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PANCE questions Flashcards

1
Q

Skin, SVR, and CO in early septic shock

A

Increase CO with warm, flushed skin

Decreased SVR

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2
Q

Gram + cocci in pairs

A

Strep pneumonia

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3
Q

Gram - oxidase + S shaped rod

A

Campylobacter

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4
Q

Initiating event for pregnancy induced hypertension

A

Placental ischemia

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5
Q

One risk factor for developing hydatiform moles

A

Nutritional deficiency

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6
Q

Meigs Syndrome

A
  • Benign ovarian tumors (fibromas)
  • Ascites
  • Pleural effusion
  • Young women
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7
Q

U/L sharply marginated red scaly rash on breast with vesicles

A

Paget’s Disease

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8
Q

Which vitamin can be associated with molar pregnancy?

A

Vitamin A (Retinol)

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9
Q

3 main things with Kleinfelter Syndrome

A
  • Gynecomastia
  • Testicular atrophy
  • Infertility
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10
Q

Aspergillis

A
  • Thick brown sputum
  • Eosinophilia
  • Increase IgE
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11
Q

Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesion

A
  • Patients with diabetic nephropathy

- Biopsy shows nodules of pink hyaline material

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12
Q

G + non-spore forming rod

A

Listeria

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13
Q

Increase risk of listeria in…how do you contract it?

A
  • Increase risk in newborns, elderly, immunocompromised

- No lunch meat in pregnant patients

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14
Q

Nummular eczema

A
  • Pruritic

- Coin-shaped lesions seen on dorm of hands, feet, extensor surfaces

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15
Q

Is TCAs anticholinergic or cholinergic?

A

They have anticholinergic properties

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16
Q

CXR shows rib notching and “3” sign

A

Coarctation of aorta

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17
Q

Residual volume, FVC, and FEV1 in patients with emphysema

A
  • Increase in residual volume (increase lung volume)

- FVC and FEV1 decreased

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18
Q

Pericardial knock

A

Constrictive pericarditis

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19
Q

Difference between constrictive pericarditis and restrictive CM (like amyloidosis)

A
  • Both have diastolic dysfunction
  • RCM will have myocardial dysfunction
  • Constrictive pericarditis will have thickened pericardium
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20
Q

Speckled myocardium seen with

A

Amyloidosis

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21
Q

Sail sign or post fat pad sign in adults indicates

A

Radial head fracture

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22
Q

Intertrigo

A

Candida infection; “beefy red”

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23
Q

Minimal Change Disease

A
  • Causes Nephrotic syndrome in children
  • Maltese cross
  • Prednisone DOC to treat
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24
Q

Pupils in cholinergic toxicity

A

Constricted (SLUDD-C)

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25
Q

Is atropine anticholinergic or cholinergic?

A

Anticholinergic

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26
Q

Is Erlichiosis gram - or +?

A

Gram - that destroys RBCs

Morulae

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27
Q

Tetrad inclusions seen within RBCs

A

Babesiosis

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28
Q

“Butterfly” appearance on CT in cerebral hemisphere

A

Glioblastoma

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29
Q

Tumor that occurs in convexities of hemispheres and attach to dura

A

Meningiomas

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30
Q

Hemangiomas

A

Retinal involvement + Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome

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31
Q

Hantavirus

A

Rodents are vectors; prodromal febrile phase with myalgias

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32
Q

Bipolar II

A

MDD + hypomania

Not significant impaired social function

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33
Q

Treatment of choice in unstable patient with presumptive ectopic pregnancy

A

Laparotomy

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34
Q

Hemophilia A treatment (2)

A
  • Factor VIII

- Cryoprecipitate

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35
Q

Two treatments for NMS

A

Dantrolene and Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

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36
Q

CXR for hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Diffuse nodular densities

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37
Q

Test of choice for diagnosis of infant hearing loss

A

Auditory evoked potentials

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38
Q

What do fibroblasts produce

A

Collagen

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39
Q

Kidney disorder associated with URI

A

IgA nephropathy

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40
Q

MC location for osteomyelitis in children and adults

A 
Children = long bones
Adults = spine
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41
Q

If albumin levels are low, which lab value should you check next?

