltoid muscle play?
Abducts the arm at the shoulder ## Footnote Example: Lifting arms above the head to block a ball in volleyball.
83
What is the function of the pectoralis major?
Adducts the arm at the shoulder ## Footnote Example: Follow-through from a forehand drive in tennis.
84
What is the location of the external obliques?
Between lower ribs and abdomen
85
What movement occurs when the deltoids contract?
Abduction of the arm ## Footnote Example: Lifting arms straight above the head.
86
Fill in the blank: Ligaments join ______ to bone.
bone
87
True or False: Cardiac muscle is under conscious control.
False
88
Name an example of a voluntary muscle.
Biceps
89
Which muscle type contracts automatically when required?
Involuntary muscles
90
Fill in the blank: The _______ muscle is located at the top of the shoulder.
deltoid
91
Name the muscle that rotates the trunk.
External obliques
92
What is the role of the latissimus dorsi?
Adducts the upper arm ## Footnote Example: Bringing arms back to side during a straight jump in trampolining.
93
What type of muscle is responsible for pumping blood around the body?
Cardiac muscle
94
Fill in the blank: Tendons join muscle to ______.
bone
95
What are antagonistic muscle pairs?
Muscles that create opposing movement at joints.
96
What is the role of the agonist muscle?
The muscle that contracts to create movement.
97
What is the role of the antagonist muscle?
The muscle that relaxes to allow movement.
98
What connects muscles to bones?
Tendons.
99
Which muscle is the agonist during the upward phase of a biceps curl?
Biceps.
100
Which muscle is the antagonist during the upward phase of a biceps curl?
Triceps.
101
What is the location of the biceps?
Front of upper arm.
102
What is the location of the triceps?
Back of upper arm.
103
What is the role of the triceps?
Extension of the arm at the elbow.
104
What is the role of the biceps?
Flexion of the arm at the elbow.
105
What is an example of the biceps' action?
Upwards phase of a biceps curl.
106
What is an example of the triceps' action?
Straightening the arms in a chest press.
107
Explain the term 'antagonistic pair' in relation to muscle movement.
One muscle contracts while the other relaxes to bring about movement.
108
What are the two muscles that form an antagonistic pair for knee movement?
Quadriceps and hamstrings.
109
What is the location of the quadriceps?
Front of upper leg.
110
What is the location of the hamstring?
Back of upper leg.
111
What is the role of the hamstring?
Flexion of the leg at the knee.
112
What is the role of the quadriceps?
Extension of the leg at the knee.
113
What is an example of the hamstring's action?
Bending the trailing leg going over a hurdle.
114
What is an example of the quadriceps' action?
Straightening the leading leg going over a hurdle.
115
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the agonist when the goalkeeper extends his arm at the elbow.
triceps
116
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the antagonist when the goalkeeper extends his arm at the elbow.
biceps
117
Which muscle allows the cyclist to flex her leg at the knee?
Quadriceps.
118
Name the antagonist that is relaxing to allow the cyclist to flex her leg at the knee.
Hamstring.
119
What should you do if unsure of the correct spelling of muscle names?
Write them like they sound.
120
What is the importance of writing the full name of muscles?
For clarity and accuracy, e.g., quadriceps, not quads.
121
What are the antagonistic muscle pairs for plantar flexion and dorsi-flexion?
Gastrocnemius and Tibialis Anterior ## Footnote Gastrocnemius is located at the back of the lower leg and is responsible for plantar flexion, while Tibialis Anterior is located at the front of the lower leg and is responsible for dorsi-flexion.
122
Where is the gastrocnemius muscle located?
Back of lower leg ## Footnote The gastrocnemius muscle is involved in plantar flexion of the ankle.
123
What action does the gastrocnemius muscle perform?
Plantar flexion at the ankle ## Footnote Example: Pointing the toes when performing a pike jump in trampolining.
124
What is the location of the tibialis anterior muscle?
Front of lower leg ## Footnote The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsi-flexion at the ankle.
125
What action does the tibialis anterior muscle perform?
Dorsi-flexion at the ankle ## Footnote Example: Bringing the toes up towards the shin when extending the legs in the long jump.
126
What is the golden rule regarding the name of the gastrocnemius muscle?
Always use the correct name for the gastrocnemius, not the calf ## Footnote Remember that gastrocnemius has a 'C' sound in it (gast-ro-C-nemius).
127
How can you remember the action of plantar flexion?
Pointing toes starts with the letter P and so does the action plantar-flexion.
128
What does the term 'anterior' indicate in reference to muscle location?
'Anterior' means front.
129
Which muscle pair is responsible for flexion and extension at the hip?
Hip flexors and Gluteus maximus ## Footnote Hip flexors are located at the very top of the front of the upper leg, while the gluteus maximus is located in the buttocks.
130
What is the role of the hip flexors?
Flexion of leg at the hip.
131
What is the role of the gluteus maximus?
Extension of the leg at the hip.
132
What is the example of hip flexion in trampolining?
Bringing the legs up in a seat-drop.
133
What is the example of hip extension in running?
Lifting the leg back at the hip.
134
What are the definitions of flexion and extension at the joint?
* Flexion occurs when the angle at the joint gets smaller * Extension occurs when the angle at the joint gets bigger.
135
Which one of the following muscles contracts to allow extension of the leg at the hip?
A Gluteus maximus ## Footnote The question refers to the hip and asks about extension.
136
Identify the agonist that brings the knees up to the chest in a tuck jump.
Hip flexors ## Footnote The joint action involved is hip flexion.
137
What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system?
Transport of oxygen around the body in the blood.
138
What does the cardiovascular system transport to vital organs?
Oxygen and nutrients.
139
What are the main components of the cardiovascular system?
* The blood * The blood vessels * The heart
140
What is produced as a by-product during energy production?
Carbon dioxide.
141
How does the cardiovascular system help with carbon dioxide?
It takes carbon dioxide away from the muscles to get rid of it from the body.
142
What role do platelets play in the cardiovascular system?
They help to clot wounds by forming a plug to prevent blood loss.
143
What is necessary for athletes to perform well?
Macro- and micronutrients.
144
What happens to body temperature during physical activity?
It rises due to heat as a by-product of energy production.
145
What is vasodilation?
The increase in diameter of blood vessels under the skin to increase blood flow.
146
What occurs when body temperature drops?
Vasoconstriction, where blood vessels decrease in diameter to reduce blood flow.
147
Fill in the blank: The cardiovascular system transports _______ to the muscles.
oxygen
148
True or False: The cardiovascular system is responsible for breathing.
False
149
What helps regulate body temperature when the body gets hot?
Vasodilation increases blood flow to the skin for heat radiation.
150
What process occurs to conserve heat when the body gets cold?
Vasoconstriction decreases blood flow to the skin.
151
How does the cardiovascular system assist in nutrient transport?
Nutrients are broken down from food and transported in the blood.
152
What happens to blood flow during physical activity in low temperatures?
Blood flow is reduced to conserve body heat.
153
What is the main function of the pulmonary artery?
Carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation.
154
What does the vena cava do?
Brings deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
155
What is the role of valves in the heart?
Help keep the blood moving forward and prevent backflow.
156
Where does the right atrium receive blood from?
Receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cava.
157
What is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood?
Aorta.
158
Fill in the blank: The __________ valve is on the right side of the heart between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Tricuspid
159
Fill in the blank: The __________ valve is on the left side of the heart between the left atrium and left ventricle.
Bicuspid
160
What separates the left and right sides of the heart?
Septum.
161
True or False: The pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
False
162
What happens to blood pressure during exercise?
Blood pressure increases as the working muscles demand more oxygen.
163
What is the structure of arteries?
Thick muscular and elastic walls.
164
What is the structure of capillaries?
Very thin walls (only one-cell thick).
165
What is the primary function of veins?
Carry blood at low pressure towards the heart.
166
What is the relevance of capillaries in gas exchange?
Allow gaseous exchange due to thin walls.
167
Fill in the blank: Almost all __________ carry blood away from the heart.
Arteries
168
Fill in the blank: Almost all __________ carry blood towards the heart.
Veins
169
What is a characteristic of capillaries?
One-cell thick walls.
170
What type of blood do veins mainly carry?
Deoxygenated blood.
171
What is the significance of the wide internal diameter of veins?
Allows blood to pass through more easily.
172
Fill in the blank: The __________ artery receives deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to take to the lungs.
Pulmonary
173
What is the role of the aorta?
Carries oxygenated blood away from the left ventricle.
174
What is the purpose of the pulmonary artery?
Carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. ## Footnote This allows the blood to receive oxygen before being pumped to the working muscles.
175
Where is the tricuspid valve located?
Between the right atrium and the right ventricle. ## Footnote It is on the right side of the heart.
176
What is the function of the bicuspid valve?
Located between the left atrium and left ventricle, it prevents backflow of blood. ## Footnote It is also known as the mitral valve.
177
What is the role of semilunar valves?
Located between the ventricles and the pulmonary artery and vein, they prevent backflow. ## Footnote They help maintain unidirectional blood flow.
178
What does the vena cava do?
Brings deoxygenated blood back to the heart. ## Footnote This blood is then pumped to the lungs for oxygenation.
179
What is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood?
Aorta. ## Footnote It carries oxygenated blood away from the left ventricle to the working muscles.
180
Which blood vessel receives deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle?
Pulmonary artery. ## Footnote This blood is directed to the lungs for oxygenation.
181
What does the pulmonary vein do?
Brings oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. ## Footnote It is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood.
182
What is the function of the septum?
Separates the left and right sides of the heart. ## Footnote This wall prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
183
What happens to blood pressure during exercise?
Blood pressure increases as the working muscles demand more oxygen. ## Footnote This increase in demand leads to increased blood flow.
184
What are the structural characteristics of capillaries?
Very thin walls (one-cell thick) and small internal diameter. ## Footnote These features facilitate gas and nutrient exchange.
185
What are the functions of arteries?
Carry blood at high pressure away from the heart and mainly carry oxygenated blood. ## Footnote The exception is the pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood.
186
What is the main function of veins?
Carry blood at low pressure towards the heart and mainly carry deoxygenated blood. ## Footnote The pulmonary vein is an exception, carrying oxygenated blood.
187
Fill in the blank: Almost all arteries carry blood _____ from the heart.
away ## Footnote This is a fundamental characteristic of arteries.
188
What feature do veins contain to prevent backflow?
