Paper 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the relationship between a peril and a hazard?

A. A peril gives rise to a loss and a hazard influences the operation of the peril.
B. A peril is an insured loss and a hazard is an uninsured loss.
C. A peril is the end cause of a loss and a hazard is the proximate cause of a loss.
D. A peril is the physical nature of a risk and a hazard is the moral nature of a risk

A

A peril gives rise to a loss and a hazard influences the operation of the peril

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2
Q

A material circumstance is best described as a circumstance that
A. has no bearing on physical hazard.
B. has no bearing on moral hazard.
C. may influence an underwriting decision.
D. must be on the Association of British Insurers’ approved list

A

C. may influence an underwriting decision

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3
Q

An insurer may occasionally delegate underwriting in order to
A. speed up the process and reduce administrative costs.
B. reduce the risk of non-disclosure.
C. comply with the requirements of the Association of British Insurers.
D. ensure that only good quality risks are accepted

A

A. speed up the process and reduce administrative costs

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4
Q

At the renewal of an insurance policy, policyholders are always obliged under common law to
A. renew the policy with the same insurer.
B. increase the sum insured in line with inflation.
C. disclose any changes to material circumstances.
D. complete a new proposal form

A

C. disclose any changes to material circumstances

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5
Q
In relation to fire insurance and the consideration of hazard, metal fire doors and fire resistant walls 
are considered to be
A. good moral hazards.
B. good physical hazards.
C. poor moral hazards.
D. poor physical hazards
A

B. good physical hazards

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6
Q

During the period that a quotation was valid, the proposer accepted the quoted terms in writing. In
what circumstances, if any, is the insurer legally permitted to withdraw these terms?
A. Only if the basis of the risk has changed.
B. Only if the insurer decided to withdraw from this section of the market.
C. Only if this type of cover is widely available in the marketplace.
D. In no circumstances

A

A. Only if the basis of the risk has changed.

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7
Q

When the annual premium for a motor insurance policy is payable by instalments using direct debit,
what payment frequency is most likely to be involved?
A. Weekly.
B. Monthly.
C. Quarterly.
D. Half-yearly

A

B. Monthly.

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8
Q

In a proposal form, risk specific questions are those
A. that are common to most general insurance risks.
B. that pertain to the particular details of a proposed risk.
C. that relate to matters evaluating whether information is material or not.
D. where the proposer warrants the answer to be correct

A

B. that pertain to the particular details of a proposed risk.

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9
Q

What is the main consequence of an insurer offering a high standard sum insured under a
household contents insurance policy?
A. It reduces the possibility of underinsurance.
B. It increases reliance on the average clause.
C. It reduces the number of claims that are handled.
D. It increases the incidence of subrogation

A

A. It reduces the possibility of underinsurance.

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10
Q
What is the usual premium base for an employers’ liability policy?
A. The limit of indemnity.
B. The sum insured.
C. The turnover.
D. The wage roll.
A

D. The wage roll.

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11
Q
What is the most common basis of premium calculation for public liability insurance and products 
liability insurance?
A. Business value.
B. Limit of indemnity.
C. Profit.
D. Turnover.
A

D. Turnover.

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12
Q

Michael has a household contents policy and makes a claim early in the period of insurance. Why is
it NOT necessary that he has received a copy of the policy to make a claim?
A. Consumer Insurance (Disclosure & Representations) Act 2012 specifies that it is not necessary.
B. A cover note would have been issued.
C. The policy is only evidence of the contract, not the contract itself.
D. This is not a requirement with compulsory insurances

A

C. The policy is only evidence of the contract, not the contract itself.

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13
Q

When a premium is paid by monthly direct debit why is an additional charge usually levied by the
insurer?
A. To cover the loss of interest.
B. To cover the risk of non-payment.
C. The Consumer Credit Act 1974 requires it.
D. The Insurance Act 2015 requires it

A

A. To cover the loss of interest.

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14
Q
A valid employers’ liability insurance certificate must contain the insured’s
A. address.
B. name.
C. number of employees.
D. occupation
A