A

Calcium, since approximately 50% of Ca is protein bound

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42
Q

Kussmaul’s sign, what is it caused by

A
  • An increase in CVP during inspiration
  • Caused by severe R sided HF
  • Frequent finding in patients with constrictive pericarditis or RV infarction
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43
Q

What does methotrexate inhibit

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

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44
Q

When should strabismus be gone in infants?

A

By 6 months of age

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45
Q

PE finding for emphysema (tactile fremitus, percussion)

A
  • Distant heart sounds
  • Decreased tactile fremitus
  • Hyperresonant to percussion
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46
Q

What med can decrease effectiveness of OCPs

A

Rifampin

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47
Q

Mechanism for meniscus tear

A

Axial loading and rotation

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48
Q

Most sensitive test to detect rhabdomyolysis

A

Serum creatinine kinase

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49
Q

What is rhabdo a complication of?

A

Serious complication of seizures and hyperthermia related to drug abuse

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50
Q

Increase cold agglutinin test

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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51
Q

Small grayish vesicles and punched out ulcers on posterior pharynx

A

Coxsackie

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52
Q

What drug can be used to prevent migraine HA

A

Propranolol

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53
Q

When does grasp and moro reflex disappear?

A

Grasp at 2-3 mon

Moro at 5-6 mon

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54
Q

Intraarticular injection of hyaluronic acid can be used to treat

A

OA of the knee

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55
Q

Methotrexate is contraindicated in patients with

A

Hepatic insufficiency; used to tx RA

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56
Q

EKG findings for LAE and RAE

A 
LAE = wide P waves
RAE = tall P waves
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57
Q

What does proliferative retinopathy (neovascularization) increase the risk of

A

Vitreous hemorrhage

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58
Q

Which diabetic meds have highest risk of hypoglycemia

A

Sulfonylureas (ex. Glipizide)

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59
Q

Pes anserine bursitis

A

Medial knee pain with point tenderness inferior and medial to the patella

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60
Q

Brown pigmentation on the LE is seen with

A

Chronic venous insufficiency

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61
Q

SQ red tender nodules is seen with

A

Erythema nodosum

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62
Q

What eye defect can long term oral corticosteroid use cause?

A

Glaucoma

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63
Q

Radiograph view to see scotty dog fracture

A

Oblique view

Spondylolysis

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64
Q

Tzank smear tests for

A

Herpes virus

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65
Q

Tests for syphilis

A

FTA-ABS (absorption serum test)

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66
Q

Best screening test used for evaluation of SLE

A

ANA

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67
Q

Rebound hypertension with abrupt withdrawal of what htn med?

A

Clonidine

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68
Q

Base of thumb pain is seen with RA or OA?

A

OA; typically spared in RA

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69
Q

What valvular abnormality is seen with acute MI?

A

Mitral regurgitation

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70
Q

Treatment for patient with acute bacterial prostatitis and urine retention

A

Suprapubic catheter

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71
Q

What lab value should you routinely test for patients taking lithium?

A

TSH (causes hypothyroidism)

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72
Q

Abx treatment for patient with chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

Levofloxacin or Bactrim

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73
Q

Two disorders that show Heinz bodies

A

Alpha thalassemia and G6PD

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74
Q

Lab values and PE for patient with primary biliary cirrhosis

A

-Jaundice, pruritus, fatigue

+ AMA, increase Alk phos and GGT

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75
Q

What antibody is positive for patient with autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti smooth muscle antibodies

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76
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with, and what lab value is positive?