Valves. ## Footnote These help return blood to the heart despite low pressure.
189
What is the characteristic of capillaries that aids their function?
One-cell thick walls. ## Footnote This allows for efficient gas exchange.
190
State the type of blood vessel that holds blood at high pressure.
Arteries. ## Footnote They have thick muscular walls to withstand the pressure.
191
What is vascular shunting?
The redistribution of blood flow during exercise to supply active muscles with more oxygen. ## Footnote Blood is diverted away from inactive areas to support working muscles.
192
What happens to heart rate and stroke volume during exercise?
They increase, resulting in more blood circulating every minute. ## Footnote This increase supports the demand for oxygen in active muscles.
193
What is vasoconstriction?
The constriction of blood vessels to reduce blood flow to inactive areas. ## Footnote Triggered by signals from the nervous system when exercise begins.
194
What is vasodilation?
The dilation of blood vessels to increase blood flow to active areas. ## Footnote This allows working muscles to receive more oxygen and nutrients.
195
Fill in the blank: Blood flow to the digestive system is ______ during exercise.
lower
196
Fill in the blank: Blood flow to the muscular system is ______ during exercise.
greater
197
What component of blood carries oxygen and removes carbon dioxide?
Red blood cells. ## Footnote They bind oxygen with hemoglobin and transport it to working muscles.
198
What is the role of plasma in the blood?
To transport blood cells, platelets, and nutrients to different parts of the body. ## Footnote Plasma is the liquid part of blood.
199
What do white blood cells do?
Help fight infection and diseases. ## Footnote They travel around the body in plasma.
200
What is the function of platelets?
To help prevent bleeding by forming a plug at injury sites. ## Footnote They stick to each other and the walls of blood vessels.
201
Why is plasma important for sports performance?
It carries red blood cells, supplying oxygen to working muscles for physical activity. ## Footnote Plasma's liquid nature allows for efficient transportation within blood vessels.
202
True or False: Performers can continue playing if they are cut, regardless of bleeding.
False ## Footnote They must stop until the bleeding has stopped.
203
What is the importance of staying free from illness for performers?
To continue training and maintain performance level. ## Footnote Illness can hinder physical activity and performance.
204
Fill in the blank: Reduced blood flow to specific areas of the body is achieved through ______.
vascular shunting
205
Fill in the blank: There is a need for ______ to the muscles during exercise.
increased blood flow
206
What is inhaled air?
The air we breathe in to the lungs.
207
What is exhaled air?
The air we breathe out of the lungs.
208
What are the percentages of gases in inhaled air?
* Nitrogen: 78% * Oxygen: 21% * Carbon dioxide: 0.04%
209
What are the percentages of gases in exhaled air?
* Nitrogen: 78% * Oxygen: 16% * Carbon dioxide: 4%
210
How does the level of nitrogen change between inhaled and exhaled air?
Nitrogen has remained the same.
211
How does the level of oxygen change between inhaled and exhaled air?
Oxygen levels have gone down.
212
How does the level of carbon dioxide change between inhaled and exhaled air?
Carbon dioxide levels have risen.
213
Why do the percentages of gases in inhaled and exhaled air not add up to 100%?
Due to the rest of the air being made up of tiny percentages of other gases.
214
What is tidal volume?
The amount of air inspired (inhaled) or expired (exhaled) in a normal breath.
215
What is vital capacity?
The maximum amount of air the lungs can expire after the maximum amount they can inspire.
216
What components make up vital capacity?
* Tidal volume * Expiratory reserve volume * Inspiratory reserve volume
217
What happens to tidal volume during exercise?
Tidal volume increases to allow for greater airflow.
218
What is the maximum tidal volume at rest?
0.5 litres.
219
What is the tidal volume during exercise?
Increases from 0.5 to 2.5 litres.
220
What is the breathing rate during exercise?
Can increase to allow breathing as much as 150 litres of air per minute.
221
Define the term vital capacity.
The maximum amount of air the lungs can expire after the maximum amount they can inspire.
222
True or False: The levels of nitrogen increase during exercise.
False.
223
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the largest percentage of gas in the air.
Nitrogen
224
What is the reason for increased carbon dioxide levels during exercise?
Produced as a by-product of energy production.
225
State two reasons why the level of nitrogen remains the same in inhaled and exhaled air.
* Same amount is breathed out as is breathed in * Does not get used during physical activity
226
What is the role of the respiratory system?
Movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of the body
227
How many lungs are there in the human body?
Two (left and right)
228
What is the process of breathing in called?
Inspiration
229
What is the process of breathing out called?
Expiration
230
What are the bronchi?
The term for both the left and right bronchus that take air to each of the lungs
231
What are bronchioles?
Smaller airways that branch out from the bronchi and carry air to the alveoli
232
What are alveoli?
Tiny air sacs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs
233
What happens to the diaphragm during inspiration?
The diaphragm contracts and flattens
234
What happens to the diaphragm during expiration?
The diaphragm relaxes and returns to a dome shape
235
What effect does exercise have on the rate and depth of breathing?
Increases to meet the demand for additional oxygen
236
Fill in the blank: The _______ are tiny air sacs in the lungs.
alveoli
237
True or False: Blood transportation is a function of the respiratory system.
False
238
What is the structure of alveoli that facilitates gas exchange?
Very thin walls and surrounded by capillaries
239
How do gases move during gas exchange?
From areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration
240
What is the concentration of oxygen in the alveoli compared to the capillaries?
High in alveoli, low in capillaries
241
What happens to carbon dioxide during gas exchange?
Moves from high pressure in capillaries to low in alveoli
242
What occurs during aerobic activity related to gas exchange?
Increase in breathing rate and gas exchange
243
What occurs after anaerobic activity regarding breathing?
Elevated breathing rate for greater gas exchange to aid recovery
244
Explain one reason why carbon dioxide can diffuse from a capillary to the alveoli.
High levels of carbon dioxide in the capillaries and lower levels in the alveoli
245
What is the concentration of oxygen in the blood just after it leaves the alveoli?
High
246
Give a reason for the concentration of oxygen in the blood just after it leaves the alveoli.
Oxygen has moved from high pressure in the alveoli to the blood
247
What is aerobic exercise?
Aerobic exercise uses oxygen for energy production.
248
List the characteristics of activities using aerobic respiration.
* Long duration * Moderate pace rather than intense pace
249
Give an example of an activity that uses aerobic respiration.
Long-distance running
250
What are fats in relation to aerobic activity?
* An energy source for aerobic activity * Require oxygen to break down into glucose * Slow to break down * Provide large quantities of energy for exercise
251
What are carbohydrates in relation to energy production?
* An energy source for aerobic and anaerobic activity * Do not require oxygen to break down into glucose * Provide less energy than fats * Quicker to break down and release more energy than fats
252
What is anaerobic exercise?
Anaerobic exercise does not use oxygen.
253
List the characteristics of activities using anaerobic respiration.
* High intensity * Very short duration
254
Give an example of an activity that uses anaerobic respiration.
Elite 100-metre sprinting or explosive activities like shot put
255
What is the aerobic energy equation?
GLUCOSE + O2 → CO2 + H2O + HEAT + ENERGY
256
What does the aerobic energy equation signify?
* Uses glucose and oxygen to release energy aerobically * Produces carbon dioxide, water, and heat in addition to energy
257
Why do carbon dioxide levels increase during aerobic respiration?
They increase because CO2 is produced during aerobic respiration.
258
What is lactic acid?
Lactic acid is produced as a by-product when carbohydrates are broken down without oxygen during anaerobic respiration.
259
What happens to lactic acid without oxygen?
It will accumulate in the blood and muscle tissue, causing muscle fatigue.
260
Define respiration.
The process of energy production.
261
Define energy sources.
The macronutrients that provide energy.
262
What are short-term effects of exercise on the muscular system?
Ways your body responds as soon as it starts to exercise or to an increase in intensity.
263
What do muscles require as they start to exercise?
An increased demand for energy.
264
Name two sources of energy that muscles use quickly.
* The oxygen stores in the muscles (myoglobin) * The haemoglobin in the blood
265
What results in an oxygen deficit during exercise?
Not enough oxygen to work aerobically, leading to anaerobic energy production.
266
What can anaerobic energy production lead to?
* Muscle fatigue due to increased acidity in the cells * Lactate accumulation in muscle tissue and bloodstream
267
What is muscle fatigue?
When the efficiency of the muscles drops, reducing the level of performance.
268
Define lactate.
A chemical formed through anaerobic respiration.
269
What is lactate accumulation?
When the levels of lactate start to build up in muscle tissue or blood.
270
How does muscle fatigue affect a footballer?
They would not be able to keep up with the pace of the game.
271
How does muscle fatigue affect a 1500-metre runner?
They would not be able to run as fast in the final laps.
272
Define the term lactate accumulation.
When the levels of lactate start to build up in muscle tissue or blood.
273
What are the short-term effects of exercise on the cardiovascular system?
Increase in: * heart rate (HR) * stroke volume (SV) * cardiac output * blood pressure * gas exchange * depth of breathing * rate of breathing * tidal volume * vascular shunting ## Footnote These effects help meet the increased demands of exercise.
274
Define heart rate (HR).
The number of times the heart beats per minute. ## Footnote HR is a key measure of cardiovascular response to exercise.
275
What is stroke volume (SV)?
The amount of blood leaving the heart with each beat. ## Footnote SV is crucial for determining cardiac output.
276
How is cardiac output calculated?
Cardiac output = HR x SV. ## Footnote It represents the total amount of blood leaving the heart per minute.
277
What changes occur in the respiratory system during exercise?
Increased: * depth of breathing * rate of breathing ## Footnote This enhances oxygen intake and carbon dioxide removal.
278
What occurs after exercise in the cardio-respiratory system?
The cardio-respiratory system slowly returns to its resting values. ## Footnote The recovery rate can vary based on the nature of the exercise.
279
True or False: Oxygen delivery to muscles increases during exercise.
True. ## Footnote Increased blood flow aids in faster oxygen transport to muscles.
280
What is the recovery rate?
The time it takes for heart rate to return to resting rate. ## Footnote It is an important indicator of cardiovascular fitness.
281
What is a lever?
A rigid bar that rotates around a fulcrum to apply a force to a load. ## Footnote Levers are fundamental in biomechanics and movement analysis.
282
Identify the three classes of lever systems.
* First class * Second class * Third class ## Footnote Each class has the same components arranged differently.