B. name.

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15
Q
For a contract of insurance to be valid the premium must
A. be quoted.
B. be paid or agreed to be paid.
C. be shown on the certificate.
D. include Insurance Premium Tax
A

B. be paid or agreed to be paid.

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16
Q
Who pays Insurance Premium Tax?
A. Both the insurer and the insured.
B. The insured only.
C. The insured’s intermediary.
D. The insurer only.
A

B. The insured only.

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17
Q
What is the current rate of Insurance Premium Tax, if any, for the majority of insurance policies?
A. Nil.
B. 6%
C. 12%
D. 20%
A

C. 12%

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18
Q
In a proposal form, what type of questions would a proposer’s name, address and occupation be 
classified as?
A. Express.
B. General.
C. Objective.
D. Specific
A

B. General.

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19
Q

Which Act regulates the payment of insurance premiums by instalments?
A. The Consumer Credit Act 1974.
B. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
C. The Sale and Supply of Goods to Consumers Regulations 2002.
D. The Sale of Goods Act 1979

A

A. The Consumer Credit Act 1974.

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20
Q

Chris is completing a proposal form and has been advised that he is legally obliged to declare all
material circumstances. If he is unsure whether information is material or not, he should
A. disclose it fully.
B. not disclose it.
C. only disclose it if it is specifically addressed by one of the questions.
D. only disclose it if it relates to a criminal offence

A

A. disclose it fully.

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21
Q

What can an insurer of frozen food apply to exclude a loss arising from a short failure of the
electricity supply lasting 30 minutes or less, but which will cover the whole loss if the supply failure
exceeds 30 minutes?
A. An aggregate.
B. A deductible.
C. An excess.
D. A franchise

A

D. A franchise

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22
Q
Which component of a policy is personal and specific to an insured?
A. The operative clause.
B. The policy conditions.
C. The policy schedule.
D. The recital clause
A

C. The policy schedule.

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23
Q

The main purpose of the recital clause in a household insurance policy is to
A. list all of the general exclusions of the contract.
B. make the proposal form the basis of the contract.
C. show the details of cover provided by the contract.
D. state the renewal date of the contract

A

B. make the proposal form the basis of the contract.

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24
Q
Conditions that are covered by common law and therefore do NOT need to appear in an insurance 
policy are known as
A. express conditions.
B. general conditions.
C. implied conditions.
D. legal conditions
A

C. implied conditions.

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25
Q

An exclusion in an insurer’s household insurance policy is deemed a general exclusion, but NOT a
market exclusion. This means the exclusion
A. applies to a particular section of the policy, but does not apply across the entire policy.
B. applies to all sections of the policy, but has not generally been adopted by other insurers.
C. relates to a pure risk rather than to a speculative risk.
D. operates under case law precedent rather than under the provision of statute

A

B. applies to all sections of the policy, but has not generally been adopted by other insurers.

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26
Q

An insurer is advised that a break-in has occurred but the insured has failed to report the incident
to the police. What part of the insurance policy has been breached?
A. The conditions.
B. The exclusions.
C. The preamble.
D. The schedule.

A

A. The conditions.

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27
Q

An insured property suffers extensive water damage. A claims handler notes that the insured has
NOT complied with the minimum security requirement. What action would be taken?
A. The claim would be paid but the policy would be cancelled.
B. The claim would be avoided and the policy would be cancelled.
C. The claim would be paid and the policy would remain in force.
D. The claim would be avoided but the policy would remain in force.

A

would be cancelled.

C. The claim would be paid and the policy would remain in force.

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28
Q
In which section of an insurance policy does an insurer provide details of the different sums insured 
under the policy?
A. The heading.
B. The operative clause.
C. The policy schedule.
D. The preamble
A

C. The policy schedule.

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29
Q
The amount of any claim which is the responsibility of the insured and which the insurer will deduct 
from any claim payment is known as
A. a condition.
B. an excess.
C. a franchise.
D. a warranty
A

B. an excess.

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30
Q
What is the usual length of the notice period, if any, under a standard cancellation clause of a 
household policy?
A. There is no notice period.
B. 7 days.
C. 14 days.
D. 28 days
A