A

Associated with IBD (UC)

Positive P-ANCA

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77
Q

“Adult” hemoglobin (HgbA) has what chains

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

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78
Q

Hgb values for patient with beta thalassemia major

A
  • No beta chains
  • Decreased Hgb A synthesis
  • Increased HgbA2 and Hgb F synthesis (due to making up for decreased Hgb A)
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79
Q

Treatment for acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis

A

IV high dose corticosteroids

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80
Q

What is tx to prevent progression of multiple sclerosis

A

Beta interferon or glutiramer acetate

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81
Q

CXR and spirometry results for bronchiestasis

A
  • Bronchial wall thickening (“tram track” airways)

- Obstructive pattern (decreased FEV1, decreased FEV1/FVC)

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82
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism lab results

A

Increase TSH (because it shows up first), normal T3/T4

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83
Q

What is a ST elevation MI equivalent

A

LBBB

Wide QRS complex with broad, slurred R wave in V5/V6 with deep S wave in V1

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84
Q

MC cause of bacterial meningitis in patients <18y, and treatment

A

N meningitidis

Tx = IV Pen G

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85
Q

Boas sign

A

R shoulder pain seen with acute cholecystitis

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86
Q

Etiology and treatment for infective endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

IV Vancomycin

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87
Q

Treatment for ITP in children and adults

A 
Children = IVIG
Adults = corticosteroids
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88
Q

Increase risk factor for Hirsprung’s

A

Increase in children with Down’s syndrome

Aganglionic

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89
Q

Triple therapy for H pylori

A

PPI + Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin

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90
Q

Best diagnostic test for pituitary adenoma

A

MRI of sella tunica (pituitary gland)

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91
Q

Acute interstitial nephritis clinical presentation, labs, and etiology

A

MC caused by drugs (like PCN)

-Fever, eosinophilia, artralgia, maculopapular rash

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92
Q

RBC casts

A

glomerulonephritis

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93
Q

WBC casts

A

acute interstitial nephritis

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94
Q

How long for treatment for first event idiopathic DVT

A

At least 6 months therapy

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95
Q

Two main lab work side effects of lithium

A

Hypothyroid

Hyperparathyroid

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96
Q

What skin condition can cause negative Nikolsky sign

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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97
Q

Side effects of Clozapine (Clozaril)

A
  • Agranulocytosis
  • Myocarditis
  • EPS symptoms
  • QT prolongation
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98
Q

Cat scratch disease etiology

A

Bartonella

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99
Q

HPV diagnosis with application of

A

Acetic acid

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100
Q

Treatment of acute bronchiolitis

A

Supportive with humidified O2

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101
Q

Ulcers with peripheral venous disease

A

Medial malleolus ulcer with uneven ulcer margins

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102
Q

Two pathognomic findings for dermatomyositis

A

Gottran’s papules

Purple heliotrope rash around eyelids

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103
Q

Two treatments for nephrogenic DI

A

Indomethacin and Hydrochlorathiazide

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104
Q

Treatment for central DI

A

Desmopressin

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105
Q

What can cause an aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell patients?

A

Parvovirus B19 infection

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106
Q

CN V sensory function

A

Corneal reflex with cotton wisps

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107
Q

What should a 13 month old infant with sickle cell disease receive

A

Folic acid and Penicillin V

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108
Q

What is associated with chronic use of phenytoin

A

Osteomalacia

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109
Q

What is a side effect of Bleomycin

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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110
Q

Granular casts

A

Chronic renal disease

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111
Q

What can an anorectal abscess turn into?

A

Anorectal fistula

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112
Q

NASH

A
  • Comes from metabolic syndrome (pt with DM, hypertriglyceridemia, htn, obesity)
  • Resembles alcoholic hepatitis but in alcoholic AST/ALT is >2 and with NASH it is <1
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113
Q

Infants with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

A
  • Infant with hx of recurrent respiratory infections and diarrhea, FTT
  • Skin changes and FH is suggestive of an X-linked immune deficiency
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114
Q

What vaccines can infant with SCID have/not have?