283
In a first class lever, where is the fulcrum located?
The fulcrum is between the load and the effort. ## Footnote Example: Extending the arm at the elbow.
284
Where is the load located in a second class lever?
The load is between the effort and the fulcrum. ## Footnote Example: Calf raises.
285
What component of a lever system is represented by a triangle?
A Fulcrum. ## Footnote It indicates the pivot point in lever mechanics.
286
Fill in the blank: The effort in a lever system is provided by _______.
[muscles]. ## Footnote Muscles apply force to move the lever.
287
What does vascular shunting refer to?
The redistribution of blood flow to areas of higher demand during exercise. ## Footnote This process supports increased metabolic activity in muscles.
288
What happens to gas exchange during exercise?
Gas exchange occurs more quickly due to increased blood flow and respiratory rate. ## Footnote Faster gas exchange enhances oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide removal.
289
How does the body adapt to increased exercise demands?
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to increase oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal. ## Footnote These adaptations are crucial for performance in sports.
290
What do lever systems provide in terms of mechanical advantage?
Mechanical advantage or disadvantage ## Footnote Lever systems help in moving loads faster and further or moving heavier loads.
291
What is an example of a third class lever?
Biceps curl ## Footnote The fulcrum is the elbow joint, the load is the weight being lifted, and the effort is provided by the biceps.
292
What are the two main functions of levers?
* Move a load faster and further than possible without a lever * Move a heavier load than can be moved without a lever
293
What is a disadvantage of a second class lever?
Small range of movement and cannot move load quickly ## Footnote This is due to the load being closer to the fulcrum than the effort.
294
What is the mechanical advantage of a third class lever?
Provides speed and a wide range of movement ## Footnote This is due to the effort being closer to the fulcrum than the load.
295
How can lever systems be identified?
By the component in the middle ## Footnote Remember the rhyme: One, two, three.
296
What is the sagittal plane?
Divides the left and right side of the body, vertically
297
What does the sagittal axis do?
Goes from front to back
298
What is the frontal plane?
Divides the front and back of the body, vertically
299
What does the frontal axis do?
Goes from side to side
300
What is the vertical axis?
Goes from top to bottom
301
What is the transverse plane?
Divides the top and bottom of the body, horizontally
302
What is the movement relation of the sagittal plane?
Can only be around the frontal axis
303
What is the movement relation of the frontal plane?
Can only be around the sagittal axis
304
What is the movement relation of the transverse plane?
Can only be around the vertical axis
305
Which description correctly defines the sagittal plane?
Divides the body from left to right
306
Describe the direction of the frontal axis and name the corresponding plane.
Direction: side to side; Plane: Frontal plane
307
What movements can occur in the sagittal plane about the frontal axis?
Flexion and extension. ## Footnote These movements involve bending and straightening actions.
308
What movements can occur in the frontal plane about the sagittal axis?
Abduction and adduction. ## Footnote Abduction is moving away from the midline, while adduction is moving towards it.
309
What is an example of a movement performed in the frontal plane about the sagittal axis?
A cartwheel. ## Footnote This movement involves lateral rotation of the body.
310
What is an example of a movement performed in the sagittal plane about the frontal axis?
A somersault. ## Footnote This movement involves rotation forward or backward.
311
What movements can occur in the transverse plane about the vertical axis?
Rotation and twisting. ## Footnote These actions involve turning around an axis.
312
Identify the movement possible in the sagittal plane: A) Abduction B) Extension C) Circumduction D) Adduction
B) Extension. ## Footnote Flexion and extension are the only movements in the sagittal plane.
313
What divides the body in the sagittal plane?
Left and right sides of the body, vertically. ## Footnote This plane is crucial for movements like flexion and extension.
314
What divides the body in the frontal plane?
Front and back of the body, vertically. ## Footnote This plane allows for movements like abduction and adduction.
315
What divides the body in the transverse plane?
Top and bottom of the body, horizontally. ## Footnote This plane enables rotational movements.
316
What is the definition of health?
A state of complete emotional, physical and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity. ## Footnote Health encompasses multiple aspects beyond just physical health.
317
What is the definition of exercise?
A form of physical activity done to maintain or improve health and/or physical fitness, it is not competitive sport. ## Footnote Exercise varies in intensity and purpose among different individuals.
318
What is the definition of fitness?
The ability to meet the demands of the environment. ## Footnote Fitness is relative to the individual's daily activities.
319
What does performance mean?
How well a task is completed. ## Footnote Performance can be evaluated based on quality and accuracy.
320
Which statement gives the best definition of health? A) The ability to meet the demands of the environment B) A state of emotional wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity C) The absence of disease D) A state of complete emotional, physical and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity
D) A state of complete emotional, physical and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity. ## Footnote This option provides the most comprehensive definition.
321
What is the relationship between fitness and health?
Regular exercise increases health, fitness, and performance
322
What role does exercise play in the relationship between health and performance?
Exercise improves health benefits and increases fitness, which enhances performance
323
What are the physical health benefits of regular exercise?
* Reduced chance of coronary heart disease (CHD) * Reduced chance of osteoporosis
324
What is the impact of improved fitness on performance?
Improved fitness can lead to better performance
325
What factors can prevent someone from gaining health benefits from exercise?
Not being healthy enough to participate in regular exercise
326
What is the 'golden rule' regarding exercise?
Exercise must be regular to be effective
327
True or False: You need to be healthy in order to be fit.
True
328
What is cardiovascular fitness?
The ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time without tiring
329
List three types of activities that require cardiovascular fitness.
* Mainly aerobic * Last a long time * Involve prolonged additional oxygen delivery
330
What is another term for cardiovascular fitness?
Aerobic endurance
331
What questions should you ask when considering components of fitness?
* What is it? * Who needs it? * Why is it important? * How does this affect performance?
332
Which option best explains cardiovascular fitness?
The ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time without tiring
333
Fill in the blank: Cardiovascular fitness is also known as _______.
aerobic endurance
334
Why do rugby players need high levels of cardiovascular fitness?
To maintain quality of performance over a long duration
335
What is muscular endurance?
The ability to use voluntary muscles many times without getting tired. ## Footnote Muscular endurance is distinct from cardiovascular fitness and muscular strength.
336
What are the characteristics of activities that require muscular endurance?
* Mainly aerobic * Last a long time * Require repeated use of the same muscles ## Footnote These activities often involve prolonged additional oxygen delivery to working muscles.
337
How does cardiovascular fitness relate to muscular endurance?
The heart and lungs need to supply sufficient oxygen to the working muscles for repeated contractions over a long duration. ## Footnote This relationship is crucial for performance in endurance activities.
338
Define flexibility.
The range of movement possible at a joint. ## Footnote Flexibility is important for enhancing performance and preventing injuries.
339
Why is flexibility important in physical activities?
* Increases the range of movement at the joint * Helps prevent injury ## Footnote Good flexibility allows performers to execute movements more effectively.
340
Give an example of how flexibility benefits a netball player.
Good flexibility allows the netball player to stretch further so she can intercept the ball. ## Footnote This demonstrates the practical application of flexibility in sports.
341
What is the golden rule when defining muscular endurance?
Make sure to mention muscles and differentiate it from cardiovascular fitness and muscular strength. ## Footnote Definitions should be comprehensive enough to answer the question effectively.
342
What should you include when explaining muscular endurance?
* Definition of muscular endurance * Example of its application in a training scenario * Explanation of its importance to performance ## Footnote This structure helps in providing a thorough answer.
343
True or False: Muscular endurance is related to the force exerted by muscles.
False. ## Footnote Muscular endurance focuses on repeated muscle contractions over time, not on force.
344
Fill in the blank: Muscular endurance is required for activities that are mainly _______.
[aerobic].
345
Explain why flexibility is important for basketball players.
High levels of flexibility allow players to perform movements more effectively and prevent injuries. ## Footnote Flexibility aids in reaching and shooting, which are crucial in basketball.
346
How does good flexibility benefit a footballer?
It prevents injury when overstretching because the joint can move further before damage occurs. ## Footnote This is critical for actions like kicking and sudden movements.
347
What is the relationship between muscular endurance and oxygen delivery?
Muscular endurance requires prolonged additional oxygen delivery to working muscles. ## Footnote This is essential for sustaining activity over longer periods.
348
Identify a key aspect to remember when defining terms in fitness.
Use your own words and ensure the definition is comprehensive enough. ## Footnote Definitions should be tailored to the context of the question.
349
What is reaction time?
The time it takes to respond to a stimulus. ## Footnote Important in events requiring quick decisions about movements.
350
Why is fast reaction time important in sports?
It helps in getting a good start and adapting quickly to rapid changes in play. ## Footnote Affects overall performance in competitive situations.
351
List examples of stimuli in sporting activities.
* A ball * A starting pistol * A whistle * An opponent * An error * A dangerous situation ## Footnote Each stimulus requires a different type of reaction.
352
What is the golden rule regarding reaction times?
You can anticipate that something is going to happen or it may just happen suddenly. ## Footnote Important to decide on a course of action as soon as the stimulus is detected.
353
In sprint activities, what can a fraction of a second determine?
The difference between winning and losing.
354
Which performer is most likely to benefit from a fast reaction time?
A swimmer leaving the starting blocks. ## Footnote Fast reaction time is crucial for a good start in races.
355
Define power in the context of physical training.
The ability to do strength performances quickly. ## Footnote Power = strength x speed.
356
What is required to achieve power?
Both strength and speed together.
357
List examples of when speed is vital.
* In races (runner, cyclist, speed skater) * For movements requiring quick actions (e.g., javelin thrower) * To gain an advantage over opponents (e.g., football) ## Footnote Speed is essential in various competitive sports.
358
How does speed impact a 100-metre sprinter?
It helps them beat opponents and achieve a faster time.
359
How does power benefit a sprinter?
To get an explosive start.
360
Fill in the blank: Power is all about using strength at _______.
speed.
361
Explain why speed is important in a table tennis match.
It allows the player to move their arm quickly, putting more pace on the ball, making it harder for the opponent to return. ## Footnote Justification is essential for scoring points.
362
Provide an example of power in basketball.
Close to the hoop to score.
363
What is the relationship between power and explosive movements?
Power is demonstrated through high intensity and explosive movements.
364
What is agility?
The ability to change the position of the body quickly while maintaining control of the movement.
365
List the three components of agility.