B. 7 days.

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31
Q

Alicia has a household insurance policy that is renewable on 1 July with 15 days of grace. If Alicia
paid the renewal premium on 9 July, from which date would the cover apply?
A. 1 July.
B. 9 July.
C. 16 July.
D. 24 July

A

A. 1 July.

32
Q

A customer’s buildings insurance policy is due for renewal in three months’ time. In what
circumstances, if any, is the existing insurer legally required to offer renewal terms?
A. In no circumstances.
B. Only if there is an associated mortgage.
C. Only if the insurer is a member of the Association of British Insurers.
D. In all circumstances

A

A. In no circumstances.

33
Q

Which regulation requires insurers to cancel add-on policies at the same time, if the main policy is
cancelled mid-term?
A. The Consumer Credit Act 1974.
B. The Consumer Rights Act 2015.
C. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).
D. The Insurance Act 2015

A

B. The Consumer Rights Act 2015.

34
Q

What limit, if any, is usually placed on the number of claims that can be made under a motor
insurance policy in any one policy year?
A. A limit that is always agreed at the start of the policy year.
B. A limit that is renegotiated at renewal depending on previous claims experience.
C. There is no limit on the number of claims that can be made.
D. A limit which can vary according to the age of the insured

A

C. There is no limit on the number of claims that can be made.

35
Q

Under a standard travel insurance policy, what is the minimum level of cover usually provided for
medical treatment and expenses incurred whilst abroad?
A. £50,000
B. £100,000
C. £250,000
D. £1,000,000

A

D. £1,000,000

36
Q

Which type of insurance policy would cover an insured for the cost of repairs following an electrical
defect in a television?
A. A commercial all risks insurance policy.
B. A personal all risks insurance policy.
C. An extended warranty insurance policy.
D. A products liability insurance policy.

A

C. An extended warranty insurance policy.

37
Q

What is the implication of writing professional indemnity insurance on a claims made basis?
A. More than one claim is needed for the policy to be effective.
B. New claims must always be submitted to the current insurer.
C. Previous claims are the sole underwriting criteria.
D. New claims must always be submitted to the previous insurer

A

B. New claims must always be submitted to the current insurer.

38
Q

Cover for theft under a commercial insurance policy is usually subject to
A. forcible and violent entry only to a secured building.
B. forcible and violent entry to or exit from a secured building.
C. theft notwithstanding forcible and violent entry to or exit from a secured building.
D. forcible and violent exit only from a secured building

A

B. forcible and violent entry to or exit from a secured building.

39
Q

What does products liability insurance principally cover?
A. The cost of recalling defective goods.
B. Claims made against the insured as a result of defective goods.
C. Claims made against the insured by employees for injuries received whilst at work.
D. Financial damages incurred as a result of incorrect professional advice

A

B. Claims made against the insured as a result of defective goods.

40
Q

The main advantage to a motor insurer of operating an authorised repairer scheme is that it
A. can charge an additional premium for the scheme.
B. can reduce the liability of any third party who may have caused damage.
C. can refuse to release a vehicle until any excess has been paid.
D. will have more control over the costs incurred

A

D. will have more control over the costs incurred

41
Q
For which class of insurance is an underwriter most likely to request a risk survey?
A. Commercial insurance.
B. Household buildings insurance.
C. Motor insurance.
D. Medical expenses insurance
A

A. Commercial insurance.

42
Q
If an insurer wishes to check the claims history of an individual proposing motor insurance, it would 
refer to the
A. Claims and Underwriting Exchange.
B. Financial Conduct Authority.
C. Motor Insurers’ Bureau.
D. Motor Insurers Database
A

A. Claims and Underwriting Exchange.

43
Q

Which factor is usually the most important when an underwriter is determining whether he will
accept a proposal for professional indemnity insurance?
A. The location of the practice.
B. The claims history of the practice.
C. The fees charged by the practice.
D. The number of directors.