A
  • No live vaccines

- Can have pneumococcal vaccine PCV 13

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115
Q

Vitamin C deficiency

A
  • Scuvry
  • Bleeding tendencies, impaired wound healing, swollen gums
  • Splinter hemorrhages
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116
Q

What will staph aureus look like on blood agar, and what is it positive for?

A
  • Grape-like clusters, enterotoxins
  • Coagulase and mannitol positive
  • Shows yellow colonies on blood agar
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117
Q

Where does femoral hernias bulge at

A

Much lower in the groin than other hernias

-Even anteromedial thigh

118
Q

Risk factors for mesenteric ischemia

A
  • Htn, CAD, smoking

- Hx postprandial abd pain

119
Q

Which etiology causes rust-colored sputum?

A

Strep pneumoniae

120
Q

What does brown recluse spider look like

A

“Violin” pattern on back

121
Q

What type of drug is Oxybutynin, and what is it used for?

A
  • Anticholinergic

- Overactive bladder/urge incontinence

122
Q

Alopecia areata vs tinea capitis presentation

A 
AA = On head, oval sharply demarcated patches of hair loss
Tinea = hair that is broken off, erythematous scaly patches
123
Q

Pernicious anemia

A
  • Vit B12 deficiency and parietal cell antibodies

- Due to lack of intrinsic factor

124
Q

Bitot spots

A

-On conjunctiva with Vitamin A deficiency

125
Q

Pyridoxine deficiency

A
  • Vitamin B6
  • Peripheral neuropathy, seborrheic dermatitis
  • Glossitis
  • Caused by taking isoniazid
126
Q

How often do patients have to get colonoscopies with villous adenomas found

A
  • High risk of carcinoma

- Every 3 years

127
Q

Malignant mesothelioma (caused by, definition)

A
  • Type of respiratory malignancy, but not considered lung CA

- Pleural mesothelioma is caused by asbestos

128
Q

Congenital tracheomalacia presentaiton

A
  • Common cause of persistent wheezing in infancy

- Collapse of trachea during breathing

129
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis PE findings

A
  • Gradual worsening exertional dyspnea and non-productive dry cough
  • “velcro crackles” or fine dry bibasilar inspiratory crackles
  • Digital clubbing
  • Restrictive pulmonary disease
130
Q

Reed Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

131
Q

What 3 things is lichen planus associated with

A
  • Hepatitis C
  • Chronic active hepatitis
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
132
Q

PE findings for CAP

A
  • Inspiratory crackles
  • Bronchial breath sounds
  • Dullness to percussion if lobar consolidation
  • Increased tactile remits and bronchophony
133
Q

Lichen planus with treatment

A
  • Can have central umbilication
  • Mostly found on wrists
  • Koebner phenomenon (like in psoriasis)
  • Tx is topical corticosteroid
134
Q

One major complication of PUD

A

Acute massive hemorrhage due to perforation

135
Q

What complicates 10% of acute pancreatitis attacks

A

Pancreatic pseudocysts

136
Q

Anion gap

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3)

137
Q

Carcinoid tumor definition, what it secretes, and treatment

A
  • Neuroendocrine tumors of the digestive tract, lungs (sometimes ovaries and kidneys)
  • Secrete serotonin, histamine, catecholamines, etc
  • Episodic skin flushing, wheezing, diarrhea
  • Tx with somatostatin analogue (Octreotide)
138
Q

Melisma

A

Hyperpigmented brown patches in pregnancy

139
Q

Complication of Hirschsprung disease

A

Toxic megacolon

140
Q

Concern with bilious vomiting

A

Intestinal obstruction (like intussusception)

141
Q

Treatment for nonthrombosed and thrombosed hemorrhoids

A

Topical steroid cream to improve pain and swelling with external hemorrhoids
Topical Nifedipine to treat thrombosed hemorrhoids