* The ability to change direction * The ability to do so quickly * The ability to do so with control
366
Why is agility important in sports?
It is important for preventing opponents from getting free and for dodging tackles.
367
In which sports is agility particularly crucial?
* Rugby * Netball * Football * Racket sports like badminton, tennis, and squash
368
When is agility not typically important?
In activities with no interaction, such as a 50-metre swimming race.
369
Describe how a basketball player uses agility.
The player will sidestep to change direction quickly with control to avoid being tackled.
370
What is balance?
The ability to retain the body's centre of mass above the base of support.
371
What are the two types of balance?
* Static balance * Dynamic balance
372
What is static balance?
Balance when there is no movement and the performer needs to hold a position still.
373
What is dynamic balance?
Balance while moving in an activity.
374
Why is static balance important for a gymnast?
To prevent falling or wobbling and losing points for the quality of movement.
375
Why is dynamic balance important for a hammer thrower?
To maintain balance while turning and avoid stepping out of the area, causing a foul throw.
376
What is co-ordination?
The ability to use two or more body parts together.
377
What are the characteristics of effective co-ordination?
* Efficient * Smooth * Effective
378
Give an example of co-ordination in sports.
A tennis player using hand and eye coordination to ensure successful contact between the ball and racket.
379
How does a football player use co-ordination?
The player uses foot-eye co-ordination to ensure accurate contact with the ball, increasing shot accuracy.
380
What two body parts might a golfer coordinate when taking a putt?
The hands and eyes.
381
What is the impact of good co-ordination on performance?
It enhances the effectiveness and accuracy of movements in physical activities.
382
Fill in the blank: Agility is needed to ______ an opponent.
[dodge]
383
Fill in the blank: Static balance is important to the gymnast to avoid ______.
[falling]
384
What is body composition?
The relative ratio of fat mass to fat-free mass in the body ## Footnote Body composition affects performance in various activities, with different optimal ratios for different sports.
385
Why is body composition important for a long-distance runner?
Excess weight from fat can slow down the runner's times ## Footnote An optimum ratio of fat to muscle can enhance performance.
386
What happens if a rugby prop lacks muscle and body fat?
It becomes easier for opponents to push them off the ball ## Footnote Adequate strength is necessary for maintaining possession in contact sports.
387
What is the optimal body composition for a sprinter?
A low ratio of body fat to muscle ## Footnote This maximizes their power output during a race.
388
What is strength defined as?
The amount of force a muscle can exert against resistance ## Footnote Strength is crucial for various athletic performances.
389
Who needs strength and why?
Weightlifter: To lift heavy weights; Gymnast: To support own body weight; Games player: To not get pushed off the ball ## Footnote Different sports require different applications of strength.
390
What is the golden rule regarding strength and muscular endurance?
Strength is about exerting maximum force, unlike muscular endurance which involves repeated exertion ## Footnote This distinction is crucial for training and performance.
391
How does strength differ from power?
Strength can be used alone; power is a combination of strength and speed ## Footnote Understanding this difference is important for athletes in training.
392
How does a sprinter use strength in their activity?
To apply greater force against the ground or starting block ## Footnote This helps decrease the time taken to run the race.
393
How does a rugby player use strength?
To stop themselves from being barged off the ball ## Footnote Maintaining possession is essential in rugby.
394
How does a weightlifter utilize strength?
To support a heavy weight above their head at the end of the lift ## Footnote This requires significant strength for a short duration.
395
Fill in the blank: Body composition affects the performance of athletes by influencing their _______.
[performance and efficiency in their respective sports]
396
True or False: Muscular endurance and strength are interchangeable terms.
False ## Footnote They refer to different physical capabilities.
397
What is the primary purpose of fitness tests?
To assess fitness levels in order to develop an appropriate exercise programme.
398
What do you need to know to conduct fitness tests?
Fitness requirements for different activities, tests that measure each component of fitness, how to interpret the results, and how to make recommendations based on the results.
399
When should fitness tests be conducted?
At the start of an exercise programme, during the programme to monitor progress, and at the end to assess effectiveness.
400
List three reasons for fitness testing.
* Establishing current level of fitness * Identifying strengths and weaknesses * Planning a relevant training programme
401
What does SMART stand for in the context of fitness training?
Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound.
402
True or False: Fitness tests should be part of a training session.
False.
403
Fill in the blank: A _______ is a type of questionnaire commonly completed before undertaking physical activity.
PARQ
404
Give an example of a typical question that might be asked on a PARQ.
Do you smoke? If yes, how many cigarettes do you smoke a day?
405
What information can fitness tests provide to help set training targets?
Information on current fitness levels, strengths and weaknesses, and improvements since the last test.
406
What is the purpose of selecting appropriate fitness tests?
To assess specific components of fitness and interpret test results.
407
What is the Cooper 12-minute run test?
A test where one runs (or jogs) for 12 minutes while counting laps.
408
What types of performers would use the Cooper 12-minute run test?
* Endurance athletes * Games players * Long-distance runners * Swimmers
409
How do you calculate the distance run in the Cooper 12-minute run test?
By using the length of the track, for example, 400 meters.
410
What should you do with your results after the Cooper 12-minute run test?
Compare your result to a rating chart.
411
What is the Cooper 12-minute swim test?
A test where one swims for 12 minutes while counting lengths.
412
What are the rating categories for the Cooper 12-minute swim test for girls aged 13-14?
* Excellent: >2000 m * Good: 2399-2100 m * Average: 2100-1900 m * Below average: 1900-1600 m * Poor: 1599-1500 m * Very poor: <1500 m
413
What is the Harvard step test?
A test involving stepping up and down on a bench for 5 minutes, followed by measuring heart rate.
414
What is the height of the bench used in the Harvard step test for men?
40 cm.
415
What is the calculation to determine the score of the Harvard step test?
100 x 300 (seconds) divided by the sum of the three heart rates.
416
Define normative data in the context of fitness testing.
The rating charts used to determine test results.
417
What is a test protocol?
How the test is carried out.
418
What does a grip dynamometer measure?
Strength in the hand and forearm.
419
Which activities would require a grip dynamometer test?
* Rock climbing * Sports requiring hand strength
420
What does the sit and reach test measure?
Flexibility of the lower back and hamstrings.
421
Which athletes commonly use the sit and reach test?
* Gymnasts * Hurdlers
422
What is a common mistake regarding fitness tests?
Saying that fitness tests are used to improve components of fitness.
423
What is the significance of discussing the grip dynamometer test for sprinters?
It measures grip strength but is less relevant than leg strength for sprinters.
424
How should you approach a question that starts with 'Discuss'?
Identify good and bad points and conclude at the end.
425
What was Liam's score on the sit and reach test?
23 cm.
426
What is the rating for a 14-year-old scoring 23 cm on the sit and reach test?
Average.
427
What is the main goal of fitness tests?
To assess fitness levels, not to improve them.
428
What is the Illinois agility run test used for?
Agility ## Footnote Used by performers who need to change direction quickly.
429
What type of test is the 30-metre sprint?
Speed ## Footnote Used by 100-metre sprinters and rugby players.
430
Describe the protocol for the 30-metre sprint test.
1. Measure and mark out 30 metres in a straight line. 2. Place one cone at the start and one at the end. 3. On 'GO', run as fast as you can. 4. Record the time taken. 5. Compare your result to a rating chart.
431
True or False: The Illinois agility run test requires running in a straight line.
False ## Footnote The Illinois agility run test requires changes in direction.
432
Which fitness test is most relevant for a football player?
Illinois agility run test ## Footnote Relevant due to the need for agility and quick direction changes in football.
433
What is the difference between power tests and muscular endurance tests?
Power tests are short explosive tests; muscular endurance tests use repeated muscle contractions for 1 minute.
434
What is the purpose of the vertical jump test?
Test of power (legs) ## Footnote Used primarily by sprinters and rugby players.
435
Describe the protocol for the vertical jump test.
1. Stand side on to a wall, feet flat on the floor. 2. Mark the highest point where the tips of your fingers can reach. 3. Jump as high as you can, marking the wall at the top of the jump. 4. Measure the difference between the two chalk marks.
436
What does the one-minute press-up test measure?
Muscular endurance ## Footnote Involves completing as many press-ups as possible in one minute.
437
What is the protocol for the one-minute sit-up test?
1. Lie on a mat, knees bent, feet on the floor. 2. Place arms across chest. 3. Sit up until back is at 90° then return to start position. 4. Complete as many as you can in one minute.
438
Explain why the vertical jump test is relevant for a high jumper.
It measures power, which is necessary to clear the bar in high jumping.
439
Why would the one-minute press-up test be relevant for a rower?
It assesses muscular endurance, important for maintaining performance over extended periods.
440
What is the purpose of a data collection sheet in fitness tests?
To record the date, name of the test, result, and outcome based on comparison to rating charts.
441
Define 'raw data' in the context of fitness testing.
The score from your fitness test.
442
What does it mean to 'interpret' fitness test data?
Using data tables to provide a rating of your fitness.
443
What is meant by 'analyse' in fitness testing?
Breaking down the information to determine strengths and weaknesses based on test results.
444
What does 'evaluate' refer to in the context of fitness data?
Making a judgement about the impact of training based on the data.
445
What is the normative data for an 'Excellent' rating in the Cooper 12-minute run for a 19-year-old?
>2300 m
446
What is the normative data for an 'Average' rating in the Cooper 12-minute run for a 14-year-old?
1600-1899 m
447
Nell's score in the Cooper 12-minute run was greater than 2000 meters. What was her rating?
Excellent
448
What should individuals focus on if they score 'average' or below in fitness tests?
They should work on improving components of fitness where they scored average or below.
449
What does the acronym FITT stand for in the principles of training?
* F = Frequency * I = Intensity * T = Time * T = Type
450
What is the principle of 'progressive overload'?
Gradually increasing the amount of work in training over time.
451
How can progressive overload prevent injuries?
By ensuring increases in training are gradual.
452
Fill in the blank: Progressive overload means gradually increasing the amount of work in _______.
[training]
453
What is the difference between 'overload' and 'overuse'?
'Overload' is increasing workload, while 'overuse' is forcing beyond capabilities.
454
Explain how Jamie could use progressive overload to improve his cardiovascular fitness.
By gradually increasing the duration or intensity of his continuous training.
455
What is the importance of evaluating fitness test results?
To assess the effectiveness of training and identify areas for improvement.