A

B. The claims history of the practice.

44
Q

When an insurer is considering an income protection insurance proposal, it will usually place the
applicant into a particular premium rating class based on his
A. age.
B. level of earnings.
C. lifestyle.
D. occupation

A

D. occupation

45
Q

An 18-year-old individual is applying for motor insurance. In relation to which type(s) of policy
cover is his age likely to influence the premium rating?
A. Third party cover only.
B. Third party, fire and theft cover only.
C. Comprehensive cover only.
D. All types of cover

A

D. All types of cover

46
Q
The buildings sum insured for a fire insurance policy should ideally be linked to the
A. purchase price only.
B. purchase price plus inflation.
C. rebuilding costs.
D. current market value
A

C. rebuilding costs.

47
Q

For which class of insurance is it an underwriting requirement to know the length of the indemnity
period and the potential loss of revenue?
A. Business interruption insurance.
B. Products liability insurance.
C. Public liability insurance.
D. Theft insurance

A

A. Business interruption insurance.

48
Q
What is the main criteria for underwriting extended warranty insurance for domestic electrical 
appliances?
A. Age of insured appliance.
B. Country of manufacture.
C. Postal code of insured.
D. Type and value of appliance
A

D. Type and value of appliance

49
Q
What method of settlement does an insurer typically use to deter fraudulent household goods 
claims?
A. Agreed value.
B. Cash reimbursement.
C. First loss.
D. Replacement
A

D. requested cover extends beyond EU limits

50
Q

Under the Disability Discrimination Act 1995, an insurer is permitted to decline a travel insurance
application due to the proposer’s disability, but only if the
A. proposer is over State Pension age.
B. proposer is travelling alone.
C. decision is supported by appropriate risk-related data.
D. requested cover extends beyond EU limits

A

C. decision is supported by appropriate risk-related data.

51
Q

For what reason will an insurance company appoint a data controller?
A. To enable the insurance company to use the various registers of claims.
B. To monitor the amount of data input by each employee.
C. To oversee the information technology department.
D. To satisfy the requirements of data protection legislation.

A

D. To satisfy the requirements of data protection legislation.

52
Q

A firm of solicitors is applying for professional indemnity insurance. When rating the risk, what
information is the underwriter most likely to find useful?
A. The age of the senior partner.
B. The location of the office.
C. The number of support staff.
D. The fees earned by the practice

A

D. The fees earned by the practice

53
Q
An insurer will usually make an insurance policy void without refunding the premium if the 
policyholder
A. arranges identical cover elsewhere.
B. loses insurable interest.
C. submits a fraudulent claim.
D. receives a criminal conviction
A

C. submits a fraudulent claim.

54
Q

What main source of information is used by motor insurers to discourage fraudulent claims?
A. The Claims and Underwriting Exchange.
B. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA).
C. The Motor Insurance Repair Research Centre.
D. The Motor Insurers’ Bureau

A

A. The Claims and Underwriting Exchange.

55
Q

What factor would contribute to two different companies with identical wage rolls paying
significantly different premiums for employers’ liability insurance?
A. The geographical location.
B. Any no claims discounts.
C. The number of directors.
D. The type of business

A

D. The type of business

56
Q

An insurance policy shows a gross premium of £1,000, settled claims of £300 and outstanding
claims of £200. What is the incurred loss ratio?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 33%
D. 50%

A

D. 50%

57
Q
. Regarding a risk profile that is high frequency and low severity, an insurer will expect
A. many high value claims.
B. many small value claims.
C. only a few high value claims.
D. only a few small value claims
A

B. many small value claims.

58
Q

Claims data for a particular insurance policy is being grouped according to the date of loss, with
losses occurring in 2017 grouped separately from those occurring in 2016. What main type of
monitoring period is most likely to be in operation?
A. Accounting year.
B. Calendar year.
C. Policy year.
D. Underwriting year

A

B. Calendar year.

59
Q

Operational data is mainly used by insurers to monitor the
A. organisation’s overall business performance.
B. success of different departments within the organisation.
C. effectiveness of general procedures and practices.
D. control of the insurance risk