142
Q

TIBC and ferritin levels for IDA

A

Increased TIBC

Decreased ferritin

143
Q

DOC for rosacea

A

Topical metronidazole

144
Q

Drug used for maintenance treatment of UC

A

Mesalamine (5 ASA)

145
Q

Electrolyte abnormality for sarcoidosis

A

Hypercalcemia (due to granuloma producing excess calcitrol/Vitamin D)

146
Q

Patho skin feature with sarcoidosis

A

Lupus pernio-violaceous raised plaques found on cheeks and nose

147
Q

Drug treatment for diabetic gastroparesis

148
Q

Treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa

A
  • Skin condition causing scarring, keloids, etc

- Topical Clindamycin

149
Q

Treatment for life-threatening hypermagnesemia

A

IV Ca and dialysis

150
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is seen in what patients

A

MC in alcoholics or chronically debilitated patients

-Currant jelly sputum

151
Q

Lichen simplex chronicus definition and treatment

A
  • Secondary to repetitive rubbing or scratching
  • Patients may have history of chronic skin disorder (atopic dermatitis)
  • Erythematous, scaly plaques with well-defined borders
  • Tx = topical corticosteroids
152
Q

MC lung CA

A

Adenocarcinoma (non-small cell)

153
Q

MC inherited hyper coagulability disorder

A

Factor V Leiden

154
Q

Vitamin B1 deficiency

A

(Thiamine)

-Beriberi; numbness, decreased proprioception, confusion, abnormal eye movements, vomiting

155
Q

Treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Pulm rehab and O2

156
Q

Schatzki’s ring

A

Common cause of dysphagia after steak

-Fibrous strictures

157
Q

MC surgical emergency in pregnant women

A

Appendicitis

158
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia

A

Woman <35y with unexplained htn, renal bruit

159
Q

Two causes of renal artery stenosis

A

Atherosclerosis and fibromuscular dysplasia

160
Q

What toxicity can isotrentinon lead to?

A

Vitamin A toxicity

161
Q

Two etiologies for PNA in patients with COPD

A

H flu and pseudomonas

162
Q

Secondary syphilis

A

Fever, HA, malaise, LAD

Rash-papules, macules, etc that are brown or copper-colored

163
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis lab values

A

AKA cirrhosis
-Causes progressive cholestasis and can result in end stage liver disease
Increase alk phos, AMA, ANA, hyperlipidemia

164
Q

MC type of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change disease, but can also be seen in patients with Hodgkin’s and NHL

165
Q

What can cirrhosis lead to in the GI tract; presentation and treatment

A

Cirrhosis –> primary htn –> esophageal varices (dilated gastric veins)

  • Massive upper GI bleed
  • Tx with therapeutic endoscopy with variceal ligation or banding
166
Q

Common cause of hypomagnesemia

A

Malnutrition

167
Q

DOC for patient with PCKD

A

ACE or ARB

168
Q

Treatment for pityriasis rosea

A

Low potency topical corticosteroids (Triamcinolone acetonide)

169
Q

Diagnosing and treatment for tinea corporis

A

Topical clotrimazole

KOH skin scraping

170
Q

Treatment for impetigo

171
Q

What blocks the release of stored thyroid hormone

172
Q

Sandpaper rash with circumoral sparing

A

Scarlet fever

173
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is commonly seen in patients with AKI

A

Hyperkalemia

174
Q

CA marker for gastric CA

175
Q

Parvovirus B19 causes what in patients with sickle cell disease

A

Transient aplastic crisis

176
Q

Treatment for localized psoriasis

A

Topical glucocorticoid (Betamethasone propionate)

177
Q

Symptoms for primary biliary cholangitis/cirrhosis

A

Fatigue, jaundice, pruritus, RUQ discomfort

178
Q

Nonbloody diarrhea, crampy and pain, weight loss

A

Crohns disease

179
Q

PE for patient with crohn’s (4)