456
What does specificity mean in the context of personal exercise programmes?
Matching training to the particular requirements of an activity.
457
What is the golden rule related to specificity?
Training must be appropriate for the sport to train the right muscles and body systems.
458
Give an example of how specificity can be applied in training.
A rower could plan their training around using a rowing machine.
459
True or False: Specificity is about the individual needs of a person.
False.
460
Which of the following does not conform to the principle of specificity? A) 100m runner practicing sprint starts B) Games player in a fartlek training session C) Tennis player practicing serves D) 50m freestyle swimmer training on the track
D) 50m freestyle swimmer training on the track.
461
What are individual needs in the context of training?
Matching the training to the requirements of the individual person.
462
Why is it important to consider individual needs in training?
Everyone is different; training must be appropriate for the person.
463
Fill in the blank: Overtraining means doing too much training, which can lead to _______.
[injury and prevent improvement]
464
Name three reasons that could lead to overtraining.
* Inadequate rest between sessions * Making sessions too long * Using a workload that is too high.
465
What should be included in training sessions to prevent overtraining?
Rest days and gradual increases in workload/time.
466
What happens if injury occurs due to overtraining?
Training programme may be interrupted and reversibility could take place.
467
How did Glen's coach apply the principle of individual needs?
By giving Glen a different training programme tailored to his specific needs.
468
Explain why overtraining should be considered when planning a training programme.
To avoid injury and ensure proper recovery for improvement.
469
What does the 'F' in the FITT principle stand for?
Frequency ## Footnote Frequency refers to how often you train.
470
What does the 'I' in the FITT principle represent?
Intensity ## Footnote Intensity refers to how hard you train.
471
What does the 'T' in the FITT principle signify?
Time ## Footnote Time refers to how long you train.
472
What does the second 'T' in the FITT principle indicate?
Type ## Footnote Type relates to the specificity of the training.
473
Define the term 'reversibility' in the context of training.
Reversibility means that any improvement from training will be lost when training stops.
474
What is the impact of training harder on performance?
Improved performance.
475
How can increasing training frequency affect performance?
It can lead to improved performance.
476
Provide an example of how time can be gradually increased in training.
Session 1 = 20 minutes, Session 2 = 25 minutes, Session 3 = 30 minutes.
477
What should be considered when applying the FITT components?
Progressive overload and the principle of overtraining.
478
What is the anaerobic training zone percentage of max heart rate (MHR)?
80 to 90% of MHR.
479
What is the aerobic training zone percentage of MHR?
60 to 80% of MHR.
480
How do you estimate your maximum heart rate (MHR)?
220 minus your age.
481
Calculate the MHR for a 16-year-old.
204 bpm.
482
What is Bobbie's training zone if she is 16 years old?
Between 122 and 163 bpm.
483
What is Lauren's MHR if she is 35 years old?
185 bpm.
484
Calculate the upper threshold of Lauren's aerobic training zone.
148 bpm.
485
If the target zone for an endurance athlete is 120-160 bpm, how old is the athlete?
20 years old.
486
True or False: The type of training should match the activity to improve performance.
True.
487
Fill in the blank: The FITT principle is important for _______.
progressive overload.
488
What should be done to prevent boredom in training?
Vary the frequency, intensity, time, and type of training.
489
What are methods of training used for?
To improve fitness and performance levels ## Footnote Methods of training can be tailored to specific fitness needs.
490
Which training method is used more for anaerobic activities?
Interval training ## Footnote Interval training involves alternating periods of high-intensity effort with lower-intensity recovery.
491
Which training method is primarily used for aerobic endurance-based activities?
Continuous training ## Footnote Continuous training is characterized by sustained efforts without breaks.
492
What is the minimum duration for a continuous training session?
20 minutes or longer ## Footnote Continuous training sessions should not include breaks.
493
What components of fitness improve with continuous training?
* Cardiovascular fitness * Muscular endurance ## Footnote Regular continuous training can lead to significant health benefits.
494
What is a key benefit of regular continuous training?
Reduces the chance of coronary heart disease ## Footnote Continuous training promotes overall cardiovascular health.
495
What type of activities are associated with continuous training?
* Long-distance running * Long-distance cycling * Long-distance swimming ## Footnote These activities typically require sustained aerobic effort.
496
What type of event would an athlete likely be involved in if they used continuous training?
An endurance event, such as marathon running ## Footnote Continuous training is ideal for events requiring prolonged effort.
497
What are the key characteristics of fartlek training?
* Variations in pace * Variations in terrain covered ## Footnote Fartlek training combines continuous and interval training methods.
498
What are the main benefits of fartlek training?
* Improves cardiovascular fitness * Improves muscular endurance * Reduces chance of coronary heart disease ## Footnote Fartlek training is effective for both aerobic and anaerobic conditioning.
499
In fartlek training, what activities do performers engage in?
* Jogging (aerobic) * Sprinting (anaerobic) ## Footnote This method mimics the varied demands of competitive sports.
500
How might a cross-country runner adapt fartlek training?
By focusing on changing terrains, such as up and down hills ## Footnote Terrain variation enhances the specificity of the training.
501
How might a footballer adapt fartlek training?
By focusing on variation in pace to match game requirements ## Footnote This adaptation mirrors the stop-and-start nature of football.
502
Why should a games player involve jogging and sprinting in a fartlek session?
To simulate the varying pace and intensity during a game ## Footnote This prepares the athlete for the demands of competitive play.
503
What is circuit training?
A chain of different activities selected to suit components of fitness.
504
List four examples of activities that can be included in circuit training.
* Sit-ups for muscular endurance * Shuttle runs for speed * Dodging through cones for agility * Balancing ball for balance.
505
How many stations are typically organized in a circuit?
Usually between 6 and 12.
506
What are the two types of circuit training?
* Fitness-based * Skill-based.
507
How can circuit training be organized?
So that it is continuous, usually with 30-60 second breaks.
508
What are the health benefits of aerobic circuit training?
Weight loss through burning additional calories.
509
List the three ways to measure the intensity of circuit training.
* Time at each station * Number of repetitions at each station * Number of circuits completed.
510
True or False: Circuit training can only be anaerobic.
False.
511
What is the age of George who designed a circuit for basketball and badminton?
15 years old.
512
Why is the station 'bowling at a target' not appropriate for George's circuit?
It does not relate to either of his sports.
513
State three characteristics of circuit training.
* Involves a series of stations * Can be fitness or skill-based * Allows recovery of muscle groups.
514
What is the main feature of interval training?
Periods of intense activity with breaks for recovery.
515
What is aerobic interval training associated with?
Health benefits such as weight loss through burning calories.
516
List the components of a typical interval training session.
* Sets of high-intensity work (e.g., sprint) * Followed by rest or low-intensity work (active rest).
517
Fill in the blank: Aerobic training is defined as '_______'.
'with oxygen' (low intensity, longer duration activities).
518
Fill in the blank: Anaerobic training is defined as '_______'.
'without oxygen' (short-lived, explosive activities).
519
What are three forms of interval training?
* Training on a track * Circuit training * Weight training.
520
What is a major form of training for swimmers?
Interval training.
521
How can strength be improved in a weight training session using interval training?
By programming breaks into the session.
522
What is the difference in rest intervals between endurance and power athletes during interval training?
Fewer rest intervals for endurance athletes than for power athletes.
523
Describe one characteristic specific to endurance athletes in interval training.
Less intense workload during periods of work compared to power athletes.
524
State three characteristics of interval training.
* Involves high intensity work * Includes rest or low intensity work * Flexible for various fitness levels.
525
What is plyometric training?
A training method that involves jumping and bounding, often over obstacles, to develop power.
526
List the characteristics of plyometric training.
* Jumping/bounding often over obstacles * High intensity * Short duration * Breaks between sets * Focus on speed, not endurance * Maximal effort
527
What are the benefits of plyometric training?
* Develops power by quickly lengthening and shortening muscles * Trains for activities with fast explosive movements, such as: * volleyball * basketball * hurdles
528
What factors determine the type of plyometrics used?
* What you want to train for * The resources available * Your level of fitness
529
How can plyometrics develop power in the upper body?
* Through explosive press-ups * By catching and throwing a medicine ball
530
How can plyometrics develop power in the lower body?
* Through bounding * By jumping
531
Give an example of a plyometric exercise for basketball training.
Jumping onto boxes or jumping high and fast.
532
Fill in the blank: Plyometric training is suitable for activities that require _______.
fast explosive movements
533
Describe two ways to increase the intensity of plyometric training.
* Gradually increasing the height of the box * Increasing the number of boxes
534
Explain why plyometric training would be suitable for a volleyball player.
It improves the component of fitness necessary for jumping and explosive movements in volleyball.
535
What is weight training?
A form of interval training using weights, machines, or free weights.
536
What are 'reps and sets' in weight training?
Reps refer to the number of times weights are lifted, followed by a break before starting another set.
537
What does weight provide during training?
Resistance or load for the muscles to work against.
538
What is the golden rule of referring to weight training?
Always state weight training or resistance training, not weights or weightlifting.
539
How can you target specific muscles during weight training?
By doing specific exercises, such as biceps curls for the biceps.
540
What are three benefits of weight training?
* Develops fitness for activities requiring power and strength * Can improve muscular endurance * Supports performance in various sports
541
Give three examples of activities that benefit from weight training.
* Weight lifting * Rugby * Shot put
542
What training method should Ria use to improve her discus performance?
Weight training to increase her strength for throwing the discus further.
543
What is the training design for developing power and strength?
High weight x low number of reps.
544
What is the training design for developing muscular endurance?
Low weight x high number of reps.
545
True or False: Endurance and power athletes often use weight training as part of their training programme.
True.
546
Fill in the blank: Weight training can be used to develop _______ or muscular endurance.
[muscular strength]
547
What do fitness classes help improve?
Specific components of fitness for physical activity and sport
548
What is the primary focus of aerobics classes?
Cardiovascular endurance ## Footnote Aerobics classes involve continuous activity for between 30 and 60 minutes
549
What intensity level is associated with Body Pump classes?
Moderate to high intensity
550
What equipment is primarily used in Body Pump classes?
Barbells
551
What is the main focus of Pilates exercises?
Flexibility, balance, and strength
552
Where are Pilates exercises typically performed?
On a mat
553
What component of fitness does Spinning primarily develop?
Cardiovascular endurance and muscular endurance
554
What type of activity does Spinning involve?