A

C. effectiveness of general procedures and practices.

60
Q

What is the main source of data that will determine the rate for an insurer’s private car portfolio?
A. Its own past claims history across similar risks.
B. Competitors’ terms, rates and excesses.
C. Driver and Vehicle Licensing Authority (DVLA) statistical information.
D. Motor Insurers’ Bureau claims experience

A

A. Its own past claims history across similar risks.

61
Q

Why is the accurate analysis of an insurer’s past claims so important?
A. It is essential for the profitability of the underwriting account.
B. It provides an analysis of the efficiency of claims service levels.
C. It provides indications of excessive risk accumulation.
D. The claims history guides coinsurance considerations

A

A. It is essential for the profitability of the underwriting account.

62
Q
What main factor influences the risk premium element of a set of insurance premium rates?
A. Claims costs.
B. Taxation liabilities.
C. Administrative expenses.
D. Investment return
A

A. Claims costs.

63
Q

How are claims allocated when monitored on a calendar year basis?
A. Proportionately depending on the time of year.
B. They are based on the date of loss.
C. They are based on unearned premium income.
D. To the next full year starting 1 January

A

B. They are based on the date of loss.

64
Q
In terms of the frequency and severity of risk, an accident involving an aircraft carrier would be 
classified as
A. high frequency, high severity.
B. high frequency, low severity.
C. low frequency, high severity.
D. low frequency, low severity
A

C. low frequency, high severity.

65
Q

Actual loss ratios relate to values that
A. have been adjusted for inflation.
B. have not had any adjustments factored in.
C. measure average losses over a given period.
D. take into account reinsurance costs

A

B. have not had any adjustments factored in.

66
Q
The ultimate cost in claims of a risk being accepted is defined as a
A. loss ratio.
B. material fact.
C. reinsurance.
D. risk premium
A

D. risk premium

67
Q
An insurer transacting which class of insurance will need to account for Insurance Premium Tax at 
the rate of 20%?
A. Health insurance.
B. Motor insurance.
C. Personal travel insurance.
D. Extended warranty insurance
A

C. Personal travel insurance.

68
Q

Which organisation makes a charge to insurers to pay the claims from victims of uninsured drivers?
A. The Claims and Underwriting Exchange.
B. The Financial Conduct Authority.
C. The Financial Services Compensation Scheme.
D. The Motor Insurers’ Bureau

A

D. The Motor Insurers’ Bureau

69
Q
In relation to the premium, costs that alter depending on the nature of each risk are known as
A. calculated expenses.
B. fluctuating expenses.
C. proportioned expenses.
D. variable expenses.
A

D. variable expenses.

70
Q
Which key method is used by an insurer to protect itself against loss exposures arising from a single 
event?
A. Premium reviews.
B. Policy endorsements.
C. Reinsurance cover.
D. External risk surveillance
A

C. Reinsurance cover.

71
Q
A reduction in the availability of a particular type of insurance cover will generally cause
A. a fall in premiums.
B. an increase in premiums.
C. a limit on reinsurance options.
D. a reduction in the insurer’s profits
A

B. an increase in premiums.

72
Q

The underwriting cycle refers to the
A. administration process from proposal to policy issue.
B. training of underwriters to assess higher risks.
C. movement of underwriters between different roles in the company.
D. changes in market capacity and its bearing on underwriting acceptance criteria

A

D. changes in market capacity and its bearing on underwriting acceptance criteria

73
Q
When assessing the maximum exposure for any one risk relating to fire damage, a surveyor will 
calculate the
A. estimated maximum loss.
B. estimated minimum loss.
C. expected maximum loss.
D. expected minimum loss
A

A. estimated maximum loss.

74
Q

XYZ Insurance Ltd wants to protect its fire insurance account against the impact of large one-off
losses. What form of reinsurance should it purchase?
A. Excess of loss.
B. Loss ratio coverage.
C. Quota share.
D. Stop loss

A

A. Excess of loss.

75
Q

An insurer wishing to accept a risk which exceeds its normal underwriting limits is most likely to
A. exclude cover for catastrophic risks.
B. insist on a large excess.
C. make use of a reinsurance facility.
D. place special conditions on the policy

A

C. make use of a reinsurance facility.