A

Aphthous ulcers
Anal fissures
Perirectal abscesses
Anorectal fistulas

180
Q

Positive labs for Crohn’s

A

ASCA +

p-ANCA -

181
Q

Criteria for acute pancreatitis

A

Ranson’s criteria

182
Q

Fanconi Anemia type of anemia and treatment

A
  • Defect in DNA repair; autosomal recessive
  • Increased risk for AML and solid tumors
  • Pancytopenia with elevated Hgb F
  • Absent thumbs, short statues
  • Tx with bone marrow transplant
183
Q

What is important about thiamine replacement

A

Replace thiamine BEFORE giving glucose

184
Q

What is erysipelas MC caused by and treatment

A

beta-hemolytic streptococci (streptococcus pyogenes)

Tx with Ceftriaxone or Cefazolin

185
Q

Type of rash in erysipelas

A

Tender, intensely erythematous plaque in butterfly pattern

Well demarcated and slightly raised

186
Q

Difference between hausfrau and teniae coli

A

Haustra is small pouches of the intestines

Teniae coli runs the length of the large intestine

187
Q

Clinical picture, lab work, and treatment for ITP

A
  • Child with hx of recent viral infection
  • Petechiae, purpura, gingival bleeding
  • Platelets <100,000
  • Caused by anti platelet antibodies
  • Tx-observation, steroids, IVIG
188
Q

Etiologies for Boerhaave syndrome

A

Iatrogenic
Forceful vomiting
Causes full thickness eso rupture

189
Q

CXR and diagnostic test for boerhaave syndrome

A

CXR-pneumomediastinum

Esophogram

190
Q

PE for boerhaave syndrome

A

Hamman’s crunch (mediastinal crackling with each heartbeat)

191
Q

Difference between the two types of anesthetics

A

Amides have 2 “i’s” (Lidocaine, Bupivacaine)

Esters have 1 “I” (Tetracaine, Procaine)

192
Q

3 classes of drugs that can help with pain associated with IBS

A

SSRI (Citalopram)
TCA (Desipramine)
Antispasmodics (Atropine, Dicyclomine, Scopolamine)

193
Q

Cancer with strikingly high WBC count

194
Q

What are home birth deliveries at risk of

A

Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn

  • Vitamin K to improve coagulation defects
  • Newborn will present with epistaxis
195
Q

3 causes that have Howell Jolly bodies

A

Asplenia
Splenectomy patients
Sickle cell disease

196
Q

Lab values (PTT, PT, fibrinogen, platelets) for DIC

A

Prolonged PTT, PT

Decreased fibrinogen, platelets

197
Q

Antiplatelet IgG is seen in adults with

198
Q

Schistocytes is seen in what two blood disorders

199
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Thalassemias and lead poisoning

200
Q

Hyperresonance to percussion is seen with

A

Emphysema or pneumothorax

201
Q

Dullness to percussion is seen with

A

PNA or pleural effusion

202
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis

A

+ osmotic fragility test

  • Microcytic or normocytic anemia with normal hematocrit
  • Spherocytes
  • Howell jolly bodies
  • Increase in MCHC
203
Q

Med that can cause agranulocytosis

A

(severe leukopenia)

Clozapine (atypical antipsychotic)

204
Q

What do you have to be careful for with patients on chemotherapy?

A

Neutropenic fever

205
Q

Suspect what in older patients with atraumatic back pain

A

Multiple myeloma

206
Q

Does thiamine deficiency cause anemia?

A

No, causes beriberi or wernicke Korsakoff syndrome

207
Q

Treatment for lead toxicity

A

Succimer (it sucks to eat lead)

Lead causes sideroblastic anemia

208
Q

Hemoglobin and reticulocyte count in patients with aplastic crisis

A

Both are decreased

209
Q

5 disorders that have Howell jolly bodies

A 
Asplenia
Sickle cell dz
Megaloblastic anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
MDS
210
Q

DOC for bleeding in patients with von willebrand’s

A

Desmopressin

211
Q

Red man syndrome

A

Anaphylactoid reaction to vancomycin due to histamine release
Intense pruritus, lightheadedness, erythema on face and neck