Continuous cycling to music with an instructor
555
What is a key difference between Pilates and yoga?
Yoga involves meditation/relaxation techniques
556
Fill in the blank: Aerobics classes involve continuous activity for between _____ minutes.
30 and 60
557
True or False: Yoga includes a relaxation phase.
True
558
What component of fitness does Body Pump target?
Muscular endurance or strength
559
What is the main benefit of aerobic classes for rugby players?
Improves cardiovascular endurance
560
What type of resistance is used in Pilates?
Body resistance
561
What are the primary benefits of yoga?
Flexibility, balance, and strength
562
What is the focus of a 'Step aerobics' class?
Cardiovascular endurance
563
Fill in the blank: Body Pump involves lots of _____ to develop muscular endurance.
Repetitions
564
What is a key advantage of continuous training?
No equipment or facilities needed ## Footnote Continuous training can be performed independently or with others and offers health benefits such as a reduced chance of coronary heart disease (CHD).
565
What is a disadvantage of continuous training?
Can be boring, so motivation can be lost ## Footnote Continuous training does not change pace, making it less suitable for game players.
566
What can continuous training potentially cause?
Impact injuries ## Footnote This risk is associated with the repetitive nature of the training.
567
What is an advantage of circuit training?
Variety of stations generates interest ## Footnote Circuit training can be adapted for each individual and can work on both skill and fitness.
568
What is a disadvantage of circuit training?
Limited time at stations to work on skills ## Footnote This can make it difficult to focus on all skills effectively.
569
What is a benefit of weight/resistance training?
Easily adapted for muscular endurance or strength ## Footnote It allows targeting of specific areas of the body.
570
What is a disadvantage of weight/resistance training?
Equipment can be expensive ## Footnote Proper technique is essential to avoid injury, and free weights often require a spotter.
571
What is a key feature of fartlek training?
Change of pace/terrain can add interest ## Footnote It requires no equipment and can be done alone or with others.
572
What is a disadvantage of fartlek training?
Higher intensity parts can be avoided ## Footnote This may reduce the effectiveness of the training for certain athletes.
573
What is a key feature of interval training?
Can be adapted for anaerobic or aerobic activity ## Footnote It requires no equipment, making it accessible.
574
What is a disadvantage of interval training?
Can be repetitive and therefore boring ## Footnote Planning and tracking of sets is necessary for effective training.
575
What is a feature of plyometric training?
Can be completed with no equipment ## Footnote However, it can cause injury due to its high intensity if not performed correctly.
576
Fill in the blank: A disadvantage of continuous training is that it can get _______.
boring ## Footnote This lack of variety can impact the motivation of the athlete.
577
True or False: Fartlek training is ideal for sprinters focusing on cardiovascular fitness.
False ## Footnote Sprinters typically do not need to focus on cardiovascular fitness, making fartlek less relevant.
578
What are the long-term effects of exercise on the skeletal system?
Regular training and exercise benefit the body over time.
579
What type of activities lead to increased bone density?
Weight-bearing activities.
580
Define 'weight-bearing activities'.
Activities that force your body to work against gravity.
581
What are some examples of non-weight-bearing activities?
Cycling and rowing.
582
Increased bone density leads to what?
Stronger bones.
583
What does stronger bones mean?
Less chance of breaks/fractures and less chance of osteoporosis.
584
What are the benefits of regular exercise on ligaments and tendons?
Stronger ligaments and tendons.
585
Stronger ligaments provide what benefit?
Better support of joints to increase stability.
586
More stability in joints means what?
Less likely to dislocate a joint and less likely to get an overuse injury.
587
What is one impact of increased ability to withstand force?
Improved performance.
588
How does reduced time out from training due to injury impact performance?
It leads to improved performance.
589
Fill in the blank: The golden rule involves breaking down thoughts into clear stages: effects, benefits, and _______.
[impact]
590
Differentiate between weight-bearing and non-weight-bearing activities.
Weight-bearing activities make your body work against gravity, while non-weight-bearing means you have help supporting your body weight.
591
Why are weight-bearing activities beneficial to the skeletal system?
They increase bone density, leading to stronger bones and reduced chance of osteoporosis.
592
Explain why stronger ligaments will be beneficial to a rugby player.
Stronger ligaments provide better joint support and stability, reducing the risk of injuries.
593
What are the two main types of adaptations to the muscular system?
Aerobic and anaerobic adaptations ## Footnote Aerobic adaptations occur due to regular aerobic activities, while anaerobic adaptations result from anaerobic activities.
594
What is an example of an aerobic activity?
Games activities and low-weight high-reps weight training ## Footnote These activities enhance aerobic adaptations in the muscular system.
595
What is an example of an anaerobic activity?
Sprinting ## Footnote Sprinting is a high-intensity exercise that promotes anaerobic adaptations.
596
What is the importance of rest and recovery in training?
Allows adaptations to take place and prevents overtraining ## Footnote Sufficient rest is crucial for the muscular system to adapt to training.
597
List three effects and benefits of aerobic adaptations.
* Hypertrophy of slow twitch muscle fibres * Increased myoglobin content * Increased size and number of mitochondria ## Footnote These adaptations improve muscular endurance and oxygen supply.
598
List three effects and benefits of anaerobic adaptations.
* Hypertrophy of fast twitch muscle fibres * Increased strength * Increased tolerance to lactic acid ## Footnote These adaptations enhance strength, power, and delay muscle fatigue.
599
Define anaerobic.
Without oxygen ## Footnote Anaerobic activities do not rely on oxygen for energy production.
600
Define aerobic.
With oxygen ## Footnote Aerobic activities utilize oxygen to produce energy.
601
What is hypertrophy?
Increased size of muscles ## Footnote Hypertrophy can result from both aerobic and anaerobic training.
602
What is myoglobin?
Oxygen stores in muscles ## Footnote Myoglobin plays a crucial role in oxygen delivery during aerobic activities.
603
What are mitochondria?
Where energy is produced using oxygen ## Footnote Mitochondria are essential for aerobic energy production.
604
True or False: Increased tolerance to lactic acid is an anaerobic adaptation.
True ## Footnote This adaptation helps reduce muscle fatigue during intense exercise.
605
Fill in the blank: The adaptations to the muscular system must be appropriate for the _______.
[activity] ## Footnote Different activities require specific adaptations for optimal performance.
606
Describe one way in which the muscular system is affected by regular exercise.
Increased size and strength of muscles ## Footnote Regular exercise leads to various adaptations in muscle structure and function.
607
What does 'regular' mean in the context of aerobic exercise?
'Regular' means more than once a week over a number of weeks.
608
What are the health benefits of regular aerobic exercise?
* Reduced chance of a stroke * Reduced chance of coronary heart disease * Reduced chance of type II diabetes
609
What are the adaptations to the cardiovascular system due to regular exercise?
* Increased elasticity of the muscular wall of veins and arteries * Increase in size and strength of the heart (cardiac hypertrophy) * Increase in resting stroke volume
610
What is cardiac hypertrophy?
Increase in size and strength of the heart.
611
What does resting stroke volume refer to?
Amount of blood leaving the heart each beat at rest.
612
Why is it important to refer to 'resting' when discussing adaptations to stroke volume?
Adaptations occur over a long time and must not be confused with immediate effects.
613
What is a benefit of increased elasticity of the muscular wall of veins and arteries?
Drop in resting blood pressure.
614
What are the benefits of a drop in resting blood pressure?
* Good for health as it reduces the chance of coronary heart disease (CHD) * Good for fitness as the heart can contract more forcefully
615
What happens to the heart's efficiency with adaptations from regular exercise?
More blood is ejected from the heart each beat at rest, so the heart does not need to beat as quickly.
616
Fill in the blank: Adequate rest periods are essential to allow these __________ to occur.
[adaptations]
617
True or False: A drop in blood pressure in general is considered a long-term benefit.
False
618
Identify one long-term effect of participation in exercise on the heart.
Increased strength of the heart.
619
Give a potential impact on health of having a stronger heart as a result of regular participation in physical activity.
Reduced chance of coronary heart disease.
620
What are the adaptations to the cardiovascular system due to physical training?
* lower resting heart rate * increased maximum cardiac output during exercise * increased capillarisation * increased number of red blood cells * faster return to resting heart rate ## Footnote 'Resting' refers to the heart's state at rest, while 'maximum' refers to the peak performance during exercise.
621
Why are adaptations to the cardiovascular system beneficial?
* greater training zone * increased oxygen delivery to working muscles * increased ability to carry oxygen to working muscles * increased rate of removal of carbon dioxide * more efficient recovery after exercise ## Footnote Greater training zone allows the heart to beat less often while maintaining blood ejection.
622
What is cardiac output?
The amount of blood leaving the heart per minute ## Footnote Cardiac output can be increased by modifying stroke volume and heart rate.
623
How can you increase cardiac output?
* increase stroke volume * increase heart rate * increase both heart rate and stroke volume ## Footnote HR = heart beats per minute; SV = volume per heart beat.
624
Explain the benefit of an increase in the number of red blood cells to a long-distance runner.
Increased transport of oxygen to the working muscles ## Footnote Long-distance running is an endurance activity that relies on aerobic metabolism.
625
State three effects of regular aerobic exercise on the cardiovascular system.
* lower resting heart rate * increased maximum cardiac output * increased number of red blood cells ## Footnote Regular aerobic exercise improves overall cardiovascular efficiency.
626
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the amount of blood leaving the heart per minute.
cardiac output
627
True or False: An increase in stroke volume allows the heart to beat more often to eject the same amount of blood.
False
628
Fill in the blank: Increased capillarisation refers to the development of a __________ network.
capillary
629
What are the long-term training effects of regular exercise on the respiratory system?
Adaptations such as increased number of alveoli, increased strength of intercostal muscles, increased strength of the diaphragm, increased tidal volume, increased vital capacity, and overall increase in lung volume. ## Footnote These adaptations enhance the efficiency of gas exchange and oxygen transport.
630
What is one benefit of an increased number of alveoli?
More opportunity for gas exchange. ## Footnote Increased alveoli allow for a greater surface area for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
631
What effect does an increase in intercostal muscle strength have?
Improves the movement of the chest during breathing. ## Footnote Stronger intercostal muscles help in expanding the chest cavity more effectively.
632
Define tidal volume.
The amount of air inspired or expired in a normal breath. ## Footnote Tidal volume is a key measure of lung capacity during normal breathing.