212
Q

RDW in IDA and thalassemia

A

Measures the deviation in volume of the RBCs
Increased in IDA
Normal in thalassemia

213
Q

Koebner’s phenomenon

A

Plaques develop on areas of skin injury (like from scratching)
Like in psoriasis

214
Q

Etiology for empyema (lung abscess)

A

Staph aureus

215
Q

Main difference between wernicke’s encephalopathy and acute alcohol intoxication

A

Wernicke’s has ophthalmoplegia (which reverses rapidly following IV infusion of thiamine)

216
Q

Onion skin reaction on xray

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

217
Q

How long does diabetic patient with osteomyelitis need abx?

218
Q

Most useful confirmatory test for carpal tunnel

219
Q

What kind of drugs is triptans?

A

Serotonin agonists

220
Q

Common peroneal nerve entrapment causes what

221
Q

LP for meningoencephalitis (protein, glucose, opening pressure)

A

Normal protein and glucose
Normal CSF: serum glucose ratio
Slightly elevated opening pressure

222
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

Premature closure of the cranial sutures

223
Q

DOC for idiopathic pulmonary hypertension

224
Q

Calcitonin is produced in large quantities in what cancer

A

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Also has large amounts of amyloid stroma

225
Q

One side effect of antithyroid meds is

A

Rapid agranulocytosis (low neutrophil count)

226
Q

Thyroid disorder that usually follows a viral infection

A

Subacute thyroiditis

Patient does not need hyperthyroid meds

227
Q

In nephrogenic DI, what happens to urine osmolality with administration of vasopressin?

A

No increase in urine osmolality

Lithium can cause nephrogenic DI

228
Q

Rash, multiorgan dysfunction, shock

A

TSS from staph aureus

229
Q

CT showing multiple cyst lessons with dot sign

A

(the eyes)

Neurocysticercosis from Taenia solium

230
Q

Acute rheumatic fever is caused by

A

Group A strep

231
Q

3 complications of untreated lyme disease

A

Erythema migrans
Althralgias
Myocarditis

232
Q

MC cause of viral meningitis

A

Enterovirus

233
Q

Spaghetti and meatball appearance and well-demarcated macules

A

Tinea versicolor

234
Q

Auspitz sign

A

Punctate bleeding spots when plaques of psoriasis are unroofed

235
Q

Med used to prevent tumor lysis syndrome

A

Allopurinol

236
Q

Mood stabilizer for bipolar patient that can’t tolerate lithium

237
Q

MC cause of lateral knee pain in runners, positive test

A

Iliotibial band syndrome

Positive Ober test

238
Q

What is used to open or close PDA

A 
Open = Prostaglandins
Close = Indomethacin
239
Q

MC benign ovarian neoplasm

A

Dermoid cystic teratoma

240
Q

PNA + diarrhea

A

Legionella

From air conditioners

241
Q

Pencil in cup deformity

A

Psoriatic arthritis

242
Q

What can cyclophosphamide cause?

A

Bladder CA and hemorrhagic cystitis

243
Q

Lymphoma associated with EBV

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

244
Q

Presentation and definition for Burkitt’s lymphoma

A
  • Highly malignant form of NHL
  • Common in children
  • Rapidly enlarging jaw
245
Q

What does histology show for Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

Starry sky pattern of rapidly proliferating malignant lymphocytes

246
Q

CA with non-contiguous extra nodal spread of disease

247
Q

Loss of normal shoulder contour

A

Glenohumeral dislocation

248
Q

MC cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

249
Q

MC cause of osteomyelitis when object goes through a shoe

A

Pseudomonas

250
Q

Aspergilloma cavity of the lung is MC a result of

A

Previous TB infection

251
Q

Fifth’s disease when pregnant

A

Hydrops fatalis

252
Q

Treatment for histoplasmosis and cocci

A

Hist-Itraconazole

Cocci-Amphotericin B

253
Q

Selective Cox 2 inhibitor (NSAID)

254
Q

MC cause of seizures and dysentery

255
Q

VDRL can be false positive in what patients

256
Q

Complication of Ziduvodine (HIV med)

A

Lactic acidosis

257
Q

MC cause of mitral valve stenosis

A

AF

Rumbling sound

258
Q

MI and infective endocarditis can cause

A

Acute mitral regurgitation

259
Q

Pyloric stenosis causes what acid base disorder

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

260
Q

What can myocarditis cause

A

Dilated CM

261
Q

Most people with atrial fibrillation have what valvular abnormality?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

262
Q

Patient with atherosclerotic disease and c/o acute onset crampy abd pain

A

Ischemic colitis

263
Q

Patient with hx repeated response tract infection with cough with mucopurulent, foul-smelling sputum

A

Bronchiectasis (MC caused by cystic fibrosis)

264
Q

Patient c/o skin flushing, wheezing, and diarrhea

A

Carcinoid syndrome

265
Q

Diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome

A

Made by 24 hour excretion of 5-HIAA of urine

266
Q

Paradoxal split S2

A

Aortic stenosis

267
Q

EKG findings for Brugada syndrome

A
  • Associated with sudden cardiac arrest
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Pseudo RBBB
  • Persistent ST segment elevation in leads V1-V2
268
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome

A

Long standing L–>R shunt leads to pulmonary htn and reversal to cyanotic R–>L shunt

269
Q

7 risk factors for coronary artery disease

A 
DM (worst factor)
cigarette smoking
HLD
htn
Males
Age 
FH of CAD
270
Q

Acute hepatitis can cause what in bloodworm

A

aplastic anemia (Decreased WBC, RBC, platelets)

271
Q

Causes of worsening hepatic encephalopathy

A

Constipation
Hypokalemia
High protein diet
Diuretics

272
Q

Med used to prevent vasospasm following an intercerebral hemorrhage

A

Nimodipine (CCB)

273
Q

Tzank smear showing multinucleate giant cells

A

Herpes zoster

274
Q

Tx for carotid artery dissection

A

Anticoags (heparin then warfarin)

275
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome

A

Migratory thrombophlebitis (seen with pancreatic cancer)

276
Q

Triple therapy for H pylori

A

Clarithromycin, Amoxicillin (or Metronidazole if allergic to PCN), PPI

277
Q

Decreased in patient’s radial pulse during inspiration

A

Pulsus paradoxus

Seen with constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade, obstructive lung disease

278
Q

MC cause of cor pulmonale

279
Q

Which antipsychotic can cause myocarditis and pericarditis

280
Q

Posterior MI EKG

A

ST depression and larger R waves in V1,2,3

281
Q

Ischemia without MI EKG

A

T wave inversion without Q waves

282
Q

Test to confirm diagnosis of epiglottis in a mild resp distress patient

A

Direct laryngoscopy (to then intubate afterwards)

283
Q

Med used in acute aortic dissection

A

Beta blockers to slow contraction and HR down

284
Q

Diagnostic test for acute aortic dissection

A

CT chest/abd

285
Q

Pleural line on CXR

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

286
Q

Livido reticularis

A

Mottled purple discoloration on skin seen with polyarteritis nodosa

287
Q

Moderate vomiting and dehydration can cause what potassium abnormality?

A

Hypokalemia

288
Q

Confirmatory test for pertussis

A

PCR assay and antigen detection

289
Q

MC cardiac arrhythmia in patient with hyperthyroidism

A

Atrial fibrillation, then sinus tachycardia

290
Q

Initial test of choice for diagnosis of hernia

A

ultrasound

291
Q

Wilson disease

A
  • Kayser Fleischer rings
  • Accumulation of copper
  • Low serum levels of ceruloplasmin
  • Hepatitis, neuro sxs

PANCE Prep (2 decks)

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