633
What is vital capacity?
The maximum amount of air your lungs can expire after the maximum amount that they can inspire. ## Footnote Vital capacity is an important indicator of respiratory health.
634
Fill in the blank: Regular training leads to an overall increase in _______.
lung volume. ## Footnote Increased lung volume allows for more air intake and more efficient oxygen extraction.
635
Which of the following is a long-term effect of participation in exercise on the respiratory system? A) Increase in blood flow to the lungs B) Increase in oxygen debt C) Increase in vital capacity D) Increase in breathing rate
C) Increase in vital capacity. ## Footnote Option A relates to the cardiovascular system, while options B and D are immediate effects of exercise.
636
What is the role of the diaphragm in the respiratory system?
It helps in moving air in and out of the lungs by contracting and relaxing. ## Footnote The diaphragm is a critical muscle for effective breathing.
637
True or False: An increase in total lung capacity is a short-term effect of regular physical activity.
False. ## Footnote An increase in total lung capacity is a long-term adaptation resulting from consistent exercise.
638
What does increased muscle efficiency in the respiratory system lead to?
More effective extraction of oxygen from the air. ## Footnote Increased efficiency allows the body to utilize oxygen better during physical activity.
639
What are the general risks associated with physical activities?
Risks that can result in injury, such as spraining an ankle or pulling a muscle.
640
What are activity-specific risks?
Risks that are unique to a particular activity, such as being hit with a hockey stick in hockey.
641
What is the first step in identifying risks associated with an activity?
Make a list of all the possible things that could happen in an activity.
642
What should you do after identifying risks in an activity?
Decide on a way of reducing each of the risks.
643
How can personal readiness help in injury prevention?
By identifying and reducing risks through various measures.
644
What is a PARQ?
A Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire used to identify potential health risks.
645
What is one way to prevent overuse injuries?
Allow recovery time.
646
What is the benefit of increasing muscle elasticity?
It helps muscles cope with workload and reduces the chance of strain.
647
Why is warming up important before physical activity?
It prepares the body for exercise and helps reduce injury risk.
648
What should you wear to provide adequate protection during physical activities?
Correct clothing and protective equipment, such as shin pads.
649
What is a correct risk reduction measure for preventing a fractured shin?
Wear shin pads to provide padding.
650
Fill in the blank: To reduce the chance of injury, you should _______.
apply the rules of the game correctly when you are playing.
651
Which clothing choice gives the most important reason for injury prevention during physical activity?
C It reduces the chance of injury.
652
Provide an example of risk reduction through personal readiness for a fractured shin.
Wearing shin pads.
653
Provide an example of risk reduction through personal readiness for a soft tissue injury.
Warming up before the activity.
654
What is a crush injury?
A type of injury that occurs when a body part is compressed between two heavy objects or surfaces. ## Footnote Common in contact sports like rugby.
655
What is a dislocated shoulder?
An injury where the upper arm bone pops out of the shoulder socket. ## Footnote Often occurs in sports involving falls or collisions.
656
What is a gash on leg?
A deep cut or wound on the leg. ## Footnote Can result from falls or contact with sharp objects.
657
What are measures to prevent injuries in sports?
Measures include: * Ensuring balanced competition * Checking equipment * Checking facilities * Applying principles of training ## Footnote These measures help mitigate risks associated with sports.
658
How can competition be balanced in sports?
By ensuring: * Same age groups play against each other * Same sex competes against each other * Same level of skill competes against each other * Same weight categories in combat sports ## Footnote Balancing competition helps reduce the risk of injury.
659
True or False: It is safe for 18-year-old boys to play against 12-year-old boys in rugby.
False ## Footnote Younger players may be at risk of injury due to size and strength differences.
660
What is one way to check equipment before a sporting event?
Ensure there is padding around the posts to soften impacts. ## Footnote This helps prevent injuries during collisions.
661
What should be removed from the pitch to avoid cuts?
Obstacles such as broken glass. ## Footnote Keeping the playing area clear reduces injury risks.
662
Fill in the blank: The principle of _______ ensures a gradual increase in training intensity.
progressive overload ## Footnote Helps avoid overuse and muscle injuries.
663
List four ways Lucy may avoid injury.
* Warm-up properly * Use appropriate equipment * Stay hydrated * Rest adequately ## Footnote These strategies help in injury prevention.
664
What is the correct term for a broken bone?
Fracture ## Footnote Fracture is the appropriate medical term for a broken bone.
665
What happens when the force on the bone is stronger than the bone itself?
Fractures occur ## Footnote This describes the basic mechanism of how fractures happen.
666
What are the types of fractures that can occur?
* Compound (open) fractures * Simple (closed) fractures * Stress fractures * Greenstick fractures
667
What is a compound fracture?
A fracture where the broken bone causes the skin to break ## Footnote This type of fracture adds the risk of possible infection.
668
What is a simple fracture?
A fracture where the bone does not break the skin ## Footnote This is also referred to as a closed fracture.
669
What are stress fractures?
Injuries caused through overuse where a small crack forms in the bone ## Footnote These fractures are common in athletes due to repetitive stress.
670
What is a greenstick fracture?
A fracture common in younger children where the bone bends on one side and breaks on the other ## Footnote This type of fracture resembles how a green twig breaks.
671
What are common symptoms of a fracture?
* Misshapen limb * Pain * Swelling * Bruising
672
What is the treatment for fractures?
Bones need to be aligned and immobilized by a doctor ## Footnote This is usually done with a plaster cast or splint until healed.
673
True or False: 'Break' and 'fracture' are different terms.
False ## Footnote They refer to the same condition.
674
Give an example of a fracture that might occur in rugby.
Fracture to the leg when landing awkwardly in a tackle.
675
Give an example of a fracture that might occur in cycling.
Fracture of one of the bones of the wrist, arm, or shoulder from falling off a bike and putting your arm out.
676
Fill in the blank: A _______ fracture is where the bone bends on one side and breaks on the other.
greenstick
677
What is a concussion?
A mild head/brain injury caused by a blow to the head or whiplash.
678
What are common symptoms of concussion?
* confusion * dizziness * unconsciousness * nausea
679
In which types of sports is concussion commonly seen?
* rugby * cycling
680
What is the recommended treatment for concussion?
Seek medical advice and monitor closely for worsening symptoms. Rest.
681
What is a dislocation?
A painful injury where one of the bones at a joint comes out of place.
682
What are common symptoms of a dislocation?
* pain * misshapen joint * swelling
683
What is an example of a common dislocation?
Dislocated shoulder, where the upper arm bone comes away from the shoulder socket.
684
What typically causes dislocations?
A fall or blow to the area.
685
What is the temporary treatment for dislocations?
RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation).
686
Why is it essential to seek medical help for dislocations?
Possible damage to surrounding nerves and tissue.
687
Fill in the blank: A common cause of concussion is a _______.
[blow to the head or whiplash]
688
True or False: Dizziness is a common symptom of dislocation.
False
689
Select two symptoms of a dislocation.
* swelling * misshapen joint
690
What is a common sports-related injury at a joint?
Torn cartilage ## Footnote Torn cartilage often occurs due to forceful twisting or a mistimed tackle.
691
What are the symptoms of torn cartilage?
* pain * swelling * stiffness at the joint restricting movement ## Footnote These symptoms indicate an injury at a joint.
692
What is the treatment for torn cartilage?
Rest and strengthening exercises ## Footnote These treatments help in healing and restoring joint function.
693
What is a sprain?
An injury at a joint where some of the fibers of the ligament are torn ## Footnote Sprains are common in sports and can occur due to overstretching or forceful twisting.
694
What are the symptoms of a sprain?
* pain * bruising * swelling ## Footnote Symptoms help in diagnosing the severity of the sprain.
695
What does RICE stand for in treating sprains?
* Rest * Ice * Compression * Elevation ## Footnote RICE is a common first aid treatment for sprains.
696
What type of injury occurs when the joint goes through a greater range of movement than normal?
A sprain ## Footnote This can lead to tearing of the ligament fibers.
697
What is a common cause of sprains in sports like netball?
A sudden change of direction to dodge an opponent ## Footnote This action can overstretch or twist the joint.
698
What are soft tissue injuries?
* Strain * Tennis elbow * Golfer's elbow * Abrasions ## Footnote These injuries affect the tissues surrounding the joints.
699
What are abrasions?
Minor injuries to the skin such as a graze or a cut ## Footnote Abrasions can happen in any activity due to a knock or fall.
700
What is the treatment for abrasions?
Clean and cover with a sterile dressing; apply pressure to stop blood flow ## Footnote Proper treatment prevents infection and promotes healing.
701
Fill in the blank: You can ______ a muscle or you can sprain a joint.
strain ## Footnote Understanding the difference is crucial for injury management.
702
What type of injury is a twisted ankle?
D Sprain ## Footnote Twisted ankles commonly result in sprains.
703
What is Golfer's elbow?
A joint injury where the tendons are inflamed, causing pain on the inside of the elbow.
704
What is Tennis elbow?
A joint injury where the tendons are inflamed, causing pain on the outside of the elbow.
705
What are common causes of Golfer's elbow?
Poor technique or overuse in activities such as golf or badminton.
706
What are common causes of Tennis elbow?
Poor technique or overuse, particularly from repetitive use when playing a backhand in tennis.
707
What is the importance of rest and recovery in training?
Rest is crucial to allow recovery and prevent injuries to the muscular-skeletal system.
708
What is a strain?
A stretch or tear in the muscle, sometimes known as a pulled muscle.
709
What are the symptoms of strains?
* Swelling * Pain * Bruising
710
What does RICE stand for in injury treatment?
* Rest * Ice * Compression * Elevation
711
What is the golden rule to reduce the chance of strains occurring?
Completing a warm-up.
712
What is the recommended action for applying ice to an injury?
Do not apply directly to the skin and do not leave for too long.
713
What is the role of compression in RICE treatment?
To help reduce swelling and provide support.
714
How should the affected area be positioned during RICE treatment?
Keep it elevated to help reduce swelling.
715
What are performance-enhancing drugs (PEDs)?
Substances that improve performance artificially and are banned due to dangerous side effects.
716
Who is responsible for testing for PEDs?
The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
717
What are anabolic steroids?
A type of PED that has a chemical structure similar to testosterone.
718
Why do athletes take anabolic steroids?
* To allow harder, longer training * To speed up recovery time * To increase protein synthesis * To increase chances of winning * Due to pressure from others
719
What are some health risks associated with taking anabolic steroids?
* Liver damage and coronary heart disease (CHD) * Testicular atrophy leading to decreased sperm count (infertility) * Skin problems including acne * Mood swings including increased aggression * Premature baldness
720
Which type of athlete is most likely to use anabolic steroids?
Sprinters, as they require more power.
721
True or False: Using performance-enhancing drugs in competition is considered cheating.
True.
722
Fill in the blank: Anabolic steroids can help to _______ recovery time.
[speed up]
723
Fill in the blank: RICE is a common treatment for _______ injuries.
[joint]
724
What are beta blockers designed to treat?
Various health issues, particularly those associated with the heart such as high blood pressure.
725
How do beta blockers affect the heart rate?
They block the effects of adrenaline, helping to slow down the heart rate.
726
What calming effect do beta blockers have on performers?
They reduce the performer's anxiety.
727
List three reasons performers might take beta blockers.
* Reduce muscle tremor or shaking * Allow the performer to remain in control * Increase the chances of winning
728
What are reported side effects of beta blockers?
* Slowing heart rate * Lowering of blood pressure * Sleep disturbance leading to tiredness
729
Why might it be hard to detect beta blockers in drug testing?
They work with chemicals that occur naturally within the body and are quickly absorbed.
730
In which activities could the use of beta blockers provide an advantage?
* Archery * Gymnastics * Target shooting * Diving
731
True or False: Diuretics are banned because they enhance performance directly.
False.
732
What do diuretics do to the body's fluid levels?
They increase the rate of urination, increasing the amount of fluid the body loses.
733
List two reasons performers might take diuretics.
* To achieve quick weight loss * To mask or hide other performance-enhancing substances
734
What are some reported side effects of diuretics?
* Dehydration * Nausea * Headaches * Heart/kidney failure
735
Who might use diuretics?
* Boxers * Jockeys
736
Fill in the blank: If you are asked about the side effects of drugs, don't refer to '_______' as they are too vague.
heart problems or kidney problems
737
What is a common use of diuretics in sports?
To achieve quick (but temporary) weight loss.
738
Which category of drugs is used to hide the presence of other performance-enhancing drugs?
Diuretics.
739
What are narcotic analgesics designed to do?
Relieve pain temporarily ## Footnote They act on the brain and spinal cord to dampen the effect of painful stimuli.
740
How do narcotic analgesics affect a performer's pain threshold?
They increase the performer's pain threshold.
741
What sense do narcotic analgesics provide to the performer?
A sense of euphoria.
742
List reasons why performers might take narcotic analgesics.
* Mask injuries to continue competing * Provide a sense of being invincible.
743
What are some health risks associated with narcotic analgesics?
* Nausea/vomiting * Anxiety/depression * Kidney/liver damage * Addiction * Concentration loss * Further damage to injury.
744
In which activities might performers be tempted to use narcotic analgesics?
* Sprinting * Boxing * Football * Swimming.
745
When might a performer be tempted to take narcotic analgesics?
When they have an injury but need to continue to train.
746
What category of drug would a performer take to mask or hide pain?
Narcotic analgesics.
747
What are peptide hormones?
A type of performance-enhancing drug (PED) found naturally in the human body.
748
Name two peptide hormones that performers might use.
* Erythropoietin (EPO) * Human growth hormones (HGH).
749
What does erythropoietin (EPO) do?
Helps increase red blood cell production.
750
How does EPO benefit athletic performance?
Increases oxygen delivery to working muscles.
751
What benefits does human growth hormone (HGH) provide?
* Increases muscle mass * Increases strength * Burns more fat.
752
List health risks associated with erythropoietin (EPO).
* Increased thickness of the blood * Blood clots/strokes * Heart failure * Increased risk of heart attack.
753
List health risks associated with human growth hormones (HGH).
* Arthritis * Abnormal growth in feet and hands * Diabetes.
754
In what types of activities would EPO be beneficial?
* Rugby * Distance running * Distance cycling.
755
In what types of activities would HGH be beneficial?
* Weight lifting * Sprinting.
756
Explain how erythropoietin (EPO) aids performance in long-distance runners.
Increases red blood cell production, enhancing oxygen delivery.
757
What are stimulants?
A category of drugs that temporarily elevate mood and increase brain activity.
758
What is the effect of stimulants on sporting performance?
They increase alertness, aggression, reduce tiredness, increase heart rate, and enhance competitiveness.
759
What constitutes the use of performance-enhancing drugs?
Taking stimulants in large enough quantities.
760
List the reported side effects of stimulants.
* Insomnia * Aggression * Anxiety * Heart rate irregularities
761
What common everyday products contain stimulants?
Products that contain caffeine, such as coffee and many soft drinks.
762
What are amphetamines?
One of the most common stimulants that are used illegally.
763
In which sports might an increase in aggression from stimulants be beneficial?
* Rugby * Boxing * Ice hockey
764
What types of activities might require a performer to stay alert over a long period?
* Long-distance cycling * Baseball
765
True or False: Blood doping is a type of performance-enhancing drug.
False
766
What is blood doping?
A process where performers have additional blood added to their bloodstream.
767
What is the primary reason performers engage in blood doping?
To increase the number of red blood cells and oxygen-carrying capacity.
768
List the health risks associated with blood doping.
* Infection from equipment * Increased blood viscosity * Deep vein thrombosis * Stroke * Diseases from body fluids (e.g., HIV, hepatitis)
769
How can blood doping be performed using the performer's own blood?
Blood is removed, stored, the body replaces it, and then the stored blood is injected back before an event.
770
What is another method of blood doping?
Using the blood of someone with the same blood type via a blood transfusion.
771
Who might benefit from blood doping?
* Long-distance cyclists * Long-distance runners * Games players in prolonged activities
772
Fill in the blank: Blood doping can benefit _______ athletes.
endurance
773
What type of activity are performers likely to compete in if they engage in blood doping?
Endurance events such as long-distance running.
774
Explain why blood doping might lead to infection.
The use of equipment for blood removal and transfusion can introduce pathogens.
775
What are the three phases of a warm up?
1. Pulse raiser 2. Stretching 3. More intense exercise/drill related to the main session ## Footnote These phases help prepare the body physically and mentally for exercise.
776
What is the purpose of a warm up?
To prepare the body physically and mentally for exercise and to prevent injury. ## Footnote A warm up increases oxygen delivery, raises heart rate, and improves flexibility.
777
Fill in the blank: A good warm up should take a minimum of _______ minutes.
10 minutes
778
What does the pulse raiser phase of a warm up do?
Raises heart rate and speeds up oxygen delivery. ## Footnote For example, jogging can be an effective pulse raiser.
779
What is the significance of stretching during a warm up?
Increases elasticity and range of movement of muscles and soft tissues. ## Footnote Stretching helps prepare the muscles you are about to use.
780
What type of activities should be included in the more intense exercise phase of a warm up?
Drills related to the main session, such as dribbling for basketball. ## Footnote These activities help rehearse skills and prepare the muscles.
781
What is the main purpose of a cool down?
To return the body to its resting levels gradually. ## Footnote This helps prevent problems from suddenly stopping exercise.
782
What are the two stages of a cool down?
1. Light exercise 2. Stretching ## Footnote Light exercise helps lower intensity, while stretching aids flexibility.
783
True or False: A cool down is designed to prevent injury.
False
784
What are some benefits of a cool down?
* Aids removal of lactic acid * Aids removal of carbon dioxide and waste products * Helps bring heart rate and breathing rate back to resting levels * Helps avoid dizziness from blood pooling * Improves flexibility ## Footnote These benefits contribute to a smoother transition post-exercise.
785
Fill in the blank: Effective cool downs can reduce muscle _______ and increase muscle _______.
soreness, flexibility
786
What should you do after completing physical activity?
Always complete a cool down. ## Footnote This is crucial for recovery and to avoid sudden cessation of exercise.
787
What is the first stage of the cardiac cycle?
Atrial diastole ## Footnote This stage involves the relaxation of the atria, allowing blood to flow from the veins into the atria.
788
What is the second stage of the cardiac cycle?
Ventricular diastole ## Footnote During this stage, the ventricles relax and fill with blood from the atria.
789
What is the third stage of the cardiac cycle?
Atrial systole ## Footnote This stage involves the contraction of the atria, pushing blood into the ventricles.
790
What is the fourth stage of the cardiac cycle?
Ventricular systole ## Footnote In this stage, the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart.
791
What is aerobic exercise?
Aerobic exercise is when the body has enough oxygen to meet the energy demand. ## Footnote Examples include running, swimming, and cycling.
792
What is the chemical equation for aerobic exercise?
Glucose + O2 → CO2 + H2O (releasing energy) ## Footnote This process is known as cellular respiration.
793
What is anaerobic exercise?
Anaerobic exercise is when the body does not have oxygen to meet the energy demand. ## Footnote Examples include sprinting and heavy weight lifting.
794
What is the chemical process for anaerobic exercise?
Glucose → lactic acid (releasing some energy) ## Footnote This process is less efficient than aerobic respiration.
795
What is the lever classification for elbow extension?
1 ## Footnote Elbow extension is classified as a first-class lever.
796
What is the lever classification for plantar flexion?
2 ## Footnote Plantar flexion is classified as a second-class lever.
797
What is the lever classification for all other movements?
3 ## Footnote All other movements are classified as third-class levers.
798
Fill in the blank: Elbow extension is classified as a _______.
first-class lever
799
Fill in the blank: Plantar flexion is classified as a _______.
second-class lever
800
Fill in the blank: Everything else besides elbow extension and plantar flexion is classified as a _______.
third-class lever
801
Why do we do fitness tests?
To design training programmes, evaluate strengths and weaknesses, set goals as a result of test scores, and prevent tedium.
802
What does the acronym T.E.S.T. in fitness testing stand for?
* T - training programmes can be designed * E - evaluate strengths and weaknesses * S - set goals as a result of test scores * T - tedium prevention
803
What is a limitation of fitness testing related to specificity?
Fitness tests are general, not sport specific.
804
How does fitness testing affect the competitive environment of sport?
Fitness testing erases the competitive environment of sport.
805
What is a limitation of fitness testing regarding movement?
Replication of movements doesn't occur in fitness testing.
806
What type of motivation is needed for fitness tests?
Motivation is needed as they are maximal tests.

PE (3 decks)

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